1. What is the name of the fifth exploratory vehicle for the Red Planet ‘Mars’ chosen recently by a seventh grade student, Alex Mather?
a. Curiosity
b. Sojourner
c. Perseverance
d. Spirit
2. Who among the following was administered oath as the Information Commissioner by Bimal Julka, soon after taking his oath as the Chief Information Commissioner in the Central Information Commissioner?
a. Amita Pandove
b. Sudhir Bhargava
c. Amitava Bhattacharya
d. Divya Prakash Sinha
3. ‘Vivad Se Vishwas Bill, 2020’ was approved by the Lok Sabha in March 2020. It is related with
a. indirect taxes
b. direct taxes
c. customs duty
d. excise duty
4. The technology behind crypto-currencies is known as
a. Bathwater
b. Fintech
c. Investopedia'
d. Blockchain
5. Who was the founder of the Australian Associated Press (AAP) which recently announced its closure. after 85 years in business?
a. Keith Murdoch
b. John Malone
c. Brian Roberts
d. Michael Bloomberg
6. The report of the interlocutors appointed by the Supreme Court to talk to protestors who were opposing CAA at Shaheen Bagh, Delhi to move to a site which does not inconvenience the public, was submitted before which Bench?
a. Justices A.M. Khanwilkar and K.M. Joseph
b. Justices S.K. Kaul and K.M. Joseph
c. Justices N.V. Ramana and A.K.Mishra
d. Justices Ajay Rastogi and S.K. Kaul
7. What is the name of the prison in the UK from where Julian Assange was brought to a Court of the District Judge Vanessa Baraitser in February 2020?
a. Berwyn Prison
b. Bedford Prison
c. Belmarsh Prison
d. Birmingham Prison
8. In February 2020, the Supreme Court said in a judgement that an individual does not have a fundamental right to claim reservation in appointments and promotions. It set aside which Court’s ruling that had quashed a State Government’s decision to fill all the posts in public services without providing any reservations to SCs/STs?
a. Patna High Court
b. Karnataka High Court
c. Himachal Pradesh High Court
d. Uttarakhand High Court
9. Which newspaper carries a weekly column, ‘Word of the Week’ by Shashi Tharoor?
a. Times of India, New Delhi
b. The Hindu
c. Hindustan Times, New Delhi
d. Indian Express, New Delhi
10. Who was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the Australian Open Tennis Men’s Singles Final, 2020?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. D. Thiem
c. R. Federer
d. A. Zverev
11. Name the Mayor of Agra who handed over a 12 inch silver key to the US President, Donald Trump when he visited the city recently.
a. Baby Rani Maurya
b. Inderjeet Singh Arya
c. Anjula Singh Mahaur
d. Naveen Jain
12. The recent ruling by the Supreme Court that all women officers are entitled to the permanent commission in the Indian Army concluded a struggle that started in 2003. Who was the first petitioner?
a. Babita Puniya
b. Sandhya Yadav
c. Mitali Madhumita
d. Aishwarya Bhati
13. Who among the following singers read a couplet of a young poet, Amir Aziz recently?
a. Bob Dylan
b. Bruce Springsteen
c. Richard Clayderman
d. Roger Waters
14. Who among the following Republican Senators voted to convict the US President, Donald Trump in his impeachment proceedings in February 2020?
a. Lamar Alexander
b. Mitt Romney
c. Bill Cassidy
d. Jerry Moran
15. The US astronaut, Christina Koch, broke whose record as the single longest stay in space by a woman?
a. Jessica Meir
b. Sunita Williams
c. Peggy Whitson
d. Anne McClain
16. Where was ‘Azadi Ke Diwane Museum’ inaugurated in March 2019?
a. Amer Fort, Jaipur
b. Red Ford, Delhi .
c. Red Ford, Agra
d. Kangra Fort, Kangra
17. What is the title of Viswanathan Anand’s autobiography?
a. Mind Twister
b. Mind Games
c. Mind Moves
d. Mind Master
18. Who was elected as the eighth Prime Minister of Malaysia in March 2020?
a. Muhyiddin Yassin
b. Mahathir Mohamad
c. Najib Razak
d. Abdullah Ahmad Badawi
19. Where is Chapchar Kut festival celebrated?
a. Nagaland
b. Sikkim
c. Mizoram
d. Manipur
20. Who was the Chief Guest on the Republic Day of India in 2020?
a. President of Sri Lanka—Gotabaya Rajapaksa
b. President of Brazil—Bolsonaro
c. President of
d. President of Myanmar—Win Myint
21. Which of the following radiations is used in mobile communication?
a. Infrared
b. Ultraviolet
c. Microwave
d. X-ray
22. Which statement about LEDs (Light- Emitting Diodes) is not correct?
a. LED light sources consume less electricity.
b. LEDs have longer lifetime than lightbulbs.
c. LEDs are available in colours such as red, green, yellow, blue and white.
d. LEDs use mercury which is harmful to human.
23. The motion of the needle of a sewing machine is
a. periodic
b. rectilinear
c. circular
d. irregular
24. The unit of potential difference is
a. coulomb
b. watt
c. volt
d. ohm
25. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
a. cornea
b. iris
c. pupil
d. retina
26. The colour of light that bends the most while passing through a prism is
a. yellow
b. blue
c. red
d. violet
27. Forces of action and reaction are
a. always equal only
b. always opposite only
c. always equal and opposite
d. always equal and in the same direction
28. The process of change of state from gaseous to liquid or solid state is called
a. evaporation
b. condensation
c. dew formation
d. liquidization
29. Cryogenic engines are used in
a. atomic reactors
b. agriculture
c. railways
d. rockets
30. A device that is used to save an electric circuit is called
a. fuse
b. switch
c. filament
d. terminals
31. An ionic compound has unit cell consisting A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions at the centres of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula of the compound would be
a. A
b. AB.
c. a2b
d. AB
32. Which of the following compounds is metallic and ferromagnetic?
a. TiO2
b. CrO2
c. vo2
d. MnO2
33. In a factory, 40 kg of calcium is produced in 2 hours. If the capacity of flow of current is 50%, then how much aluminium can be obtained by passing the same current for 2 hours?
a. 22 kg
b. 18 kg
c. 9 kg
d. 27 kg
34. If E° value of a given cell is 1 V at 298 K temperature, then what is the value of equilibrium constant?
a. 10-37
b. 1037
c. 10-73
d. 1073
35. The standard electrode potentials of three metals x, y and z are -2 V, +0.5 V and -3.0 V. The order of reducing agents of the three metals is
a. y > z > x
b. y > x > z
c. z > x > y
d. x > y > z
36. When the initial concentration of the reactant is doubted, the half-life period of a zero-order reaction
a. remains unchanged
b. is halved
c. is tripled
d. is doubled
37. Which of the following is the best substance for coagulation of gold sol?
a. KNO3
b. K4 [Fe (CN)J
c. MgCl2
d. K3PO4
38. Which of the following nuclei has zero spin?
a. 2H
b. 14N
c. 4He
d. 0B
39. The ore which is found in abundance in India is
a. monazite
b. fluorspar
c. bauxite
d. magnetite
40. For the process, dry ice -> CO2
a. AH is positive and AS is negative
b. AH is negative and AS is positive
c. both AH and AS are negative
d. both AH and AS are positive
41. Organelles can be separated from cell homogenate through
a. X-ray diffraction
b. chromatography
c. auto-radiography
d. differential centrifugation
42. When does pairing/synapsis (bivalent formation) occur in meiosis?
a. During zygotene
b. During diplotene
c. During pachytene
d. During leptotene
43. Mutualism and protocooperation are
a. negative interactions
b. positive interactions
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
44. How does trypsin differ from pepsin?
a. Trypsin digests protein in alkaline medium while pepsin does so in ‘ acidic medium
b. Trypsin digests protein in acidic medium while pepsin does so in alkaline medium
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
45. Which of the following hormones are neurotransmitters?
a. Cholecystokinin and acetylcholine
b. Acetylcholine and secretin
c. Adrenaline and acetylcholine
d. Cholecystokinin and adrenaline
46. The advancement in genetic engineering has been possible due to the discovery of
a. exonuclease
b. transposon
c. oncogene
d. restriction endonuclease
47. A queen honeybee lays eggs of
a. one type from which all castes develop
b. two types, one forming queen and workers and the other forming drones
c. three. types forming queen, drones and workers
d. unfertilized eggs die while fertilized ones form all castes
48. Ribosomes of bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplasts are of
a. SOS type
b. 30S type
c. SOS type
d. 70S type
49. Ray fungi are
a. actinomycetes
b. ascomycetes
c. basidiomycetes
d. phycomycetes
50. Which of the following is produced during water stress that brings about stomatai closure?
a. Coumarin
b. Ferulic acid
c. Abscisic acid
d. Ethylene
51. The ancient archaeological site Kalibangan is in which State?
a. Bihar
b. Rajasthan
c. ' Gujarat
d. Maharashtra
52. At present, Mohenjo-daro is in which country?
a. India
b. Afghanistan
c. Pakistan
d. Bangladesh
53. Vikramashila University was established by the Kings of which dynasty?
a. Paia
b. Parmar
c. Chandel
d. Chola
54. Which is the oldest among the Vedas?
a. Atharvaveda
b. Yajurveda
c. Samaveda
d. Rigveda
55. Ayodhya is situated on the bank of which river?
a. Ganga
b. Yamuna .
c. Sarayu
d. Gomti
56. From when was ‘Shaka Samvat’ started?
a. 72 AD
b. 75 AD
c. 78 AD
d. 80 AD
57. ‘Badrinath Dham’is in which State?
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Uttarakhand
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Assam
58. To whose Court was Megasthenes sent as an ambassador?
a. Chandragupta Maurya
b. Ashoka
c. Harshavardhana
d. Samudragupta
59. Ajanta Caves are in which State?
a. Karnataka
b. Maharashtra
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Punjab
60. Who was the twenty-third Tirthankata of Jainism?
a. Rishabhanatha
b. Mahavira Swami
c. Aristhtanemi
d. Parshvanatha
61. How many Purusharthas are there?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Sixteen
62. Who has written Panchatantra?
a. Kalidasa
b. Harisena
c. Vishnu Sharma
d. Vishakhadatta
63. Tripitakas are related to which religion?
a. Shaivism
b. Jainism
c. Vaishnavism
d. Buddhism
64. Which dynasty ruled for the maximum period?
a. Maurya Dynasty
b. Sunga Dynasty
c. Gupta Dynasty
d. Kushana Dynasty
65. Which Sultan is famous for the market control
a. Alauddin Khalji
b. Sikandar Lodi
c. Balban
d. Muhammad bin Tughluq
66. Where is Humayun’s Tomb situated?
a. Allahabad
b. Delhi '
c. Jaunpur
d. Panipat
67. Nizamuddin Auliya was the follower of which Sufi sect?
a. Qadiri
b. Naqshbandi
c. Chishti
d. Suhrawardi
68. What was the name of the tenth Sikh Guru?
a. Guru Angad
b. Guru Ram Das
c. Guru Tegh Bahadur
d. Guru Gobind Singh
69. Who established the first Madrasa in Delhi?
a. Iltutmish
b. Firuz Shah Tughluq
c. Bahloi Lodi
d. Jalaluddiri Khalji
70. Who has written Padmavat?
a. Amir Khusrau
b. Kabir
c. Malik Muhammad Jayasi
d. Chand Bardai
71. During whose reign was Mughal painting on its zenith?
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Humayun
d. Shah Jahan
72. What was the name of Shivaji’s father?
a. Dadaji Kondeo
b. Shambhaji
c. Shahaji
d. Maloji
73. Which of the following rulers ruled for the maximum period?
a. Babur
b. Humayun
c. Jahangir
d. Aurangzeb
74. The real name of Bhakti period saint Chaitanya was
a. Gaur
b. Ballabh
c. Vishvambhar
d. Gangadas
75. In which movement did Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’?
a. Champaran Satyagraha
b. Non-Cooperation Movement
c. Civil Disobedience Movement
d. Quit India Movement
76. Who started the newspapers Mahratta and Kesari?
a. Chittaranjan Das
b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Lala Lajpat Rai
d. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
77. ‘Vande Mataram’ is taken from which book?
a. Anandamath
b. Gitanjali
c. .Bharat-Bharati
d. Kamayani
78. Satyarth Prakash is associated with
a. Arya Samaj
b. Brahmo Samaj
c. Prathana Samaj
d. Ramakrishna Mission
79. Which book is written by Dr. Rajendra Prasad?
a. India Wins Freedom
b. India Divided
c. The Discovery of India
d. Hind Swaraj
80. In November 1942, Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from which jail?
a. Bettiah Jail
b. Motihari Jail
c. Haijpur Jail
d. Hazaribagh Central Jail
81. In March 1857, where did Mangal Pandey start the Revolt?
a. Delhi
b. Barrackpore
c. Meerut
d. Kanpur
82. Who helped Lord William Bentinck in abolition of Sati system?
a. Keshav Chandra Sen
b. Dayananda Saraswati
c. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d. Raja Rammohan Roy
83. Who established Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873?
a. Narayan Guru
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Jyotirao Phule
d. Ramaswamy Naicker
84. Who was the Governor-General of India when the Universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were founded?
a. Lord William Bentinck
b. Lord Dalhousie
c. Lord Canning
d. Lord Elgin
85. Which event occurred in 1992?
a. Starting of Non-cooperation Movement
b. Chauri Chaura Incident
c. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
d. Arrival of Simon Commission
86. is the largest town of Uttar Pradesh by population.
a. Agra
b. Allahabad
c. Kanpur
d. Varanasi
87. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Sutlet—Guru Gobind Sagar
b. Kaveri—Krishna Raja Sagar
c. Cliambal—Gandhi Sagar
d. Godavari—Nagarjuna Sagar
88. Marwar lies in the part of Rajasthan.
a. western
b. eastern
c. northern
d. southern
89. Panna is famous for mining.
a. gold
b. diamond
c. silver
d. platinum
90. Ranthambore National Park lies hear
a. Jaipur
b. Ranakpur
c. Raipur
d. Jabalpur
91. Gangasagar is
a. a reservoir on the Ganga river
b. a pilgrim centre
c. a sea off the Ganga river
d. at atomic power station in Uttar Pradesh
92. Sardar Sarovar Dam is located on river.
a. Tapi
b. Sabarmati
c. Narmada
d. Mahi
93. Kanyakumari is situated in
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Kerala
c. Karnataka
d. Andhra Pradesh
94. Pangong Lake lies in
a. the State of Jammu and Kashmir
b. the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
c. the Union Territory of Ladakh
d. the State of Himachal Pradesh
95. Lignite is mined at
a. Talcher
b. Balharshah
c. Singarehi
d. Neyveli
96. Kodagu is famous for
a. tea
b. coffee
c. cocoa
d. banana chips
97. is the steel-producing centre in Odisha.
a. Bokaro
b. Bhilai
c. Bhadravati
d. Rourkela
98. is the highest peak in India.
a. Mount Everest
b. K2
c. Kanchenjunga
d. Nanga Parbat
99. is the main rainy season in Tamil Nadu.
a. April-May
b. June-September
c. October-December
d. January-March
100. has exploited maximum wind energy potential.
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Rajasthan
d. Gujarat
(LAW)
1. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-Il
a. Feeding Estoppel the Grant by 1. Section 92
b. Doctrine of Subrogation 2. Section 1
c. Doctrine of Accumulation 3. Section 14
d. Rule against Perpetuity 4. Section 43
Codes:
a. 4,1,2,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 3,4,2,1
d. 4,2,1,3
2. The provision regarding the doctrine of Substituted Security is contained under which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 74
b. Section 75
c. Section 73
d. Section 72
3. 3. Consider the following statements regarding the distinction between ‘lease’ and ‘licence’:
A lease can be assigned but a licence cannot be assigned.
2. Both lessee and licence-holders can sue a trespasser in his own name.
3. A lease is a transfer of an interest in land, whereas a licence does not create any interest in land.
4. A lease cannot be revoked until the end of the term but a licence, subject to certain exceptions, can be revoked.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 2, 3 and, 4
b. Only 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 4
4. Writing and registration are not required in which one of the following mortgages?
a. Usufructuary mortgage
b. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
c. Simple mortgage
d. English mortgage
5. Which of the following does not constitute exception to the rule against perpetuity?
a. A fund is bequeathed to next seven generations
b. Where a property is transferred for the benefit of public
c. It does not apply to vested interest
d. A lease with a covenant for renewal
6. The literary meaning of /s pendens’ is
a. a previous decision bars the subsequent filing of the suit
b. a suit under consideration of any court of law
c. an exception to doctrine of res judicata
d. None of the above
7. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act provides for the competency to transfer any immovable property?
a. Section 17
b. Section 6
c. Section 10
d. Section 7
8. Under which section of the Transfer of Property Act, there is restriction for accumulation of property beyond a certain period?
a. Section 17
b. Section 14’
c. Section 20
d. Section 25
9. The principle of ‘Marshalling and Contribution’ is a principle under the law of the Transfer of Property Act which relates to the matter of
a. deposit
b. lease
c. security
d. gift
10. Where a gift is made of a property, which is not in existence, which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act declares it void?
a. Section 124
b. Section 125
c. Section 126
d. Section 127
11. The primary source of equity is
a. written law
b. conscience
c. custom
d. judicial decisions
12. The statutory recognition of the principles of equity is not found in the
a. Indian Contract Act, 1872
b. Specific Relief Act, 1877
c. Sale of Goods Act, 1930
d. Indian Succession Act, 1925
13. “Equity has three-fold jurisdiction— exclusive, concurrent arid auxiliary.” This is said by
a. Maitland
b. Story
c. Austin
d. Roscoe Pound
14. English rules of equity
a. have been substantially incorporated by the Indian legislature
b. have not at all been incorporated by the Indian legislature
c. have been wholly incorporated by the Indian legislature
d. have been partially incorporated by the Indian legislature
15. A trust is extinguished in which of the following conditions?
a. When the trust, being revokable, is expressly revoked
b. When its purpose is completely fulfilled
c. When its purpose becomes unlawful
d. an amount to acceptance
16. ‘Breach of Trust’ has been defined under which section of the Indian Trust Act, 1882?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 6
d. Section 10
17. Who among the following cannot create a trust?
a. A juristic person
b. A minor
c. An advocate
d. A person of 21 years of age
18. Recovery of specific immovable property may be made under section 5 of the Specific Relief Act according to the
a. Law of Code of Civil Procedure
b. Law of Contract Act
c. Law of Transfer of Property Act
d. Law of Sale of Goods Act
19. The general principle on which the perpetual injunctions could be granted is contained in
a. Section 39
b. Section 36
c. Section 38
d. Section 40
20. The relief by the way of mandatory injunction is
a. discretionary
b. prohibitory
c. mandatory
d. None of the above
21. Contract without consideration will be
a. voidable
b. void
c. illegal
d. None of the above
22. The age of majority for contract is
a. 18 years
b. 21 years
c. 16 years
d. 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys
23. A gives an offer to give Rs. 1,000 to ' whoever finds his lost dog. This is
a. a specific offer
b. not certain
c. an amount to acceptance
d. nominal damages
24. When the damages cannot be assessed, the party may be awarded by the Court
a. actual damages
b. liquidated damages
c. exemplary damages
d. All of the above
25. ‘Non est factum’ means
a. document executed in ignorance
b. document executed under coercion
c. document executed under undue influence
d. document executed outside India
26. A contract is not frustrated by
a. commercial impossibility
b. imposition of government restrictions
c. destruction of subject-matter of contract
d. All of the above
27. An agreement, which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other thereto
a. is a void contract
b. is an illegal contract
c. is a voidable contract
d. is an unenforceable agreement
28. Which one of the following is a case on promissory estoppel?
a. Kedarnath v. Gorie Mohammad
b. Delhi Cloth and General Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
29. Which one of the following statements is correct? The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor
a. when it comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
b. when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
c. when it comes to the knowledge of acceptor and proposer both
d. when it comes to the knowledge of the third party
30. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Coercion—Chikkam Ammiraju v.Chikkam Seshamma
b. Liquidated Damages—Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Ltd. v. Blew Garage & Motor Co. Ltd.
c. Impossibility of Performance—Alopi Parshad & Sons Ltd. v. Union of India
d. Public Policy—Hadley v. Baxendale
31. The Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 199 has amended
a. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act
b. Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act
c. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act
d. Section 75 of the Indian Contract Act
32. The change of the nature of the obligation in a contract is known as
a. rescission
b. novation
c. renovation
d. alteration
33. Under section 68 of the Indian Contract Act
a. the minor is personally liable
b. only minor's property is liable
c. minor personally and his property both are liable
d. None of the above
34. ‘Continuing Guarantee’ has been defined under
a. Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
b. Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act
c. Section 146 of the Indian Contract Act
d. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act
35. An agreement of wager is
a. voidable
b. unlawful
c. void
d. void and unlawful
36. The propounder of ‘Pigeonhole Theory of Tort’ is
a. Winfield
b. Salmond
c. Austin
d. Clark
37. . Res ipsa loquitur' is related to
a. rule of evidence
b. weapon of offence
c. defence of some factor which was beyond control of the person who caused injury
d. a dangerous weapon
38. The rule of 'Strict Liability' was propounded by
a. Justice Blackburn
b. Lord Devlin
c. Lord Atkin
d. Justice Hold
39. 'Qui facit per alium facit per se' means
a. liability under the law of negligence
b. liability for unauthorised act
c. vicarious liability
d. strict liability
40. Who divided wrongs as private wrongs and public wrongs?
a. Fraser
b. Sir F. Pollock
c. Justice Blackburn
d. Blackstone
41. Which one of the following is not a valid defence in tort?
a. Volenti non fit injuria
b. Vis major
c. Scienti non fit injuria
d. Consent
42. The maxim 'damnum sine injuria' means
a. damage without infringement of legal right
b. damage with infringement of legal right
c. infringement of legal right without damage
d. All of the above
43. The duty under the law of tort is
a. towards general individuals only
b. towards the world at large
c. towards a specific individual only
d. None of the above
44. The principle of 'ubi jus ibi remedium' was recognized in
a. Ashby v. White
b. Rylands v. Fletcher
c. Pasley v. Freeman
d. Lumley v. Gye
45. The liability of independent tortfessors is
a. joint only
b. several only
c. both joint and several
d. neither joint nor several
46. The rule of 'Absolute Liability' implies
a. strict liability only
b. State liability only
c. stricter than strict liability
d. None of the above
47. . To succeed in an action for the tort of negligence, what is required to be proved?
a. Damages sustained
b. Breach of duty owned to someone
c. Breach of duty owned to the plaintiff
d. None of the above
48. No action lies for defamation if defamatory matter is written
a. in a telegram
b. on a notice board
c. in a postcard
d. in a letter but not posted and kept in own custody
49. Which of the following is a defence to the tort of nuisance?
a. Prescription
b. Statutory authority
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
50. The rule 'de minimis non curat lex' means that
a. trivial discrepancies must not be overlooked
b. trivial discrepancies must be overlooked
c. significant discrepancies must be overlooked
d. significant discrepancies must not be overlooked
51. What does the term 'future goods' mean under section 2(6) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
a. Uncertained goods
b. Ascertained goods
c. Specific goods under delivery
d. Goods which are not in existence
52. Answer as to which point of the following is not correct in making distinction between sale and agreement to sell.
a. A sale affects a transfer of the general property in the goods to the buyer but the agreement to sell gives to either party a remedy for any default in fulfilling this part of agreement.
b. A sale creates a jus in personam, whereas an agreement to sell creates a jus in rem.
c. In sale, if the buyer fails to pay for the goods, the seller may sue for the price but in agreement to sell, the seller can sue only for damages if the buyer fails to accept and pay for the goods.
d. In sale, if goods are destroyed, the loss (unless otherwise agreed) falls on the buyer. However in agreement to sell, if goods are destroyed, the loss (unless otherwise agreed) falls upon seller.
53. The term 'caveat emptor' means that
a. the goods should be free from defect
b. the ownership of the goods passes after sale
c. let the buyer be aware
d. the seller should disclose everything to the buyer
54. In the following statements, which one is incorrect when the sale is made by an auctioneer of goods and the issue is to pass a good title to the buyer?
a. He is in possession of goods with the consent of the owner.
b. The sale is made by him when acting in the ordinary course as an owner of the goods.
c. The buyer acts in good faith.
d. the buyer has no notice at the time of the contract that seller has no authority to sell.
55. A seller delivers to the buyer a larger quantity of goods than what was ordered. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. The buyer has right to reject the whole goods.
b. The buyer has right to accept the whole goods.
c. The buyer has right to accept only the goods ordered and reject the rest.
d. The buyer can retain the whole goods but make payment only for the goods ordered.
56. Which one of the following statements is not correct for promissory note?
a. A promissory note is an instrument in writing.
b. It contains a conditional undertaking signed by the maker.
c. It is for the payment of certain sum of money only.
d. The payment is to a certain person or to bearer of instrument.
57. Though a cheque resembles a bill of exchange in many respects but it is also a different instrument in other respects. Point out which one of the following statements regarding difference between cheque and bill of exchange is incorrect.
a. A cheque does not require acceptance but a bill of exchange requires it.
b. A cheque is not intended for circulation but a bill of exchange is intended.
c. A cheque is not entitled to some days of grace but it is in case of bill of exchange.
d. A cheque is dishonored by non- acceptance but this is not so in case of bill of exchange.
58. Which one of the following conditions is not compatible with essential elements of 'holder in due course'?
a. The holder must have taken the instrument for value.
b. He must have obtained the instrument on the date of its maturity positively.
c. The instrument must be complete and regular on its face.
d. He must have taken the instrument in good faith and without notice of any defect in the instrument.
59. Point out which one of the following statements is not correct regarding 'assignment' and 'negotiation'of instrument.
a. In assignment, there is transfer of the right to receive the payment of debt but it is not in case of negotiation.
b. The assignee is not liable for any defect in the title of his assignor but a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument is liable for the defects in the title of the previous transferors.
c. An assignment does not bind the debtor unless a notice of the assignment has been given to him but no information of the transfer of a negotiable instrument is to be given to the debtor.
d. In assignment, there is no presumption in favour of assignee that he has given consideration. However in case of holder in due course of negotiable instrument, he is presumed to have given consideration for the instrument.
60. Point out in which of the following circumstances, a banker is not justified in refusing the payment of a cheque.
a. The date of the cheque falls after the date of presentment.
b. The balance in the customer's account is not sufficient to meet the cheque's amount.
c. The customer has counter-manded the payment.
d. The customer has become insolvent yet the banks has not received notice of it.
61. The doctrine of indoor management has occupied vital place in a company's functioning but a number of decisions have made it subject to several exceptions. Point out which of the following is not exception to the doctrine.
a. The party affected by the irregularity had actual notice of it
b. The circumstances surrounding the contract are such suspicious which require inquiry
c. Where authority has claimed of delegated power beyond the Articles of Association
d. Where there is forgery in the dealing
62. Which of the following is a correct statement giving true relationship between Articles of Association and Memorandum of Association of a company?
a. Articles of Association, being the byelaws for the general administration of the company, are superior to Memorandum of Association and in case of any inconsistency, they prevail.
b. The Articles of Association are. subordinate to the Memorandum of Association and in case of any inconsistency, the Articles must give way to the Memorandum.
c. There can be no comparison between Articles of Association and Memorandum of Association. Both are on equal footing.
d. All of the above statements are irrelevant as they are detrimental to the growth of the company and no such inconsistency happens between them.
63. When a company gets involved in an ultra vires transaction, there are several remedies available against it. Point out which one of the following is not a correct statement.
a. Any Director can get an injunction to restrain the company from proceeding with it.
b. The Director will be personally liable to redress the company.
c. The Director in default will be personally liable to the third party for his loss.
d. An ultra vires contract cannot become intra vires contract by reason of estoppel or ratification.
64. The Companies Act, 2013 has provided limits on minimum or maximum number of Directors. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. A one-person company can have must have a minimum of two Directors.
b. The public company must have at minimum of three Directors.
c. The cap on maximum number of Directors is placed at fifteen in private as well as in public companies.
d. The number of Directors can be increased beyond this limit by a special resolution of the company with prior approval of the government.
65. In case of oppression and mismanagement in a company, an application may be made. to the National Company Law Tribunal under the Companies Act, 2013. Point out which one of the statements below is not correct in case of a company having share capital.
a. 100 members or 1/10 of total number of its members whichever is less may make application.
b. Any single member holding not less than 1/15 of the issued share capital of the company may make application.
c. Any single member holding not less than 1/10 of the issued share capital of the company may make application.
d. Any group of members holding at least 1/10 of the issued share capital of the company may make applicable.
66. Find out the correct answer from the following statements for partnership.
a. In overall analysis, it appears that every agency is based on mutual partnership.
b. On comparing the functions, every partner happens to be sleeping partner.
c. There must be an agreement entered into by all the persons forming partnership.
d. The agreement must necessarily provide for sharing of profit as well as loss of the business.
67. Which one of the following statements is not correct for a dormant partner?
a. A dormant partner is not interested in the business of the firm.
b. A dormant partner is not liable for the firm's liability to outsiders.
c. A dormant partner is entitled to share the profits of the firm.
d. A dormant partner is neither active nor known to outsider.
68. Out of the following statements, point out which one is not correct regarding implied authority of the partner to act as agent of the firm.
a. He has right to sell the goods or chattels of the firm.
b. He has right to receive payment of debts due to the firm.
c. He has right to make an equitable mortgage by depositing the title deeds belonging to the firm.
d. He has right to acquire immovable property on behalf of the firm.
69. Which one of the following statements is correct for a minor who has been admitted to the benefits of the partnership?
a. A creditor of the firm sues against the minor's share in the firm for his credit.
b. Such minor sues the partners for access to accounts of the firm.
c. Such minor sues the partners for share of the profits of the firm.
d. On finding some foulness in the business, he files a case of dissolution of the firm.
70. A partner wants to dissolve the partnership firm before the agreed time. Select which one of the following is not a perfect ground for dissolution of the firm for such partner.
a. That one of the partners has become permanently incapable of performing his duties as a partner
b. That other partner has transferred the whole of his interest in the firm to a third party
c. That the business of the firm cannot be carried on except loss
d. That the partner sujng is in adulterous relationship with the wife of another partner which is apprehensive to affect the business of the firm
71. The mode of proof of a custom is contained in
a. Section 32(4) of the Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 32(7) of the Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 48 of the Indian Evidence Act
d. All of the above
72. The case of Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor pertains to
a. estoppel
b. dying declaration
c. hostile witness
d. accomplice evidence
73. The doctrine of estoppel is a
a. substantive law
b. rule of equity
c. rule of evidence
d. law of pleadings
74. Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman has been provided in
a. Section 111A of the Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act
d. Section 113 of the Indian Evidence Act
75. Zahira Sheikh was the prime witness in
a. Best Bakery case (2004)
b. Best Bakery Retrial case (2006)
c. Sukh Ram Disproportionate Assets case (2005)
d. Gujjar Killings case (2003)
76. Sweeping change introduced by the Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2002 is with the object to
a. give more power to Civil Courts
b. reduce the power of Civil Courts
c. cut short delay in disposal of suit
d. make provisions stringent
77. The ‘Rule of Damdupat’ is
a. a rule relating to costs
b. a rule relating to interest
c. a rule of res judicata
d. a rule of evidence
78. A commission to make local investigation can be issued under
a. Order XXVI, Rule 1, CPC
b. Order XXVI, Rule 6, CPC
c. Order XXVI, Rule 9, CPC
d. Order XXVI, Rule 10, CPC
79. The grounds for review have been provided under
a. Order XLVII, Rule 1, CPC
b. Order XLII, Rule 1, CPC
c. Order XLIII, Rule 1, CPC
d. Order XLIV, Rule 1, CPC
80. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
81. The classification of compoundable and non-compoundable offences has been provided under
a. 1st Schedule of CrPC
b. 2nd Schedule of CrPC
c. Section 320 of CrPC
d. Section 321 of CrPC
82. A confession under section 164 of CrPC can be recorded by the
a. Metropolitan/Judicial Magistrate
b. Executive Magistrate
c. Police Officer on whom the power of a Magistrate has been conferred
d. Either (a) or (b)
83. Under section 16 of CrPC for offences other than those punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a period not less than 10 years, the detention during investigation can be authorised for a total period of
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days -
d. 75 days
84. Where the husband has obtained a decree of divorce against the wife on the ground of desertion, under section 125
a. it is no bar for the wife to claim maintenance against the husband
b. it is a bar for the wife to claim maintenance against the husband
c. it may be a bar for the wife to claim maintenance against the husband
d. Either (a) or (c)
85. The section dealing with the medical examination of the victim of rape as inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) is
a. Section 164A
b. Section 166A
c. Section 166B
d. Section 53A
86. The arbitrator in case of international commercial arbitration is appointed by the
a. parties themselves
b. Attorney-General of India,
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Both (A) and (C)
87. An application for setting aside an arbitral award must be made by the party after receiving the award within
a. three months
b. thirty days
c. ninety days
d. forty days
88. The provision for the appointment of the conciliator is laid down under
a. Section 64
b. Section 67
c. Section 62
d. Section 61
89. The Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 188 came into force on
a. 1st July, 1887
b. 27th January, 1887
c. 5th September, 1887
d. 8th January, 1887
90. Who is authorised to abolish Courts of small causes?
a. The High Court
b. The State Government
c. The District Court
d. The District Court after consultation with the High Court and the State Government
91. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. B.N. Rao
d. Mahatma Gandhi
92. When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held?
a. 8th December
b. 9th December
c. 10th December
d. 12th December
93. The task of making the Constitution was over on
a. 26th November, 1949
b. 26th January, 1950
c. 15th August, 1947
d. 25th November, 1949
94. The concept of fundamental rights was borrowed from the
a. British Constitution
b. US Constitution
c. Australian Constitution
d. Canadian Constitution
95. What is the aim of DPSP in the Constitution?
a. To establish a Welfare State
b. To promote communalism
c. To establish Economic State
d. To maintain law and order
96. Which committee is related to Panchayati Raj Institution?
a. Mudholkar Committee
b. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
c. Malimath Committee
d. Khullar Committee
97. Which constitutional amendment is known as ‘Mini Constitution’?
a. 31st Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 91st Amendment
98. Who has served/serving as India’s 12lh President?
a. Ram Nath Kovind
b. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
c. Pratibha Patil
d. Pranab Mukherjee
99. Who appoints the Advocate-General of the State?
a. The President
b. The Prime Minister
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
100. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is
a. constitutional
b. non-constitutional
c. judicial
d. None of the above
101. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the finance, property, contract and suits?
a. Part XII
b. Part XIII
c. Part XVII
d. Part XIX
102. Which Article of the Indian Constitution talks about the Audit of Accounts of Cooperative Societies?
a. Article 243ZA
b. Article 243ZE
c. Article 243ZK
d. Article 243ZM
103. Article 29 of the Indian Constitution defines
a. taxes on profession
b. calculation of net proceeds
c. Finance Commission
d. grants from the Union to certain States
104. In which of the following cases, Justice Hidayatullah held that the Preamble is very soul of the Constitution-eternal and unalterable?
a. S.R. Bommai case
b. Golaknath case
c. Kesavananda Bharati case
d. Minerva Mills case
105. . Who among the following has said that "the Preamble is an epitome of basic feature of the Constitution?
a. Justice Gajendragadkar
b. Justice Subbarao
c. Justice Mudholkar
d. Justice Sikri
106. The concept of 'equal protection of laws' 11 enshrined under Article 14 of the Indian. Constitution finds its root from the
a. British Constitution
b. American Constitution
c. German Constitution
d. Australian Constitution
107. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the equality clause cannot be applied to legitimize an illegal action?
a. U.P. State Sugar Corpn. Ltd. v. Sant Raj Singh
b. Vishal Properties Pvt. Ltd. v. State of Uttar Pradesh
c. Ekta Shakti Foundation v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
d. Bhagwant Dass v. Punjab State Electricity Board
108. Promotion of International Peace and Security comes under the purview of which Article of the Indian Constitution?
a. Article 46
b. Article 49
c. Article 51
d. Article 53
109. As per Article of the Indian Constitution, all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the
a. Government of India
b. Union of India
c. President
d. Prime Minister
110. The Supreme Court of India declared which constitutional amendment as unconstitutional?
a. 97th Amendment
b. 98th Amendment
c. 99th Amendment
d. 91st Amendment
111. What is the minimum number of judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution?
a. 3 Judges Bench
b. 5 Judges Bench
c. 7 Judges Bench
d. 9 Judges Bench
112. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of Indian India shall submit his report relating to the accounts of the Union to the
a. Public Accounts Committee
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Finance Minister
113. Which one among the following has exclusive power to expand All India Services?
a. The Parliament
b. The Lok Sabha only
c. the Rajya Sabha only
d. The President
114. According to the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is the language of the Union?
a. Hindi in Bundeli script
b. Hindi in Devanagari script
c. Hindi and English both'
d. Only Hindi not English
115. Which Article of the Indian Constitution saves the judgment of the Privy Council?
a. Article 295
b. Article 301
c. Article 393
d. Article 395
116. Who was the Chairman of the first Commission on review of the Indian Constitution?
a. Justice Venkatachaliah
b. Justice Hidayatullah
c. Justice A.M. Ahmadi
d. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
117. Which one of the following writs is also known as 'judicial remedy'?
a. Habeas corpus
b. Mandamus
c. Quo warranto
d. Certiorari
118. Every proclamation issued under Article 352 shall be
a. laid before each House of the Parliament
b. laid before the Lok Sabha
c. decided by the Prime Minister and conveyed to the President
d. None of the above
119. The Finance Commission consists of
a. five members
b. four whole-time members
c. a Chairman and four members
d. a Chairman and three other members
120. The composition of the UPSC
a. has been laid down in the Constitution
b. is determined by the Parliament
c. is determined by the President
d. is determined by the Home Minister
121. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
a. Backward Classes Commission
b. Election Commission
c. UPSC
d. Finance Commission
122. According to which Article of the Constitution of India, the term 'District Judge' shall not include the Tribunal Judge?
a. Article 235
b. Article 235(a)
c. Article 236(a)
d. Article 236(b)
123. Mainly on whose advice, the President's Rule is imposed in a State?
a. The Chief Minister
b. The Governor
c. The Union Cabinet
d. On his own motion
124. In which Article, the doctrine of 'Due Process of Law' is included?
a. Article 13
b. Article 14
c. Article 21
d. Article 256
125. The doctrine of 'Separation of Powers' was systematically formulated by
a. Plato
b. Montesquieu
c. Dicey
d. Aristotle
126. The 'Rule of Law' means
Supremacy of the judiciary
2. Supremacy of the law
3. Equality before the law
4. Supremacy of the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
a. 1 and 3
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
127. Match List-I and List-ll and select the 131 correct answer using the codes given below:
List-1
a. Abuse of Discretion
b. Equality before Law
c. Delegated Legislation
d. Separation of Powers
List-ll
1. Rule of Law
2. Lack of Power
3. Check and Balance
4. Subordinate Legislation
Codes:
a. 2,1,4,3
b. 1,2,4,3
c. 4,3,2,1
d. 3,4,1,2
128. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Delegated legislation cannot have retrospective effect.
b. Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect it authorised by Act or Statute.
c. Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect if not authorised by Act or Statute but have reasonable and rational justification.
d. None of the above
129. The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on which of the following?
a. Public policy
b. Failure to supervise
c. Treated as unauthorised
d. Strict liability
130. "Administrative Law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action." This definition of Administrative Law is given by
a. Ivor Jennings
b. Garner
c. K.C. Davis
d. Wade
131. The author of Dayabhaga was
a. Vijnaneshwara
b. Jimutavahana
c. Vashishtha
d. Narada
132. Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a Hindu marriage may be declared as void?
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
133. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 does not confer status of legitimacy to children born
a. out of a valid marriage
b. out of a voidable marriage
c. out of a void marriage
d. without marriage
134. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a child to be adopted should not have, in the absence of a valid custom, completed the age of
a. 8 years
b. 10 years
c. 12 years
d. 15 years
135. After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the Mitakshara Hindu coparcenary does not include whom as it member?
a. Son
b. Married daughter
c. Adopted son
d. Daughter-in-law
136. A Hindu male is survived by an adopted son, an after-born natural son and his married daughter. His self-acquired property shall devolve upon
a. all the three equally
b. only to the two sons
c. only to the natural son and to the daughter
d. only to the natural son
137. A Hindu female is survived by a stepson, a marriage daughter and an illegitimate son. Her property shall devolve upon
a. all the three equally
b. only to the married daughter
c. her daughter and the stepson
d. her daughter and her illegitimate son
138. On partition of a Hindu coparcenary property, the person not entitled for a share is
a. an adopted son
b. a married daughter
c. an illegitimate son
d. widow of a coparcener
139. Stridhan does not include
a. the chastity of a female
b. presents given to her
c. property purchased by her
d. property inherited by her
140. The legal position of a Hindu Idol is of a
a. Hindu major male
b. Hindu major female
c. Mahanta
d. Hindu minor
141. Among the sources of Muslim Law, the foremost is
a. Sunna
b. Ijma
c. Qiyas
d. Koran
142. The Sunni Law does not recognize
a. Sahi (valid) marriage
b. Muta (temporary) marriage
c. Fasid (irregular) marriage
d. Batil (void) marriage
143. A Muslim marriage without dower is
a. valid
b. void
c. irregular
d. voidable
144. A gift in favour of an unborn child is
a. valid
b. irregular
c. voidable
d. void
145. A bequest may be made to a child in the womb provided it is born, from the date of the Will, within
a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 9 months
d. 10 months
146. A Wakf cannot be created for
a. celebrating the birth of Ali Murtaza
b. construction of a church
c. maintenance of a Khanqah
d. construction of a bridge
147. The difference of ages between the acknowledger and the acknowledged child must be at least
a. 8 years
b. 10 years
c. 11 years
d. 121⁄2 years
148. The custody of a minor wife shall be with her
a. husband
b. father
c. mother
d. father-in-law
149. An illegitimate Shia Mohammedan dies intestate. His property will be inherited by
a. his mother
b. his father
c. his brother
d. None of them
150. A Shia Muslim, already having four wives, has contracted a fifth marriage. This fifth marriage is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. irregular
