1. Right to property is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Social Right
(d) Directive Principle of the State
2. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State Policy under the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(b) Right to equal pay for equal work
(c) Promotion of international peace and security
(d) Free and compulsory education for children upto fourteen years of age
3. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Backward Classes Commission
(b) Election Commission
(c) Union Public Service Commission
. (d) Finance Commission
4. Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by.
(a) President of India
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above
5. Under the Constitution of India, the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge is given in
(a) Article 126
(b) Article 127
(c) Article 124(4)
(d) Article 124(6)
6. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Proclamation of Emergency
(d) Union Public Service Commission
7. In a suit against the Central Government the authority to be named as defendant is
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Minister of concerned department
(d) The Union of India
8. Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908, second appeal lies to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate Court to the High Court if it involves
(a) Question of Law
(b) Question of Fact
(c) Mixed Question of Law and Fact
(d) Substantial Question of Law
9. The maximum amount which a Court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexatious claims or defence under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is
(a) Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 3,000
(c) Rs. 5,000
(d) Rs. 25,000
10. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, attachment before Judgement is provided?
(a) Order XXVI, Rule 4
(b) Order XXXIX, Rule 2
(c) Order XXXVIII, Rule 5
(d) Order XL, Rule 1
11. Order V of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provides for
(a) Admission
(b) Summoning and attendance of witness ,
(c) Issue and service of summons
(d) Pleadings
12. Pleading can be amended under which of the provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908:
(a) Before the trial Court only
(b) Before the first Appellate Court only
(c) Before the second Appellate Court only
(d) Before either the trial Court, first Appellate Court or second Appellate Court
13. Attachment of a portion of salary can be continued as a provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for a maximum period of
(a) 6 months
(b) 12 months
(c) 24 months
(d) 36 months
14. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit
(a) For partition
(b) For possession and mesne profit
(c) For partnership
(d) All of the above
15. The period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction shall not exceed
(a) One month
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
16. A suit in respect of Public Charities is provided under
(a) Section 41 of CPC
(b) Section 92 of CPC
(c) Section 100 of CPC
(d) Section 91 of CPC
17. Where a party dies after conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncement of the judgement,
(a) The suit shall abate
(b) The suit shall not abate
(c) It will be deemed that the judgement has been pronounced before death of the party
(d) None of the above
18. If a party who has obtained an order to amend the pleadings under Civil Procedure Code, if not amended after, expiration of how many days shall not be permitted to amend the same without the leave of the Court?
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
19. What js estoppel?
(a) Prohibition from proving a certain fact
(b) Prohibition from claiming a certain property
(c) To stop a person
(d) None of the above
20. Thirty years old document if produced from a proper custody
(a) Court shall presume its execution
(b) Court may presume its execution
(c) Presumption not involved
(d) None of the above
21. Which of the following is not included in section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Motive
(b) Intention
(c) Preparation
(d) Conduct
22. Under which section of Indian Evidence Act, a public servant shall not be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence?
(a) Section 123
(b) Section 124
(c) Section 125
(d) Section 126
23. Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act does not deal with criminal matters?
(a) Section 25
(b) Section 23
(c) Section 53
(d) Section 30
24. The Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on the electronic record under Indian Evidence Act when .it is
(a) 30 years old
(b) 3 years old
(c) 5 years old
(d) 6 years old
25. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Opinions of experts -Section 45 of the Evidence Act
(b) Secondary Evidence -Section 62 of the Evidence Act
(c) Leading Question -Section 141 of the Evidence Act
(d) No. of witness -Section 134 of the Evidence Act
26. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of “Res Gestae” is given
(a) Section 60
(b) Section 25
(c) Section 24
(d) Section 6
27. Indian Evidence Act does not expressly mention about:—
(a) Oral Evidence
(b) Documentary Evidence
(c) Secondary Evidence
(d) Circumstantial Evidence
28. What is private document?
(a) Document executed in a family
(b) Secret document
(c) Document in custody of private person
(d) Document other than a public document
29. When under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is statement recorded by the police?
(a) During trial
(b) Before investigation
(c) During enquiry
(d) During investigation
30. The procedure for trial before a Court of Session is provided under section of the Code of Criminal Procedure
(a) Section 262 to section 265 of CrPC
(b) Section 238 to section 250 of CrPC
(c) Section 251 to section 269 of CrPC
(d) . Section 225 to section 237 of CrPC
31. What is the maximum period an Executive Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused in custody?
(a) Not exceeding 24 hours
(b) Not exceeding 3 days
(c) Not exceeding 7 days
(d) Not exceeding 15 days
32. For the purpose of taking cognizance of an offence, what period of limitation is pi escribed for an offence carrying punishment not exceeding one year by the Court
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 years
(d) None of the above
33. Under which section of CrPC. Magistrate may direct a local investigation?
(a) Section 133
(b) Section 139
(c) Section 145
(d) Section 146
34. A statement recorded under which section of CrPC need not be signed by the maker?
(a) 164
(b) 313
(c) 161
(d) None of the above
35. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the CrPC by
(a) Any police officer
(b) The police officer investigating the case
(c) The station house officer
(d) None of the above
36. the prosecution of Judges and public servants are provided in
(a) Section 179 CrPC
(b) Section 192 CrPC
(c) Section 197 CrPC
(d) Section 297 CrPC
37. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; in
(a) Section 312
(b) Section 313
(c) Section 315
(d) Section 316
38. Under section 190(2) of CrPC who may empower any Magistrate of second class to take cognizance of offences?
(a) High Court
(b) Court of Sessions
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) None of the above
39. Under which one of the following sections of CrPC, Magistrate second class can conduct summary trial?
(a) Section 260
(b) Section 261
(c) Section 262
(d) Section 263
40. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under CrPC by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under
(a) Section 357(A)
(b) Section 357(B)
(c) Section 357(C)
(d) Section 357
41. Which are the two essential elements of an offence?
(a) Motive and Act
(b) Motive and Conviction
(c) Motive and Injury
(d) Preparation and Punishment
42. For the offence of abduction of person, abducted must be:—
(a) Minor
(b) Major
(c) Minor or major
(d) None of the above
43. Which of the following is an essential part of ‘Rule of Law’ and ‘Independence of Judiciary’?
(a) Judicial Review
(b) Impartial appointment of Judges
(c) Impeachment
(d) Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
44. According to clause 1 of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of
(a) Public order
(b) Morality
(c) Health
(d) All of the above
45. Which among the following has the power extend the functions of the State Public Service Commission?
(a) The Governor
(b) The State Legislature
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Advocate General
46. Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution provides for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more States?
(a) 2nd
(b) 3rd
(c) 5th
(d) 7th
47. Power to constitute new States and determination of its boundaries vests in
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) Supreme Court of India
48. The words “Unity of Integrity of the Nation” were incorporated in the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Amendment?
(a) 41
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 44
49. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act is not applicable:—
(a) Where the transfer is by way of sale
(b) Where the transfer is by way of gift
(c) Where the transfer is by way of lease
(d) Where the transfer is by way of exchange
50. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for application of Rule of “Lis Pendens" under section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act.
(a) Pendency of a suit or proceeding
(b) Pendency in a competent court
(c) Suit must be collusive
(d) Alienation must affect the rights of the other party
51. Which of the following is not an actionable claim?
(a) Right to a Provident Fund Account
(b) Promise to pay Rs. 5000, if the promisee succeeds in LL.B. Examination
(c) Agreement to pay Rs. 2000 if the promisee marries a particular woman
(d) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
52. Any application for which no period of application is provided can be filed within:—
(a) 3 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) At anytime
53. The period of limitation for a suit for damages on account of malicious prosecution is:—
(a) 3 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years
54. The law of limitation runs from the:—
(a) Date the plaint is returned
(b) Date, of the order which plaint is directed to be returned
(c) Depends upon the circumstances
(d) None of the above
55. Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit
(a) Fraud
(b) Mistake
(c) Concealment
(d) All the above
56. Which of the following sections of Limitation Act deals with effect of substituting or adding new plaintiff or defendant?
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 21
57. Which section of the Contract Act defines “Sub Agent”?
(a) Section 190
(b) Section 191
(c) Section 192
(d) None of the above
58. The nature of an agreement made under the provisions of section 20 of the Indian Contract Act would be:—
(a) Valid
(b) Invalid
(c) Void
(d) Voidable
59. “Contract of Indemnity” is defined in which section of Indian Contract Act?
(a) Section 124
(b) Section 125
(c) Section. 126
(d) Section 127
60. Under section 24 of Indian Contract Act which one of the following agreements is void?
(a) If caused by fraud
(b) If caused by coercion
(c) If consideration is unlawful
(d) None of the above
61. “The liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor.” It has been provided under Indian Contract Act:—
(a) In section 126
(b) In section 127
(c) In section 128
(d) In section 129
62. The Rent Controller shall be not below the rank of:—
(a) Tahsildar
(b) Assistant Superintendent
(c) Deputy Collector
(d) Civil Judge
63. The right available to a tenant under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 is provided in:—
(a) Schedule 1 of the Act
(b) Schedule 2 of the Act
(c) Schedule 3 of the Act
(d) Schedule 4 of the Act
64. Which of the following sections of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 defines “Habitual defaulter”?
(a) Section 2(1)
(b) Section 2(3)
(c) Section 2(4)
(d) Section 2(5)
65. Which of the following is compulsorily registerable under the provision of the Registration Act, 1908?
(a) Will
(b) Deed of Adoption
(c) Debenture
(d) Gift deed of immovable property
66. Section 17 of the Registration Act provides for:—
(a) dcruments which are not at all registrable
(b) documents which are compulsorily registrable
(c) documents the registration of which is optional
(d) both (a) and (c)
67. Under Registration Act, 1908, a Will can be ‘Presented for Registration’ within:—
(a) Four months of its execution
(b) Six months of its execution
(c) Two months of its execution
(d) At anytime
68. Under Registration Act, 1908; on Re- Registration, the Registration shall be effective:—
(a) From the date of its original Registration
(b) From the date of Presentation for Re- Registration
(c) From the date of Re-Registration
(d) From the date which the Registrar fixes
69. According to section 7(10) of the Court Fee Act, court fee in the suit for specific performance would be
(a) According to amount of consideration
(b) According to desire of the plaintiff
(c) Upon discretion of Court
(d) None of the above
70. Section 19 of. the Court Fee Act, 1870 relates to
(a) Refund of Court fee
(b) Remission of Court fee
(c) Exemption of Court fee
(d) Exemption of Court fee of certain document
71. Which section of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code deals with the appointment of ‘Kotwar’:—
(a) Section 225
(b) Section 229
(c) Section 230
(d) Section 234
72. According to Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, who is not a Revenue Officer?
(a) Collector
(b) Settlement officer
(c) Superintendent of Land Records
(d) Revenue Inspector
73. “Agriculture Year”, as defined in section 2(c) of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 commences:—
(a) From 1st January
(b) From 1st April
(c) From 1st July
(d) From 1st September
74. Which one of the following sections of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 provides for remission or suspension of Land Revenue on failure of crops?
(a) Section 142
(b) Section 143
(c) Section 144
(d) Section 145
75. As per Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, who shall make the assessment of “Land Revenue” on all lands on which the assessment has not been riiade?
(a) Tahsildar
(b) Sub-Divisional Officer
(c) Collector
(d) Commissioner
76. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 who has the power to declare as to what shall be deemed to be country liquor and foreign liquor?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Chief Revenue Authority
(d) Excise Officer
77. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 Tari means:—
(a) Fermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree
(b) Unfermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
78. Provision for enhanced punishment in case of subsequent conviction for certain crimes punishable under Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 is provided under:—
(a) Section 34(1)
(b) Section 34(2)
(c) Section 36
(d) Section 45
79. Section 61D of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 relates to:—
(a) Limitation of suits
(b) Recovery of Government dues
(c) Power of State Government to exempt from the provisions of the Act
(d) Power to search without warrant
80. When is an offence under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 compoundable?
(a) If the cheque amount is upto Rs. 5,00,000.
(b) If the cheque amount is Rs. 10,00,000
(c) If the cheque amount is upto Rs. 20,00,000
(d) Cheque for any amount
81. The term ‘a Cheque in the electronic form’ is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 under:—
(a) Section 6(a)
(b) Section 6(b)
(c) Explanation 1(a) of section 6
(d) None of the above
82. Under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the maximum punishment prescribed is
(a) Imprisonment upto One year and fine upto the amount of cheque
(b) Imprisonment upto Two years and fine upto the amount of cheque
(c) Imprisonment upto Two years and fine upto the twice the amount of cheque
(d) None of the above
83. As per Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a ‘Bill of Exchange’ is:—
(a) A Conditional promise to pay
(b) An Unconditional order to pay
(c) An Unconditional promise to pay
(d) None of the above
84. A ‘Demand Draft’ is defined under section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
(a) Section 17
(b) Section 18(B)
(c) Section 85(A)
(d) Section 7
85. A suit for possession of an immovable property under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed within:—
(a) 6 months of dispossession
(b) 1 year of dispossession
(c) 3 years of dispossession
(d) 12 years of dispossession
86. Under which section of Specific Relief Act, 1963, the provision for partial cancellation of an instrument Is made
(a) Section 31
(b) Section 27
(c) Section 32
(d) Section 29
87. A declaration made under Chapter 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963, is binding on
(a) The parties to the suit
(b) Person claiming through the parties to the suit
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
88. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, deals with cases where an injunction may be refused?
(a) Section 38
(b) Section 39
(c) Section 41
(d) Section 42
89. Under which section of IRC attempt to commit Robbery is punishable?
(a) Section 392
(b) Section 393
(c) Section 395
(d) Section 396
90. Which provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under 7 years of age”?
(a) Section 79
(b) Section 80
(c) Section 82
(d) Section 85
91. Which one of the following provision of Indian Penal Code relates to “Criminal Force”?
(a) Section 349
(b) Section 350
(c) Section 351
(d) None of above
92. Which one of the following section of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for counterfeiting currency notes or Bank notes?
(a) Section 489A
(b) Section 489B
(c) Section 489C
(d) Section 489D
93. If a police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite producing the bail order from the Court, police officer is guilty of:—
(a) Abduction
(b) Wrongful restraint
(c) Wrongful confinement
(d) None of the above
94. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is a punishable offence under Indian Penal Code under:—
(a) Section 354(A)
(b) Section 354(B)
(c) Section 354(C)
(d) Section 354(D)
95. Under which section of the IPC, Gang rape is punishable?
(a) Section 376(A)
(b) Section 376(B)
(c) Section 376(C)
(d) Section 376(D)
96. Under section 499 of Indian Penal Code how many exceptions are provided for the offence of defamation?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
97. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for voluntarily causing hurt on provocation?
(a) Section 324
(b) Section 332
(c) Section 334
(d) Section 323
98. Which one of the following section of Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for mischief?
(a) Section 426
(b) Section 427
(c) Section 428
(d) None of above
99. Under which section of the Transfer of Property Act “Transfer of Property” is defined?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 8
100. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift is
(a) Illegal
(b) Valid.
(c) Void
(d) Voidable
