U.P. Judicial Service Examination, 2013

1. The Rajya Sabha can detain the ordinary bill for a maximum period of

(A) 14 days (B) 1 month

2. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission?

(A) President (B) Prime Minister

3. The Panchayati Raj system under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1993 does not apply to

(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram

(B) Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand

(D) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram

4 Which State of India has made Rain water harvesting compulsory for all houses?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Tamil Nadu

5. As a non-member who can participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament?

(A) Vice President

(B) Chief Justice

(D) None of these

6. In the year 2010, the Election Commission of India celebrated its

(A) Silver Jubilee

(B) Golden Jubilee

(D) Platinum Jubilee

7. Who among the following can act as Presiding Officer of the House without being its member?

(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(B) Vice President of India

(D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

8. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(A) Parliament

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Vice President

9. The joint sitting of Indian Parliament for transacting a legislative business is presided over by

(A) Prime Minister of India

(B) Senior most member of Parliament

(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

10. The secession, of a State from the Indian Union has been barred by

(A) Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1974

(B) Constitution (29th Amendment) Act, 1972

(D) Constitution (16th Amendment) Act, 1963

11. Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of lndia ?

(A) Union Law Minister

(B) Attorney General of India

(D) Chief Justice of India

12. Which one of the following States was the first time introduce Panchayati Raj system?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Haryana.

(D) West Bengal

13. The Principle of Fundamental Rights cannot be amended under Article 368, was propounded by the Supreme Court of India in

(A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(D) Gopalan v. State of Madras

14. Which one of the following States does not have a bicameral legislature?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Karnataka

15. Who presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker?

(A) Leader of the opposition.

(B) Senior most member of the House

(D) Secretary General of the Lok Sabha

16. The Finance Commission, as laid down in Article 280 of the Constitution, is constituted by

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Parliament

17. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act came into force from

(A) 1st April, 2008

(B) 1st January, 2009

(D) 1st July, 2011

18. The Committee on Parliament which has the largest membership is

(A) the Committee on Privileges

(B) the Public Account Committee

(D) the Committee on Public Undertakings.

19. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under direct supervision of

(A) Ministery of Home Affairs

(B) Ministry of Parliament Affairs

(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

20. Who decides whether a bill is ‘money bill’ or not?

(A) The President

(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(D) The Finance Minister

21. If the Budget of the Government does not get passed by 1st April, how is the government Expenditure undertaken?

(A) Vote on credit

(B) Supplementary grant

(D) None of the above

22. Which one of the following is not one of the documents that are presented to Parliament as a part of Budget?

(A) Revenue Bill

(B) Appropriation Bill

(D) None of the above

23. Which of the following economic subjects does not come in the ambit of Finance Commission?

(A) Division and distribution of Income tax and other taxes.

(B) Grants-is-aid to the States by the Union

(D) Any other matter concerning financial relations between the Union and States

24. As compared to 2012-13, defence spending has been increased by what percentage in the Union Budget for 2013-14?

(A) 12.1%

(B) 13.1%

(D) 15.1%

25. Disguised unemployment is a feature of

(A) Industry

(B) Trade

(D) transport

26. In India who regulates the money supply?

1. Reserve Bank of India

2. State Bank of India

3. NABARD

4. Commercial Banks

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 1,2,3 and 4

27. What is the effect of deficit financing on economy?

(A) Inflation (B) Deflation

28. The agency estimating the National Income of India is

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Planning Commission

(D) Central Statistical Organization

29. According to-the economic survey of 2013, the growth rate in December 2012 slumped to

(A) 3.5% (B) 4.5% .

30. Which one of the following States tops in setting up rural bank accounts in India upto. February 2013?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Bihar

31. Poverty level in India is estimated on the basis of

(A) Per capita income in different States

(B) Household average income

(D) Slum population in the country

32. Who is authorised to issue coins in India?

(A) RBI

(B) SBI

(D) None of the above

133. TRYSEM is a programme of

(A) Rural Development

(B) Industrial Development

(D) Defence Perparedness

34. Which one of the following centres is known for the fertilizer industry as well as for steel industry?

(A) Gorakhpur (B) Neyveli

35. Who among the following is the Chairman of Fourteenth Finance Commission?

(A) Prof. Abhijit Sen

(B) Dr. Y.V. Reddy

(D) Dr. M. Govind Rao

36. Which two countries signed agreement for the modernization of Indian Railways?

(A) India and Belgium

(B) India and China

(D) Russia and India

37. Which of the following are the objects of International Monetary Fund?

(1) Creation of International Monetary Cooperation

(2) Promotion of balanced growth of International Trade

(3) Multilateral payments

(4) All of the above

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) (1) only

(B) (1) and (2)

(D) (4)

38. Match List I with List II select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I List II

A Growth in food production 1. Green Revolution

B Milk production 2.. Blue Revolution

C Fisheries 3. White Revolution

D Fertilizers 4. Grey Revolution

Code

A B C D

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 3 2 4 1

39. ‘Swayamsidha’ is a scheme launched by the Government of India to help

(A) Women only

(B) School children only

(D) None of the above

40. The Bank rate is the rate at which

(A) a Bank lends to the public

(B) the RBI lends to the public

(D) the Government of India lends to other countries

41. The Uttar Pradesh Government on 4th December 2012 decided to issue cards to the industrialists and industrial associates for easy access to its offices. What is the name of that card?

(A) Platinum card

(B) Silver card

(D) Industrial card

42. Heavy Water Project (Talcher) and Fertilizer Plant (Paradeep) are famous enterprises of

(A) Odisha

(B) Tamil Nadu

(D) Kerala

43. G-15 is an economic grouping of

(A) First World Nations

(B) Second World Nations

(D) Fourth World Nations

44. Which one of the following has the highest share in power generation in India?

(A) Hydro power

(B) Thermal power

(D) All the above with equal share

45. In which one of the following areas India and Japan on January 12, 2012 agreed to enhance their cooperation in which of the . following areas?

(A) Infrastructure

(B) Tourism

(D) Coal and Mining

46. Which team won the first Hockey India League held in January 2013?

(A) Delhi Waveriders

(B) Punjab Warriors

(D) Uttar Pradesh Wizards

47. Who was declared the best actress at the 60th National Film Award function held on 18th March 2013?

(A) Dolly Ahluwalia

(B) Rani Mukherjee

(D) Usha Jadhav

48. Who among the following was the chief Guest of India’s Republic Day celebrations, 2013?

(A) Jigme KhesarNangyal Wangchiick

(B) Jigme Singhe Wangchuck

(D) Kamala Prasad Bissessar

49. Who among the following was type recipient of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2011 given,,by the President on February 2013?

(A) Aruna Roy

(B) Mrinal Pandey

(D) Medha Patekar

50. Who among the following has been appointed Governor of Nagaland by the President bf India?

(A) Aswini Kumar

(B) D.Y. Patil

(D) S.C. Jamir

51. Who was the Chief Minister of Jharkhand at the time of imposition of President Rule in the State of January 2013?

(A) KariaMunda

(B) MadhuKoda

(D) Arjun Munda

52. Elections were conducted in February 2013 in -

(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Manipur

(B) Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalaya

(D) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur

53. In which one of the following States the largest number of factories are located, according to the interim result of the annual survey of industries Released recently?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Karnataka

(D) Tamil Nadu

54. Government of India on 1st February 2013 awarded ‘Maharatna’ to which two Public Sector Companies?

(A) BHEL&GAIL

(B) GAIL & Coal India Ltd.

(D) None of the above

55. Which version of Brahmos Supersonic Cruise Missile was successfully testified by India in March 2013?

(A) Air-craft version

(B) Ship version

(D) Sub-marine version

56. Who became Chief Minister of Meghalaya after 2013 Vidhan Sabha elections?

(A) P.A. Sangma

(B) Agatha Sangma

(D) Williamson Sangma

57. Who among the following has recently (February 2013) become the President of the Sahitya Academy?

(A) Chandrashekhar Kanwar

(B) Kalyan Kumar Chakravarti

(D) Vishwanath Tiwari

58. Who has been appointed the Chairman of the 20th Law Commission by Government-of India in January 2013?

(A) Justice D.k. Jain

(B) Jutice S.N. Jha'

(D) Justice P.C. Lahoti

59. As per the Notification of the U.P. Government the production and sale of Gutka has been banned with effect from

(A) 2nd October, 2012

(B) 31st January, 2013

(D) 1st April, 2013

60. Name the player of the Indian Cricket team who on January 4th, 2013 was honoured with the ‘CEAT International Cricketer’ of the year 2012 Award

(A) Yuvraj Singh

(B) Gautam Gambhir

(D) Virat Kohli

61. Who among the following has won Gold Medal in 25 metre Pistol Competition Final of ISSF World Cup organized at Changwan, Korea recently (March/April 2013)?

(A) Anjali Bhagwat

(B) Rahi Sarnobat

(D) Sanjeev Rajput

62. Who was declared “Man of the Series” in India—Australia test series held in February- March, 2013?

(A) Cheteshwar Pujara

(B) M.S. Dhoni

(D) R. Ashwin

63. Who was made captain of Indian Women Cricket team for the series of one day cricket matches against Bangladesh in April 2013?

(A) Harman Preet Kaur

(B) Mitali Raj

(D) Gurjeet Kaur

64. Where was 11th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Conference held from 7 to 9 January, 2013?

(A) Ahmedabad

(B) Hyderabad

(D) Surat

65. After becoming President, which country did Pranab Mukherjee visit first?

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Kazakhstan

(D) Mauritius

66. The Indo-French Satellite ‘SARAL’ was launched by ISRO on

(A) 25th February, 2013

(B) 25th September, 2012

(D) 25th January, 2009

67. On 22nd January, 2013, which one of the following countries signed anti-terror and tax evasion agreements with India?

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) Bangladesh

(D) China

68. Name the scientist of Indian origin who was awarded National Medal of Technology and Innovation by American President on February 1,2013

(A) Ramaswami Srinivasan

(B) C. Chandrashekharan

(D) Srinivasan Reddy

69. Who among the following was the Chief Justice of Nepal who assumed the post of Country’s Chief Executive in March, 2013?

(A) Rana, Bhagwan Das

(B) Khil Raj Regmi

(D) Laxmikant Rana

70. Who became the first lady President of South Korea in February 2013?

(A) Park Jang-sun

(B) Park Geun-hye

(D) Kim Soon-ja

71. Name the Law under which the Government of Saudi Arab have reserved 10% jobs in medium and small business in the country for local people w.e.f. 1st April, 2013

(A) Haqiqat Law

(B) Nitaqat Law

(D) Zanaanat Law

72. 43rd Annual Meeting of World Economic Forum was held on 23-27 January, 2013 at

(A) Berlin (B) Davos

73. Which one of the following countries in mid February 2013 staged its most powerful nuclear test to date?

(A) South Korea (B) Iran

74. In January 2013 Milos Zeman was effected President of

(A) Czeck Republic

(B) Greece

(D) Slovakia

75. Who is the new President of China?

(A) Xi Jinping (B) Hu Zintao

76. BRICS Summit was held in March 2013 in.

(A) Capetown

(B) Durban

(D) Pretoria

77. Which one of the following countries will host the Commonwealth Games, 2014?

(A) Australia (B) Sri Lanka

78. The Planet nearest to the Sun is

(A) Venus (B) Mercury.

79. An astronomical unit is related to .

(A) the distance between the Sun and the Earth

(B) the distance between the Moon and the Earth

(D) None of the above

80. Rice polishing is rich in

(A) lactoflavin

(B) calciferol

(D) aneurin

81. The three primary colours are-

(A) Green Yellow; Red

(B) Blue, Yellow, Red

(D) Blue, Yellow, Green

82. The smallest unit of computer data is

(A) Bit (B) Byte

83. Wi MAX is related to which one of the following?

(A) Biotechnology

(B) Space technology

(D) Communication technology

'84. Acid Rain is caused due to the presence the following gases in the air?

(A) N2 and O3

(B) NH and Cl2 .

(D) O3and N2

85. The sky appears blue due To ;

(A) Refraction (B) Reflection

86. Which one of the following radio active elements is found in large amounts in India?

(A) Radium (B) Thorium

87. The number of Chromosome pairs in human body is

(A) 23

(B) 42

(D) None of the above

88. A jet engine works on the Principle of Conservation of

(A) Energy

(B) Mass

(D) Angular momentum

89. Which one of the following is the best conductor of heat?

(A) Water (B) Mercury

90. Heavy Water is

(A) ice

(B) water at 4°C

(D) deuterium oxide

91. A solar cell is a device that converts

(A) light energy into heat energy

(B) heat energy into electrical energy

(D) light energy into electrical energy

92. The chemical compound in the common salt is

(A) potassium nitrate

(B) ammonium chloride

(D) sodium chloride

93. Which one of the following is used in making bullet proof materials? ,

(A) Polyvinyl chloride

(B) Polycarbonate

(D) Polyamide

94. When the speed of a moving object is doubled, its -

(A) acceleration is doubled

(B) kinetic energy is doubled

(D) weight is doubled

95. A microwave oven uses"

(A) infrared rays

(B) ultraviolet rays

(D) radio waves of long wavelengths

96; Which one of the following gases is ejected from volcanic hills?

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Nitrogen

(D) Sulphur dioxide

97. ISRO on 9th September, 2012 launched 100th Space Vehicles. What is the name of it?

(A) AGNIV

(B) PLSVC20 ,

(D) ANTRIX 100

98. Which of the following sites of Hadappan culture are located in Sind?

1 Harappa

2 Mohenjodaro

3 Chanhudaro

4 Surkotda

Indicate the correct answer from the code . given below:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1,2,3 and 4

99. Rivers Ganga and Yamuna are mentioned together for the first time in

(A) Rigveda

(B) AtharVaveda

(D) Chhandogya Upanishad

100. Rulers of which of the following dynasties had diplomatic relations with distant countries like Syria and Egypt?

(A) Mauryas (B) Guptas

101. Which one of the following was a mint centre of the Yaudheyas?

(A) Bayana

(B) Bareilly

(D) Rohtak

102. Which one of the following titles Harsha has assumed?

(A) Parama-Bhagavata

(B) Parama-Saura

(D) Parama-Mahesvara

103. Who had constructed the Martanda temple of Kashmir?

(A) Chandrapida

(B) Lalitaditya

(D) Didda

104. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Ashtanga -Hridaya-Drarria

(B) Brihajjataka -Astrology

(D) Manasara -Architecture

105. Which of the following temples was a well- known centre of Aigher Education?

(A) Dasavatara templeat Deogarh

(B) Sas-bahu temples at Gwalior

(D) Trayipurusha temple at Salotgi

106. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I (Authors) List II (Works)

A Asvaghosha 1. Mudrarakshasa

B Kalidasa 2. Saundarananda

C Rajasekhara 3. Viddhasalabhanjika

D Visakhadatta 4. Vikramorvasiya

A B C D

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 2 4 3 1

(D) 3 4 2 1

107. Who among the following Astronomers was a native of Avanti?

(A) Aryabhata

(B) Brahmagupta

(D) Varahamihira.

108. Who among the following was ruling the Chola country at the time of Mahmud Gazni’s expedition of Gujarat?

(A) Uttama Chola

(B) Rajaraja I

(D) Kulottunga

109. Who was the only Sultan of Delhi, who wrote his autobiographical account?

(A) Mubarak Shah Khalji-

(B) Feroz Shah

(D) Sikandar Lodi

110. On the ruins of which old Hindu kingdom the Muslim kingdom of Golcunda grew up?

(A) Devagiri

(B) Dwarasamudra

(D) Warangal

11. Whose court was known as ‘Bhuvana-vijaya’?

(A) Ganapati

(B) Ramachandra

(D) Achyutaraya

112. Silver tanka of the Delhi Sultanata was first issued by

(A) Qutubuddin Aibak

(B) Illtutmish

(D) Ghiyasuddin Balban

113. Who was the author of Humayun-nama?

(A) Humayun

(B) Gulbadan Begam

(D) Ahmad Yadgar

114. Who among the following Mughal ruler was a contemporary of Queen Elizabeth I of England? "

(A) Humayun (B) Akbar

115. Who among the following was the first Mughal ruler to adopt the custom of Tuladan?

(A) Humayun (B) Akbar

116. Office of which of the following was created by Rajaram and was supernumerary to the council of eight?

(A) Mantri

(B) Panditrao

(D) Nyayadhish

117. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court at Calcutta, appointed as per the provisions of Regulating Act, 1773, was

(A) Sir Elijah empey

(B) Lemaster

(D) Barker

118. By which of the following Acts the Governor General of Bengal was made the Governor- General of India?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt's India Act, 1784

(D) Indian Councils' Act, 1861

119. Who among the following was instrumental in bringing about the passage of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1891?

(A) Behramaji Malabari

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji ■

(D) Pherozeshah Mehta

120. Macdonell Commission to suggest the relief measures against famine was appointed by

(A) Lord Lytton (B) Lord Ripon

121. The British imperial capital was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi during the time of

(A) Canning (B) Napier

122. Who sponsored the resolution in the Lahore Session of Indian National Congress, 1929 regarding the condemnation of bomb attack on the Viceroy?

(A) M.K. Gandhi

(B) Motilal Nehru

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

123. Who among the following was the first Indian Woman President of the Indian National Congress?

(A) Aruna Asaf Ali

(B) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Annie Besant

124. Which of the following States of India has the largest area under tobacco cultivation?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Karnataka

(D) Gujarat

125. In which one of the following States shifting cultivation is prevalent?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(D) Nagaland

126. Most of the production of Natural Gas in India comes from

(A) Andhra Pradesh Coast

(B) Gujarat Coast

(D) Tamil Nadu Coast

127. Which river is called ‘biological desert’ on account of its pollutants?

(A) Yamuna

(B) Periyar

(D) Mahanadi

128. Which one of the following States is bounded by Bangladesh on three sides?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Tripura

129. Which one of the following rivers flow through a rift valley?

(A) Chiambal (B) Narmada

130. In which part of India the Volcanic Barren Island is located?

(A) Andaman group of islands

(B) Nicobar group of islands

(D) . None of these

131. Which one of the following is the main area for producing ‘Tidal Energy’?

(A) Gulf of Bengal

(B) Gulf of Mannar

(D) Gulf of Kutch

132. The Janapao Hill situated near Indore is the source of

(A) Tapi River

(B) Chambal River

(D) Mahanadi River

133. Which, one of the following is not a Moist Tropical Forest in India?

(A) Alpine Forest

(B) Tidal Forest

(D) Moist Deciduous Forest

134. India and Sri Lanka are separated by

(A) Falk Strait

(B) Indian Occean

(D) Arabian Sea

135. Which one of the following Is the largest State of India in area?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Uttar Pradesh

136. Which one of the following States has the largest reserve of Copper Ore?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Chhattisgarh

(D) Rajasthan

137. Density of population in India per sq. km. as per Census Report 2011 is

(A) 372 (B) 362

138. According to the provisional report of Census 2011 the child sex ratio in U.P. Is

(A) 914 per 1000

(B) 899 per 1000

(D) 940 per 1000

139. As per Census Report 2011, the female literacy rate in India is

(A) 73.9% (B) 66.8%

140. Through which one of the following Indian States the Tropic of Cancer does not pass?

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh

141. The Brahmaputra river in Himalayas presents an example of

(A) Superimposed drainage

(B) Subsequent drainage

(D) Antecedent drainage

142. Which one of the following rock systems is richest in metallic minerals?

(A) Lower Vidhyan System

(B) Dharwar System

(D) Upper vindhyan System

143. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I (Lakes) List II (States)

A Loktak 1. Maharashtra

B Pulicut 2. Jammu-Kashmir

C Lonar 3. Tamil Nadu

D Wular 4. Manipur

144. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I (Projects) List II (Rivers)'

A Nagarjun Sagar 1. Beas

B Indira Gandhi Canal 2. Narmada

C Pochampad 3. Krishna

D Sardar Sarovar 4. Godavari

145. Which one of the following States has the largest area under forests?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Mizoram

146. Which one of the following States does not have notified scheduled tribes?

(A) Kerala

(B) Haryana

(D) Goa

147. Which one of the following States is the main producer of Cashew Nuts?

(A) Goa

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Karnataka

148. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I (Tribes) List II (States)

A Oraon 1. Kerala

B Khond 2. Gujarat

C Chenchur 3. Jharkhand

D Todia

149. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I (States) List II (Population Density Report 2011)

A Uttar Pradesh 1. 1102

B Bihar 2. 859

C Kerala' 3. 828

D West Bengali 4. 1029

A B C D

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 3 1 2 4

150. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List I (Iron Ore Areas) List II (States)

A Dhalli Rajhara 1. Odisha

B Kudremukh 2. Jharkhand

C BadamPahar 3. Karnataka

D Noamundi 4. Chhattisgarh

A B C D

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 3 2 4 1

(Q 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 4 2 3

PART II LAW

1. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant opinions as to existence of custom?

(A) Section 47 (B) Section 48

2. Which one of the following does not come within the meaning of “Document” under the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) a writing

(B) a map

(D) a word photographed

3. ‘A ’tried for the murder of B by beating with a club with the intention of causing his death. At ‘A’s’ trial which one of the following is not fact in issue?

(A) 'A's' beating 'B' with the club.

(B) 'A's' conversation with 'C'.

(D) 'A's' intention to cause 'B's' death.

4. The case Dudhnath Pandey v. State of U.P. is related to

(A) Res Gestae (B) Plea of alibi

5. Under which one of the following provisions of Indian Evidence Act the words “forming part of the same transaction” occurs?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 6

6. Which one of the following is not a secondary evidence?

(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical process

(B) Copies made from or compared with the original

(D) Lithography

7. Point out the incorrect statement:

(A) If a contract is contained in several letters, all the letters in which it is contained, must be proved.

(B) If a contract is contained in a bill of exchange, the bill of exchange must be proved.

(D) If 'A' gives 'B' receipt for money paid by 'B', oral evidence is offered of the payment, the evidence is not admissible.

8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

List I (Provisions) List II (Sections of Evidence Act)

A Burden of Proof 1. Section 106

B On whom burden of proof lies 2. Section 103

C Burden of Proof as to particular fact 3. Section 102

D Burden of proving fact especially within knowledge 4. Section 101

code given below:

1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to arbitration proceedings.

2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to proceedings before a Commissioner appointed by the, court for recording evidence

3. The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits presented to Courts

4. The Indian Evidence Act applies to judicial proceedings held before all kinds of military courts

(A) 2 and 3 are incorrect

(B) 2,3 and 4 are incorrect

(D) None of the above is incorrect

10. How many years old electronic record will be deemed to be proved, if it is produced from any custody which the court in the particular case considers proper?

(A) Five years (B) Thirty years

11. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications?

(A) Section 128 only

(B) Sections 129 and 130

(D) Sections 126 and 127

12. Section 7 of the Evidence Act does not include which one of the following?

(A) Occasion (B) Cause

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

List I (Provisions) List I (Sections of Transfer of Property Act)

A Transfer in perpetuity 1. Section 20

B When un born person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit 2. Section 18

C Transfer by "ostensible owner 3. Section 44

D Transfer by co-owner 4. Section 41

A B C D

(A) 1 2 4 3

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 4 2 3 1

14. Which of the following case decided by the Privy Council, relates to ‘fraudulent transfer’?

(A) Musahar Sahu v. Hakim Lal

(B) Middleton v. Pollock

(D) All of the above

15. Which of the following would be considered as “transfer of property” under the Transfer of Property Act? Select the answer by using the code given below:

1. Grant of an easementary right of way over a piece of land.

2. Exchange of two things.

3. A family settlement.

4. Creation of charge on an immovable property by operation of law.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3

16. In which of the following mortgage, the mortgagor binds himself, personally to pay the mortgage money?

(A) Simple mortgage

(B) Usufructuary mortgage

(D) Mortgage by assurance

17. Which one of the following statement is not correct?

(A) 'A' transfers a farm to 'B' for her life and if she does not desert her husband to 'C'. 'B' is entitled to the farm during her life as if no condition had been insisted.

(B) 'A' transfers Rs. 50,000 to 'B' on condition that he shall marry with the consent of 'C', 'D' and 'E'. 'B' marries without the consent of 'C', 'D' and 'E' but obtains their consent after marriage. - The condition shall be deemed to be fulfilled as it has been substantially complied with.

(D) A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession.

18. Which of the following are “immovable property” under the Transfer of Property Act? Select the correct answer by using the code below:

1. The equity of redemption

2. A hut

3. Mortgage debt

4. Right to recover maintenance allowance charged on immovable property

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

19. A Municipal Board, under a resolution gave possession of a land to ‘X’ and ‘Y’ with a right to make construction on the said land subject to a condition that after termination of lease, the construction shall belong to the Municipal Board. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ accepted the condition and made construction on the land.

The effect of resolution and acceptance was to create

(A) lease

(B) usufructuary mortgage

(D) easement

20. Remedy of ‘Foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages?

(A) Usufructuary mortgage

(B) Mortgage by conditional sale

(D) English mortgage

21. Which of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act contains exception to the maxim “Nemo dat quad non habet’?

(A) Sections 41 and 42

(B) Sections 43 and 44

(D) Sections 41 and 43

22. Which is a right of the Mortgagee and not that of a Mortgagor?

(A) Right to force closure

(B) Right to redeem

(D) Right to inspect documents

23. In case of gift, the donee dies before acceptance, then

(A) gift is valid

(B) gift is void

(D) court has to decide

24. In which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, an Amendment was made in the year 2002?

(A) Section 100 (B) Section 106

25. Doctrine which requires that the transferor must deliver the subsequently acquired property to the transferee who acted upon his false representation and did harm to himself by paying money for what he could not get is called

(A) Rule against unjust enrichment

(B) Implied consent

(D) Doctrine of substantial compliance

26. “For an acceptance mere mental resolve to accept would not be sufficient; there must be some external manifestation of the intent by speech, writing or other act.”

It was held by Supreme Court in

(A) Fazal Ilahi v. East Indian Railway Co.

(B) M. Nanjappa v. M.P. Muthuswamy

(D) Bhagwan Das v. Girdhari Lal & Co.

27. Which one of the following relation does not come within the undue influence relationship?

(A) Doctor and Patient

(B) Customer and Shopkeeper

(D) Master and Servant

28. Difference between a contract and social agreement is that of

(A) consideration

(B) intention to create legal relationship

(D) certainty of performance

29. Match List I with List II and select the answer by using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

A Satyabrat Ghosh v. Manganeeram 1. Invitation to Offer

B Raj Rani v. Prem Adib 2. Communication of Acceptance

C Entores Ltd. v. Miles for East Corporation 3. Minor's Agreement

D Harvey v. Facey 4. Doctrine of Frustration

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

30. Assertion (A): A stranger to a contract cannot enforce the contract.

Reason (R): He is not party to contract and can not take benefit

(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

31. Damages allowed under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, are

(A) liquidated damages

(B) compensatory damages

(D) none of the above

32. Section 124 of Indian Contract Act, includes under Contract of Indemnity the

(A) losses caused by human conduct

(B) losses caused by accident

(D) none of the above

33. ‘A’ contract to sing for ‘B’ at a concert and gets Rs. 1,000 as advance. ‘A’ is too ill to sing, here:

(A) 'A' is bound to sing.

(B) 'A' is bound to compensate 'B' for loss.

(D) None of the above

34. ‘A’ owes ‘B’ Rs. 5,000. ‘A’ pays to ‘B’ Rs. 2,000 and ‘B’ accepts it in satisfaction of whole claim on ‘A’, here

(A) whole debt is discharged

(B) no debt is discharged

(D) none of the above

35. A contingent contract dependent on the happening of future uncertain event can be enforced when the event

(A) happens

(B) becomes impossible

(D) none of the above

36. Point out the incorrect statement:

(A) A party who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for his damages.

(B) Where a person gives any bond for the performance of any act in which the public is interested, he shall be liable upon its breach, to pay the whole sum mentioned therein.

(C) A party to the contract complaining of the breach is not entitled to receive any compensation from the other party, if no actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby.

(D) The rule of compensation for loss or damages caused due to the breach of a contract contained in Section 73 of the Contract Act, does not apply to void agreements.

37. A promise to pay a debt barred by the law of limitation, has been made enforceable under which section of the Indian Contract Act?

(A) Section 32 (B) Section 47

38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:

List I List II

A. A Railway Time Table 1. is invitation to offer

B Public Notification for Tender 2. is a general offer

C Picking up an article from shelves and 3. is acceptance of an offer

putting it in his basket in a 'Self-service Mall'

D 'A' says to 'B' that if 'A's' offer is not accepted, 'B' 4. it is not the acceptance of the offer

should say 'No'- immediately. 'B' keeps silent.

A B C D

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 3 4

(D) 3 4 2 1

39. Assertion (A): Agreement without consideration is void.

Reason (R): Consideration may be given by promise or any other person.

(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

40. Unlawful consideration and object have been mentioned under which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(A) Under Section 18

(B) Under Section 20

(D) Under Section 23

41. On 27 January, 2012, G-4 made a joint bid focussing on expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories and improving the working methods of the Security Council G-4 consisted of

(A) India, Germany, Japan and Brazil

(B) India, Russia, Brazil and Egypt

(D) Indonesia, Malaysia, Pakistan and Brazil

42. Which country has conducted Nuclear Test in February, 2013?

(A) Iran (B) Israel

43. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?

(A) International Court of Justice

(B) Economic and Social Council

(D) International Labour Organization

44. Consider the following statements:

1. The General Assembly can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion of any legal question.

2. The General Assembly may authorize other organs and specialized agencies of the United Nations to seek such advise from International Court of Justice.

3. The Security Council has independent power to seek advisory opinion on a legal question from International Court of Justice.

Of the above statements:

(A) 1 and 2 are correct, but 3 is wrong.

(B) 1 and 3 are correct, but 2 is wrong.

(D) 1,2 and 3 all are correct

45. What is the name of the Sixth Committee of the United Nations General Assembly?

(A) Legal Committee

(B) Economic and Financial Committee

(D) Disarmament and International Security Committee

46. The year 2013 has been declared by the United Nations General Assembly as

(A) International Year of Economic Co-operation

(B) International Year of Water Co-operation

(Q Global Year of Social Co-operation

(D) Global Year of Cultural Co-operation

47. United Nations Members States voted overwhelmingly on 18 November, 2011 to readmit which State as member of the United Nations Human Rights Council?

(A) Sudan

(B) Cohgo

(D) Macedonia

48. The idea of Peace Building Commission (PBC) 'was raised by

(A) United States President Bush

(B) Kofi Annan

(D) Shashi Tharoor

49. The name of the Italian vessel from which the two Italian marine killed two Indian fisherman on February 18, 2012 is

(A) Santa Maria

(B) Boz-Kourt

(D) Enrica Lexi

50. Which ‘World Bank Group’ institution is not a ‘Specialized Agency’ of the United Nations?

(A) International Development Association

(B) International Finance Corporation

(D) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

51. On which date India became a member of the United Nations?

(A) On 24 October, 1945

(B) On 30 October, 1945

(D) On 15 August, 1947

52. In which country the United Nations envoy Vijay Nambiar is working for peace in the inter- communal violence between Rakhine Buddhists and Rohingya Muslims?

(A) In Sri Lanka

(B) In Pakistan

(D) In Myanmar

53. What is EURO-III?

(A) A European Currency

(B) A Third European Film Festival

(D) A Pollution Control Scale

54. Who has been appointed as the next permanent representative of India to the United Nations on February 13,2013?

(A) Ashok Kumar Mukherjee

(B) Hardeep Singh Puri

(D) Shashi Tharoor

55. In which city is the United Nations Human Rights Council is based?

(A) Paris

(B) London

(D) New York

56. Which Judge of the Supreme Court of India was elected as a Judge of the International Court of Justice in April, 2012?

(A) Justice Swatanter Kumar

(B) Justice Dalbir Bhandari

(D) Justice A.K. Patnaik'

57. Which of the following State is not a member of ‘SAARC’?

(A) Maldives

(B) Afghanistan

(D) Bhutan

58. The five year term for the Secretary General of the United Nations has been fixed by the

(A) United Nations Charter

(B) Resolution of United Nations General Assembly

(D) On the basis of an advisory opinion of the International Court of Justice

59. The official language of the international Court of Justice are

(A) French and English

(B) Arabic and English

(D) Spanish and English

60. What was the ‘theme’ for the world Human Rights Day, 2012?

(A) All Human Rights for all.

(B) Women's Right as Human Right.

(D) Human Rights as People's Rights.

61. Does United Nations, as an organisation has the capacity to bring an international claim against a State in the International Court of Justice?

(A) Yes, because United Nations is also deemed to be a State.

(B) No, because International Court of Justice is open to the State parties to the Statute only.

(D) None of the above is correct.

62. Pope Benedict XVI announced his resignation on 11 February, 2013 because of

(A) current international terrorism

(B) frequent violation of human rights

(D) dwindling world economy

63. On 29 November, 2012, the United Nations General Assembly voted to make Palestine as

(A) the 194th Member State of United Nations.

(B) the Non-voting Member of the United Nations.

(D) a Permanent Invitee to General Assembly Meetings.

64. What is the number of States with ‘nuclear capabilities’ as listed in Annexure 2 of C.T.B.T. (Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty)?

(A) 8 States (B) 44 States

65. Which original member of the United Nations was not represented at the San-Francisco Conference in 1945 and did not therefore sign the United Nations Charter on 26 June, 1945?

(A) India (B) Belarus

66. Tripartite character is the outstanding feature of

(A) International Labour Organization

(B) International Civil Aviation Organisation

(D) None of the above

67. In Bhanumati v. State 6f U.P. (2010), the Supreme Court In interpreting Article 243C of the Constitution applied the

(A) Doctrine of Colourable legislation

(B) Doctrine of Silence

(D) Doctrine of Basic features

68. P.A. Sangma v. Pranab Mukherjee (2013) ease was decided by the Supreme Court

(A) unanimously

(B) by a majority of 3:2

(D) by a majority of 4:1

69. In which list is the subject ‘Pilgrimages Places outside India’ enumerated?

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(D) None of the above

70. Order of the Election Commission to cover statutes of elephants being election symbol of a political party, during election period

(A) does not violate Article 25 of the' Constitution

(B) violates Article 25 of the Constitution

(D) infringes Article 19(l)(a) of the Constitution

71. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are charged on

(A) Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) Ministry of Law

(D) Consolidated Fund of India

72. While deciding cases of terrorists, which procedure is to be followed?

(A) Procedure established by law

(B) Procedure established by the Constitution

(D) None of the above

73. In which of the following cases the Five Judges Constitutional Bench observed that the ‘doctrine of postponement’ was aimed at balancing the right of an accused to be presumed innocent till completion of trial with the media’s Right to Freedom of Expression?

(A) Ajai Kumar Parmar v. State of Rajasthan

(B) Sahara India Real State Corporation Ltd. & or. v. Securities and Exchange Board of India

(D) Ajay Goswami V. Union of India

74. Which one of the following is not the way of Termination of Citizenship?

(A) By renunciation

(B) By acquisition

(D) By deprivation

75. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his children or as the case may be; ward between the age of six and fourteen years.” By which Constitutional Amendment Act, this duty included?

(A) By 42nd Amendment

(B) By 44th.Amendment

(D) By 92nd Amendment

76. Which one of the following is not included in Article 21 of the Constitution of India?

(A) Right to Die

(B) Right to Life

(D) Right to Dignity

77. Which one of the following does not apply to the term of office of Governor?

(A) The Governor shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President.

(B) Minimum age for the post of Governor shall be thirty-two year.

(D) The term of Governor shall be five years.

78. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court called Article 22 of the Constitution as "Ugly provision of the Constitution"?

(A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(B) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

(D) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

79. The person associated with PIL is

(A) Justice Bhagawati

(B) Justice R.N. Mishra

(D) None of the above

80. In which of the following decisions of the Supreme Court of India, a Seven Judges Bench explained the concept of Public Interest Litigation?

(A) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdullah

(B) Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh v. Union of India

(D) Neeraj Chaudhry v. State of U.P.

81. In which of the following decisions, the Supreme Court observed that “mercy petitions filed under Articles 72 and 161 should be disposed of within a period of three months from the date wheq it is received, as unwanted delays tend to shake the confidence in the system of Justice”?

(A) Kuljeet Singh v. Lt. Governor of Delhi

(B) Maru Ram v. Union of India

(D) Kehar Singh v. Union of India

82. Mention the chronology of the following judgments of the Supreme Court of India, starting from the earliest upto the latest case. Use the code given below:

1. Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh v. Union of India ,

2.. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

3. M:R. Balaji v. State of Mysore

4. A.I.I.M.S. Students Union v. A.I.I.M.S.

(A) 3,l,2,4 (B) 1,2,3,4

83. The binding force behind the Directive Principles of State Policy is

(A) Public Opinion

(B) Government

(D) Administration

84. ‘Prorogation’ means

(A) Inviting the Members of Parliament

(B) Asking Speaker to hold Session .of Lok Sabha

(D) Termination of Session

85. Which one of the following statement is not correct?

(A) No mandamus can be issued to enforce an Act which has been passed by the Legislature.

(B) Court can not issue any direction to the Legislature to make any particular kind of enactment.

(D) Under the Constitutional Scheme, Parliament and the State Legislatures exercise sovereign powers to enact law.

86. In which provision of the Constitution of India is incorporated the “principle of collective responsibility” of the Council of Ministers?

(A) Article 75(3) (B) Article 75(1)

87. Discrimination by law in the marriageable age of a boy (21 years) and a girl (18 years)

(A) offends Article 14 of the Constitution

(B) does not offend Article 14 of the Constitution

(D) violates Human Rights

88. Who said that “law is not to be deduced from the rule but the rule from the law”?

(A) Paulus (B) Gray

89. “The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty”, says:

(A) Inhering

(B) Ehrlich

(D) Duguit

90. Point out best response:

According to Austin, law has the following attributes:

(A) Command, sovereign and enforceability

(B) Command, sovereign and sanction

(D) Command, sovereign and obedience by subject

91. Which one of the following jurists belongs to ancient theories of natural law?

(A) Acquinas (B) Grotius

92. Which one of the following is not an essential element of custom?

(A) Antiquity

(B) Certainty

(D) Inconsistency

93. Give correct response:

(A) The obiter dictum has binding force.

(B) Ratio decidendi has binding force.

(D) Neither ratio decidendi nor obiter dictum has binding force.

94. Which one of the following is not a safeguard against delegated legislation?

(A) Parliamentary control

(B) Judicial control

(D) Public control

95. Point out incorrect response:

Ownership is Classified in the following ways:

(A) Corporeal and Incorporeal ownership

(B) Mediate and Immediate ownership

(D) Vested and Contingent ownership

96. Who prefers to call Austin’s Analytical School as Imperative School?

(A) Allen (B) Paton

97. Which one of the following case is related to possession?

(A) R v. Chissers

(B) Merry v. Green

(D) Gallic v. Lei and Ors.

98. Which one of the following is not a legal person? .

(A) Idol of Goddess Durga

(B) State of Kerala

(D) Mosque

99. Which one of the following is not an element of legal right?

(A) The subject i.e. holder of right

(B) The object of right

(D) Legal remedy

100, Jurisprudence as a separate branch of discipline was started by

(A) Hindu Scholars

(B) Christian Community

(D) Jews

101. The “Province and Function of Law” named book was written by

(A) Hart

(B) Kelsen

(D) Julius Stone

102. Time barred debt is a

(A) Perfect Right

(B) Imperfect Right

(D) None of the above

103. Punishment provided for kidnapping for ransom in Indian Penal Code is

(A) upto seven years imprisonment

(B) life imprisonment only

(D) ten years rigorous imprisonment

104. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Counterfeit Section 28

(B) Valuable security Section 30

(D) Omission Section 33

105. In which one of the following offences ‘mens rea’ is not an essential element?

(A) Assault (B) Bigamy

(C). Defamation (D) None of the above

106. ‘A’ handed over his watch to a watch-smith for repairing. In order to not pay the repairing charges 'A' picked up his watch from the shop, when the watch-smith was not looking.

In this case

(A) 'A' is guilty of criminal breach of trust.

(B) 'A'.is guilty of cheating.

(D) 'A' is not guilty of any offence because the watch, he picked up Was his own. However, he should pay the repairing charges to watch-smith.

107. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute the offence of

(A) Affray

(B) Assault

(D) Unlawful Assembly

108. The phrase “in furtherance of common intention of all” used in Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, is

(A) in the original draft

(B) added by Amending Act of 1870

(D) added by Amending Act of 1986

109. ‘A’ meets a girl aged fifteen years in a park. She tells him that she is sixteen years of age and she is ill-treated at her house by her father and that she would be happy to be taken away from there. Thereafter ‘A’ takes the girl to his house and allows her to remain there. In this case

(A) 'A' has committed no offence as the girl has come with him with her own - consent.

(B) 'A' has committed no offence as the girl misrepresented her age and 'A' believed her matured and capable of consenting.

(D) 'A' has committed the offence of kidnapping and wrongful confinement.

110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

A Rex v. Levett 1. Murder

B Tabu Chetia v. State of Assam 2. Criminal conspiracy

C Vijayan v. State of Kerala 3. Insanity

D State of U.P. v. Virendra Prasad 4. Mistake of fact

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 1 3 4 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

111. Which one of the following statement is correct ?

(A) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between principal and accessory.

(B) In conspiracy principal and accessory are distinct

(D) None of the above is correct.

112. Which offence is constituted under Section 366A of Indian Penal Code?

(A) Kidnapping

(B) Kidnapping for begging

(D) Importing of girl from Jammu and Kashmir State

113. Point out the statement which is wrong.

(A) International destruction of property for causing wrongful loss to any person is 'mischief'

(B) Intentionally putting any person in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly inducing him to deliver any property is 'extortion'.

(D) Two or more persons quarrelling anywhere commit 'affray'.

114. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a human being by another human being. Reason (R): Homicide is always unlawful.

Give the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

115. ‘A’ picked up a match box belonging to ‘B’ and lighted his cigarette with it. ‘B’ charged ‘A* with the offence of theft of his match box. In these circumstances ‘A’ can defend himself with the help of which one of the following maxims ?

(A) Non compos mentis

(B) Dole Incapax

(D) Ignorantia juris non excusate

116. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

A Delivery of Property 1. Criminal Breach of Trust

B Taking of Property 2. Criminal Misappropriation of Property

C Entrustment of Property 3. Theft

D Convertibility of Property innocently got to one's own use 4. Extortion ,

A B C D

(A) 3' 4 1 2

(B) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 1 2 4

117. Which one of the following is not a mode of abetment under the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Attempt (B) Instigation

118. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no women shall be arrested and detained in civil prison in the matter regarding to the decree relates to

(A) family disputes

(B) matrimonial disputes

(D) payment of money disputes

119. Point out the incorrect statement:

(A) A member of Parliament is not entitled ' to exemption from personal appearance in a court.

(B) A judicial officer may be arrested under a civil process at any time except when he is going to, presiding in or returning from his court.

jurisdiction

(D) The High Court cannot vary or reverse in its revisional jurisdiction any decree or order against which an appeal lies either to the High Court or to any court subordinate thereto.

120. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

List I List II (Sections of CPC)

A Interpleader Suit 1. Section 46

B Letter of Request 2. Section 88

C Precepts 3. Section 30

D Power to order discovery 4. Section -72

A B' C D

(A) 4 3 1 2

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 2 1 3 4

121. Where a compromise was arrived,, between parties to a suit by playing fraud, mis represantation or mistake and a decree was passed with the consent of the parties, then the suffering party may select one of the following alternatives for setting aside such decree?

(A) Through appeal

(B) Through revision

(D) Through a second suit

122. The documents on which the plaintiff relies upon in support his claim shall be filed by him in the court

(A) along with the plaint

(B) within seven days from the date of order by the court for issue of summons.

(D) at the time or before the hearing of the suit. .

123. Consider The following statements:

1. Where the High Court calls for the record of any case in its Revisional jurisdiction, it operates as a stay of such case before the subordinate court.

2. No second appeal shall lie in money suits where the value of the subject matter does not exceed Rs. 25,000.

3. A plaintiff cannot be allowed by the court to sue afterwards for any relief ' omitted by him in the suit.

4. A plaintiff may relinquish any portion of his claim in order to bring the suit within the jurisdiction of any court.

Of the above statements:

(A) 1,2 and 3 are incorrect.

(B) 2 and 3 are incorrect

(D) 1 and 4 are incorrect

124. Under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which one of the following is not exempted from personal appearance in the court?

(A) Ministers of Union

(B) Ministers of States

(D) Chairman of Public Service Commission

125. Inherent powers conferred under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, may be exercised the

(A) Supreme Court only

(B) High Court only

(D) Supreme Court, High Court, District Court as well as by any Civil Court

126. ‘A’ and ‘B’ sue ‘C’ for recovery of Rs. 1,000. ‘C’ has a debt due to him by ‘A’ alone. Here ‘C’’ can

(A) set off the debt against 'B'.

(B) set off the debt against 'A'.

(D) cannot set off a debt due to him by 'A' alone.

127. The term “prescribed” under Section 2(16) of-Civil Procedure Code, 1908 mean

(A) prescribed by court

(B) prescribed by society

(D) none of the above

128. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, for the first time provision for compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences, has been made under

(A) Section 35 of the Code

(B) Section 35(B) of the Code

(D) Section 34 of the Code

129. 'A’ deposits a box' of jewels with ‘B’ as his agent. ‘C alleges that the jewels were wrongfully Obtained by ‘A’ from him and claims them from 'B’. Here ‘B’

(A) can institute interpleader suit against 'A'

(B) can institute interpleader suit against 'C'

(D) cannot institute an interpleader suit against 'A' and 'C'.

130. Point out the wrong statement:

(A) Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear, when the suit is Called for hearing, the court shall dismiss the suit arid the plaintiff shall bebarred from filing a fresh suit on the same cause of action.

(B) No appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.

(D) No court shall set aside a decree passed exparte merely on the ground that there has been an irregularities in the service of summon upon the defendant.

131. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, objection to jurisdiction as to the place of suing shall not be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court. Unless such objection was taken

(A) in the court of first instance.

(B) at the earliest possible opportunity.

(D) when all the conditions of (A), (B) and (C) are fulfilled.

132. The nature of Revision under Code of Civil Procedure is that

(A) it operates as a stay of the proceedings

(B) it operates as a stay of a’ suit

(D) it shall not operate as a. stay of the suit; or proceedings except Where such suit or- proceedings is stayed by the High Court.

133. Justice J.S. Verma Committee Report of January 23,2013 has recommended that non- penetrative forms of sexual contract should be regarded as

(A) Rape

(B) Sexual Assault

(D) Defamation

134. Who can issue a search warrant to search a Post Office?

(A) District Magistrate

(B) Civil Court

(D) High Court

135. What is the nature of a statement given in NARCO Test?

(A) it is not an evidence

(B) it is a scientific evidence

(D) it is a circumstantial evidence

136. Cognizance of the offence of defamation under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code can be taken

(A) on a police report

(B) on a complaint made by an aggrieved person

(D) all of the above

137. Statement recorded by police officer during investigation under Section 161 of the Criminal Procedure Code can be used during trial

(A) for contradicting the witness

(B) for corroborating the witness

(D) neither for (A) nor (B)

138. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, examination of witness in the absence of absconded accused can be done under.

(A) Section 299 (B) Section 321

139. Under Criminal Procedure Code, for ah offence punishable with fine only, the period of limitation Is

(A) three months (B) six months

140. Section 183 of Criminal Procedure Code

(A) applies to voyage on the high seas.

(B) does not apply to voyage on high seas.

(D) has been declared unconstitutional.

141.Under which Section of Criminal Procedure Code, provision for security for keeping the peace on conviction exists?

(A) Section 108. (B) Section 106

142. Under Section 41 of Criminal Procedure ' Code, the power of police to arrest a person

(A) covers all cases.

(B) is. limited to cases of mere suspicion.

(D) does not cover cases of Army deserters.

143. Under Section 27 of the Criminal Procedure Code, the age of Juvenile is

(A) 16 years (B) 18 years

144. Who writes evidence in a criminal trial?

(A) Any employee of the court

(B) Magistrate

(D) Expert

145. Which Section of Criminal Procedure Code applies when the officer-in-charge of a Police Station receives information that a person has committed suicide, he will immediately report to the Executive Magistrate?

(A) Section 169 (B) Section 173

146. ‘A’ is accused of an act which pay amount to theft or receiving stolen property or criminal breach of trust. ‘A’ is only charged with ‘theft’. It appears that he committed the offence of criminal breach of trust.

(A) He may be convicted of criminal breach of trust though he was not charged with such offence.

(B) He may not be convicted of criminal breach of trust because he was not charged with such offence.

(D) He may only be convicted of theft because he was charged with theft.

147. While exercising the power of revision under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the High Court cannot

(A) discharge the accused

(B) acquit the accused

(D) convert a finding of acquittal into one of conviction

148. In Indian Evidence Act, the maxim “SALUS POPOLISUPREMA LEX” is related to

(A) Section 121

(B) Section 122

(D) Section 124

149. The Law of Evidence consists of which one of the following?

(A) Ordinary rules of reasoning

(B) Legal rules of evidence

(D) All of the above

150. ‘X’ sues ‘Y’ for damage done by a dog of ‘Y’, which ‘Y’ knew to be ferocious. The fact that the dog had previously bitten ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are

(A) relevant

(B) irrelevant

(D) unreliable

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