PART I
GENERAL STUDIES
1. In 1946, there was a mutiny of Indian naval ratings in
a. Calcutta
b. Madras
c. Vishakhapatnam
d. Bombay
2. Which commission recommended the Famine Code for India?
a. Campbell Commission
b. MacDonnell Commission
c. Strachey Commission
d. Lyall Commission
3. What proposal was made in the 'August offers’ of 1940?
a. Complete Independence for India gradually
b. ' Dominion Status
c. Provincial Autonomy
d. Representative Government at the Centre
4. Who had made English language as a medium of education?
a. Lord Macaulay, 1838
b. Sir Charles Wood, 1854
c. Lord Clive, 1857
d. Lord Curzon, 1899
5. In 1946 AD, the Interim Government was headed by
a. Liyakat Ali
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
d. Lord Mountbatten
6. What was established by Indian Association to increase national spirit thereby playing an important role?
a. Indian National Congress
b. Bengal British Indian Society
c. Indian national Conference,
d. British India Association
7. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the editor of
a. Samvad Kaumudi
b. Navashakti
c. Yugantar
d. VandeMataram
8. Satya Sodhak Samaj was founded by
a. Shahuji Maharaj
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Jyotiba Phule
d. Jagjivan Ram
9. During the British rule, according to which Act, there was permission to arrest without fair trial?
a. Rowlatt Act
b. Sedition Act, 1870
c. Hindu Code Bill
d. Eilbert Bill
10. Who had led the Santhal Revolt?
a. Sido and Kanhu
b. Dolta Ramosi and Birsa
c. Jatra Bhagat and Jundu Bhagat
d. Motilal Tejavat and Surendra Sai
11. The author, who described the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence, was
a. Ashok Mehta
b. R.C. Majumdar
c. S.N. Sen
d. V.D. Savarkar.
12. The leaders of the Home Rule Movement borrowed the term 'Home ule' from a similar movement in
a. Ireland
b. Scotland
c. United States of America
d. Canada
13. Rabindranath Tagore gave up his Knighthood because of
a. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
b. brutal suppression of Civil Disobedience Movement
c. execution of Bhagat Singh
d. Chauri-Chaura incident
14. Who was the founder of Anusheelan Samiti in Bengal?
a. Pramatha Mitra
b. Aurobindo Ghosh
c. Prafulla Chaki
d. Khudiram Bose
15. Who was the first woman president of Indian National Congress?
a. Sarojini Naidu
b. Annie Besant
c. Sucheta Kriplani
d. Madame Cama
16. Who was the author of Economic History of India (1901)?
a. R.C. Dutta
b. M. Vishveswaraiya
c. N.G. Ranga
d. D.R Gadgil
17. Who had presided over the first All Indian Trade Union Congress session?
a. M.N. Joshi
b. NLN. Roy
c. (Q Lala Lajpat Rai
d. S.A. Dange
18. Who was the founder of Hindu College at Calcutta?
a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b. Keshav Chandra Sen
c. Henri Viviyan Derojiyo
d. Ashutosh Chaudhary
19. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first used his principle of Satyagraha?
a. Champaran (Bihar)
b. Kheda (Gujarat)
c. Ahmedabad Mill strike
d. Rowlatt Act
20. Who was the founder of India’s first cotton cloth mill?
a. Kavasaji Nanaji Dabhar
b. Jamshedji Tata
c. Ranchodial Mehta
d. Nanji Kalidas Mehta
21. Who was the famous painter in the court of Akbar?
a. Abdursamad
b. Mansur
c. Abul Hasan
d. Bihjad
22. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by
a. Ram Mohan Roy
b. Sir William Jones
c. WW. Hunter
d. William Bentinck
23. The famous Fergusson College of Pune was started in 1885 by
a. the Servants of Indian Society
b. the Theosophical Society
c. the Deccan Education Society
d. the Social Service League
24. Who started the Journal ‘Bahiskrit Bharat’?
a. Jyotiba Phule
b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Karsandas Mulji
d. Bhandaji
25. In Buddhist terminology, the word ‘Dharmachakra Pravartana’ indicates the
a. belief in the cycle of life and death
b. attainment of Nirvana by Buddha
c. first sermon by Buddha
d. personal religion of the Chakravarti
26. Which one of the following sculptures does not belong to the Mauryan period?
a. Saranath lion capital
b. Dhauli elephant
c. Standing Buddha from Mathura
d. Rampurva bull
27. Squinch system in architecture for supporting the dome was used for the first time in
a. Iltutmish's tomb
b. Alai Darvaza
c. Ghiyasuddin Tughluq's tomb
d. Humayun's tomb
28. Samudragupta’s victories are mentioned in which records?
a. Mathura Rock Edicts
b. Gimar Inscriptions
c. Aihole Inscriptions
d. Allahabad Inscription
29. Who was the author of Abhigyana Shakuntalam?
a. Kalidas
b. Sanghadas
c. Harisen
d. Rajshekhar
30. The Third Buddhist Council was summoned by
a. Chandragupta Maurya
b. Ashok
c. Bimbisar
d. Kanishka
31. During the Sangam age the Mahabharat in Tamil was composed by
a. Perundevanar
b. Villiputhur
c. Kamban
d. Kuttan
32. The Delhi Sultan, who established a minister of agricultural development, was
a. Balbaii
b. Muhammad Tughluq
c. Alauddin Khalji
d. Firuz Tughluq
33. The Vijayanagar Emperor, who made the greatest contribution to felugu and Sanskrit literature, was
a. Devarayal
b. Devarayall
c. Krishnadevaraya
d. Ramraya
34. Yahiya Sirhindi the author of Tarikh-i- Mubarakshahi lived during the period of
a. Lodis
b. Sayidds
c. Tughluqs
d. Khaljis
35. The Satnamis who rebelled in the time of Aurangzeb and occupied the town of Narmaul were the followers of
a. Kabir
b. Dadu
c. GuruNanak
d. Ravidas
36. Dandakaranya receives maximum rain through
a. summer cyclone
b. retreating monsoon
c. winter cyclone
d. local storm
37. Small rills or clefts found in lower Ganga delta are called
a. khal
b. khadera
c. khari
d. khor
38. Which river is called the ‘Hope of Gujarat’?
a. Sabarmati
b. Narmada
c. Tapti
d. Mahi
39. Which is the oldest drainage system?
a. Chambal
b. Indo-Brahma
c. Ganga
d. Kosi
40. Which of the following oil refineries of India has the maximum capacity?
a. Koyali
b. Trombay
c. Barauni
41. What is the number of the longest national highway in India that passes through Jabalpur?
a. NH 13
b. NH 07
c. NH 33
d. NH 42
42. What is the total length of Kaveri river?
a. 381 km
b. 357 km
c. 802 km
d. 64 km
43. Amarkantak, source place of Son, Narmada and Mahanadi rivers is situated at
a. Maikala range
b. Makalu range
c. Rajmahal hills
d. Mahadeo hills
44. Through which of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh Indian Standard Time Line passes?
a. Bilaspur
b. Jabalpur
c. Mandu
d. Bhopal
45. On which river Bhakhra dam is situated?
a. Ravi
b. Beas
c. Jhelum
d. Satluj
46. Average height Of Kosi plain from mean sea level' is
a. 300m
b. 150 m
c. 100 m
d. 30 m
47. Through which State Tropic of Cancer passes?
a. Meghalaya
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Bihar
d. Orissa
48. In which State Lumding is situated?
a. Assam
b. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Manipur
d. Nagaland
49. Which State of India experiences maximum marine erosion?
a. Kerala
b. Gujarat
c. West Bengal
d. Maharashtra
50. Which is the glacial lake of India?
a. Manasarovar
b. Siachen
c. Dal
d. Wular
51. Who is known as the Father of International Green Revolution?
a. Norman Borlaug
b. M.S. Swaminathan
c. Erik Acharius
d. Peter Artedi
52. Which of the following days is celebrated as the World Earth Day?
a. January 22
b. February 22
c. March 22'
d. April 22
53. Who is the present Director General of Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR)?
a. Dr. R.S. Paroda
b. Dr. Mangala Rai
c. Dr. MS. Swaminathan
d. Dr. S. Ayyappan
54. The present President of NASSCOM is
a. Pramod Bhasin
b. Som Mittal
c. Ashok Soota
d. Ganesh Natarajan
55. Which of the following represents the number of the member countries of ‘Euro Zone’?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 17
d. 18
56. Who among the following personalities won the Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2012?
a. Liu Xiaobo
b. Mo Yan
c. Gao Xingjian
d. Mario Vargas Llosa
57. Who among the following is the President of the International Paralympics Committee?
a. Philip Craven
b. Jacques Rogge
c. John W. Mitchell
d. Stephen Kalonzo Musyoka
58. Which of the following Five-Year Plans was called the Rolling Plans?
a. Fifth Five-Year Plan
b. Sixth Five-Year Plan
c. Ninth Five-Year Plan
d. Seventh Five-Year Plan
59. 16th Non-Aligned Movement Summit was held at
a. Tehran
b. Baghdad
c. Cairo
d. Riyadh
60. ‘Liaoning’ is the first aircraft carrier of
a. China
b. Japan
c. India
d. Sri Lanka
61. Who among the following is the brand ambassador of the ‘Nirmal Bharat Yatra’?
a. Priyanka Chopra
b. Vidya Balan
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Salman Khan
62. Who is the current head of IMF?
a. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
b. Robert Zoellick
c. Christine Lagarde
d. Ban Ki-moon
63. Which of the following services has been recently launched by the Indian Railways to find out the location of 6500 trains on realtime basis on Google Map?
a. Rail Map
b. Rail Loc
c. Rail Search
d. Rail Radar
64. The California-based firm ‘Apple’ has lost a case against mobile maker HTC in the UK over the same technology. HTC belongs to
a. South Korea
b. China
c. Germany
d. Taiwan
65. Who won Women’s Singles Family Circle Cup in 2013?
a. Maria Sharapova
b. Jelena Jankovic
c. Serena Williams
d. Jelena Vesnina
66. Who won the 12th Asian Billiards Championship in Indore?
a. Alok Kumar
b. Rupesh Shah
c. Ashok Shandilya
d. Devendra Joshi
67. The Chairman of the Expert Committee on GAAR (General Anti Avoidance Rules) is
a. Y.V. Reddy
b. Sri Kumar Banerjee
c. Parthasarathi Shome
d. Vayalar Ravi
68. ‘Aam Admi Bima Yojana^ is an insurance scheme for rural landless households introduced by
a. National Insurance Co.
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. NABARD
d. Rural Insurance Co.
69. Dans le Harem de Kadhafl is a book written by
a. Annick Cojean
b. Larry Ellison
c. Jeff Bezos
d. Lewis Hamilton
70. Where would you find the headquarters of Food & Agriculture Organization (FAO)?
a. London
b. Berlin
c. Rome
d. New York
71. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a. Fermentation process occurs in presence of enzymes
b. Fermentation process occurs in presence of oxygen
c. Decomposition of organic compound occurs in fermentation process
d. Carbon dioxide gas is produced in fermentation process
72. From the visible light, chlorophyll can absorb which color combination maximum?
a. Green-yellow
b. Yellow-purple
c. Red-orange
d. Green-purple
73. Which of the following is an omnivorous animal?
a. Rabbit
b. Tiger
c. Deer
d. Rat
74. The digested food is absorbed by the wall of
a. buccal cavity
b. stomach
c. rectum
d. ileum
75. Which accessory digestive gland is present in human being?
a. Buccal cavity
b. Stomach
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
76. Which reaction occurs during photophosphorylation?
a. Synthesis of ATP from ADP
b. Synthesis of ADP from ATP
c. Synthesis of NADPH2 from NADP
d. Synthesis of NADP from NADPH2
77. Which rays strikes on the earth due to depletion of ozone layer?
a. Ultraviolet
b. Infrared
c. Visible light
d. UV and infrared
78. The length of one helix in DNA is
a. 14 A
b. 24 A
c. 34 A
d. 44 A
79. The average size of a human gene is
a. 1000 bp
b. 40000 bp
c. 2106 bp
d. 1510 bp
80. Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of strict vegetarians?
a. Amylose
b. Lactose
c. Cellulose
d. Maltose
81. What will be the measure of refractive angle when incident angle becomes critical angle?
a. smaller than 90°
b. 90°
c. greater than 90°
d. 180°
82. Velocity of light in vacuum is ms*
a. 3 x 106
b. 3 x 108
c. 3 x 10’°
d. 3 x 1015
83. Which color is deviated maximum in the spectrum obtained from a prism?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Violet
d. Blue
84. The unit of electric potential is
a. volt
b. joule
c. watt
d. ampere
85. The magnetic field is maximum in solenoid
a. at the end
b. on the axis
c. at the infinite distance
d. none of the above
86. Which form is considered as an optional source of energy?
a. Geothermal energy
b. Natural gas
c. Hydrogen
d. Petroleum
87. Which State of India uses geothermal energy?
a. Gujarat
b. Rajasthan
c. Maharashtra
d. Madhya Pradesh
88. Which energy source is not connected to the sun?
a. Hydel energy
b. Petroleum
c. Nuclear energy
d. Biogas
89. Due to which process, stars are self- luminous?
a. Chemical reaction
b. Nuclear fission
c. Radiation
d. Nuclear fusion
90. Which system is employed for manufacture of NH3 by Haber’s process?
a. Open system
b. Closed system
c. Isolated system
d. None of the above
91. When does the fate of reaction increases?
a. On increasing the pressure of the system
b. On decreasing the pressure of the system
c. On decreasing the temperature of the system
d. When the collision between reactant molecules decreases
92. What is brine?
a. Cold solution of concentrated NaCl
b. Concentrated NH3 solution
c. Aqueous solution with carbonate
d. Aqueous solution of NH4C1
93. Which substance is used as a fire extinguisher?
a. NaCl
b. Na2SO3
c. NaNO3
d. NaHCO3
94. _____ is called dead burnt plaster.
a. Anhydrous calcium sulphate
b. Hydrous calcium sulphate
c. Anhydrous sodium carbonate
d. Hydrous sodium carbonate
95. Which type of glass is used for the preparation of laborartory glass?
a. Optical glass
b. Pyrex glass
c. Sodium glass
d. Safety glass
96. Which elements are present in stainless steel?
a. Iron and nickel
b. Iron, chromium and nickel
c. Iron and chromium
d. Iron, nickel and manganese
97. Which compound of the following is not an oxidizing agent?
a. NaBH,
b. KMnOd
c. CrO3
d. Fehling solution
98. Which metal is obtained in liquid state?
a. Sodium
b. Galium
c. Tin
d. Uranium
99. Which is the less reactive metal?
a. Magnesium
b. Potassium
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
100. Which is the less reactive metal?
a. Magnesium
b. Potassium
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
PART II
LAW
101. A music teacher committing sexual intercourse with a minor girl having obtained her consent on the pretext that the same is required to improve her voice, was held guilty of rape in
a. R v. Cathrine
b. Ashby v. White
c. Dounghe v. Stevension
d. R v. Williams
102. The doctrine of vicarious liabilities is applied when there is relationship between
a. principal and agent
b. servant and independent contractor
c. master and servant
d. All of the above
103. or the tort of 'false imprisonment’, there should be
a. total restraint on the liberty of a person
b. partial restraint on the liberty of a person
c. means of escape
d. All of the above
104. Tort of defamation is divided into libel and slander in
a. English Law only
b. Indian Law only
c. both Indian Law and English Law
d. None of the above
105. ’Nuisance’ as a tort was defined as "unlawful interference with a person's use or en oyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it” by
a. Winfield
b. Salmond
c. Pollock
d. Underhill
106. Tort of defamation can be in respect of a
a. living person only
b. deceased person
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Either (A) or (B)
107. Which one of the following can be described as malicious prosecution?
a. Criminal Proceeding
b. Money Recovery Proceeding
c. Bankruptcy Proceeding
d. Liquidation Proceeding
108. The liability for malicious prosecution arises when the proceedings are instituted before
a. judicial authority
b. executive authority
c. quasi-judicial authority
d. Both (A) and (C)
109. The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme Court in
a. Jasbir Kaur v. State of Punjab
b. Alka v. Union of India
c. Asha Ram v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi
d. Muncipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti
110. The maxim res ipsa loquitur is a
a. rule of law
b. rule of procedure
c. rule of evidence
d. rule of negligence
111. Case of Kasturilal v. State of UP is related to
a. fraud of State
b. contractual liability of State
c. vicarious liability of State
d. None of the above
112. 'Goods' within the meaning of Section 2 of the Sale of Goods Act is
a. actionable claim
b. money
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Neither (A) nor (B)
113. Under Section 2(6) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930,' Future Goods' mean
a. goods which are not yet in existence
b. unascertained goods
c. ascertained goods
d. specific goods
114. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into force on
a. 1st July, 1930
b. 1st December, 1930
c. 1st April, 1930
d. 31st January, 1931
115. The meaning of the term 'caveat emptor' is
a. goods should be free from defect
b. ownership of goods passes after sale
c. let the buyer be aware
d. none of the above
116. Which of the following are goods within the meaning of Section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
a. Things attached to land which are agreed to be severed before sale
b. Things forming part of the land agreed to be severed before sale.
c. Either (A) or (B)
d. Neither (A) nor (B)
117. The mode of determining the existence of partnership has been laid down in
a. Sections
b. Sections
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
118. If a partner chooses to use any assets of the partnership firm for his own purpose, it gives rise to
a. civil liability of the partner
b. criminal liability of the partner
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Either (A) or (B)
119. The term 'good will' is a thing easy to describe but very difficult to define, is stated by
a. Lord Herschell
b. Lord Heldaene
c. Lord Macnaughten
d. Lord Eldon
120. Where a partner is authorised to recover dues of the partnership and spend the same for the business of the partnership, and if he does not deposit the money so collected in the bank, the partner is
a. guilty of criminal breach of trust
b. accountable civilly to the other partners
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Either (A) or (B)
121. A dormant partner is one who is
a. not interested in the business of the firm
b. not liable to outsider
c. entitled to share profits only
d. neither active nor known to outsiders
122. The term 'negotiable instrument' is defined in the Negotiable Instrument Act, under
a. Section 2(d)
b. Section 12
c. Section 13
d. Section 13A
123. Relation of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is with
a. right of holder
b. right of holder in due course
c. punishment for dishonour of cheque
d. None of the above
124. A person who receives a negotiable instrument in good faith for valuable consideration is known as
a. holder of value
b. holder
c. holder in rights
d. holder in due course
125. All cheques are bill of exchange, but all bills of exchange are not cheques
a. False
b. Partly true and partly false
c. True
d. None of the above
126. In determining reasonable time for the purpose of a negotiable instrument
a. public holidays are excluded
b. public holidays are included
c. only the holidays observed by banks are excluded
d. None of the above
127. A shareholder of a company can enter into a contract with the company' was held in the case of
a. Solomon v. Soloman
b. Daimler co. v. Continental tyre company
c. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. v. Rick L.r.
d. S.T. Corporation of India v. Commercial Tax Officer
128. Liability of directors of a public company is towards
a. shareholder of the company
b. public
c. government
d. Company Law Board
129. Which of the following is most essential for a company?
a. Memorandum of Association
b. Share Capital
c. Prospectus
d. Certificate of Incorporation
130. How many meetings of the shareholders of a company in a year is essential?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
131. How much amount out of the profits of a company can be distributed as dividend amongst its shareholders?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 5%
d. Not fixed
132. Evidence means and includes
a. only oral evidence
b. only documentary evidence
c. both oral evidence and documentary evidence
d. only such oral evidence based on documents
133. Any disputed handwriting can be proved
a. by calling a handwriting expert
b. by calling a person who is acquainted with the handwriting of the writer
c. by comparing the admitted and disputed handwriting
d. All of the above
134. Question is this, whether A was raped and murdered? The fact that she said, without making complaint, that she was raped
a. will be relevant as conduct
b. will be relevant as substantial evidence
c. will be relevant as secondary evidence
d. can be relevant under Section 32(1) or Section 157 of the Evidence Act
135. The Indian Evidence Act was drafted by
a. Lord Macaulay
b. Sir James F. Stephen
c. Huxley
d. Sir Henry Summermaine
136. Relevancy and admissibility under the Evidence Act are
a. synonymous
b. coextensive
c. neither synonymous nor coextensive
d. None of the above
137. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact
a. must be logically relevant
b. must be legally relevant
c. must be legally and logically relevant
d. must be legally and logically relevant and admissible
138. Confession of an accused is admissible against the other coaccused
a. under Section 28 of the Evidence Act
b. under Section 29 of the Evidence Act
c. under Section 30 of the Evidence Act
d. under Section 31 of the Evidence Act
139. A dying declaration to be admissible
a. must be made before a magistrate
b. must be made before a police officer
c. must be made before a doctor or a private person
d. may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person
140. The 'fact in issue' means
a. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
b. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
c. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
d. All of the above
141. Defence of alibi is governed by
a. Section 6 of the Evidence Act
b. Section 9 of the Evidence Act
c. Section 12 of the Evidence Act
d. Section 11 of the Evidence Act
142. Which of the following is a right of civil nature?
a. Right to worship in a temple
b. Right to share in offerings in a temple
c. Right to take out procession
d. All of the above
143. Principle of res judicata applies
a. between coplaintiffs
b. between codefendants
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Neither (A) nor (B)
144. Validity of a foreign judgement can be challenged under Section 13 of the CPC
a. in a civil court only
b. in a criminal court only
c. both in civil court and in criminal court
d. neither in civil court nor in criminal court
145. A dies leaving behind a son X and a married daughter Y. A suit filed by A, after his death can be continued by
a. X alone as legal representative
b. Y alone as legal representative
c. X, Y and the husband of Y as legal representative
d. X and Y both as legal representative
146. Principal of constructive res judicata is contained in
a. Explanation III of section 11
b. Explanation IV of section 11
c. Explanation VI of section 11
d. Explanation VII of section 11
147. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?
a. An arbitral award is a contract.
b. An arbitral award must be in writing and signed.
c. An arbitral award includes an interim award
d. None of the above
148. After the arbitral award is made, each party shall be delivered
a. the original award
b. a signed copy of the award
c. a photocopy of the award
d. an unsigned copy of the award
149. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right
a. by the police officer
b. by the court
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Either (A) or (B)
150. The power to direct investigation under Section 156(3) of CrPC can be exercised by
a. a Magistrate
b. a Sessions Judge
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Either (A) or (B)
151. The investigating police officer has power to summon the attendance of a person acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case under
a. Section 158 of Cr.P.C.
b. Section 159 of Cr.P.C.
c. Section 160 of Cr.P.C.
d. Section 161 of Cr.P.C.
152. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form new States, change in the area of present States, change in the territories and name of the States?
a. Articles
b. Article 11
c. Article 13
d. Article 3
153. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make law on the subject mentioned in the State List?
a. Article 245
b. Article 249
c. Article 251
d. Article 253
154. In which of the following cases the traditional concept of equity was not accepted by the Supreme Court and a new concept of equity was adopted by the Supreme Court?
a. Kedamathv. State of West Bengal
b. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali
c. Balsara v. Bombay State
d. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
155. By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Indian Constitution, Right to Education was made a Fundamental Right?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 49th Amendment
d. 86th Amendment
156. By which of the following Articles of the Constitution, constitutional safeguard has been provided to public servants
a. Article 251
b. Article 309
c. Article 311
d. Article 312
157. If the positions of President and Vice President are vacant, who among the following officiates as the President of India?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Chief Justice of India
c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. None of the above
158. "If I were asked to name any particular Article in this Constitution as the most important— an Article without which this Constitution would be a nullity, I could not refer to any other Article except this one . it is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it." Who among the following has given the above statement?
a. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
159. In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that right to trade on pavements is a Fundamental Rights?
a. Sukumar Mukherjee v. State of Bengal
b. Fertilizer Corporation Workers' Umon, Syndri v. Union of India
c. P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra
d. Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal Committee
160. By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Constitution, Chapter of Fundamental Duties have been added as Chapter IV-A in the Constitution?
a. 40th Amendment Act
b. 42nd Amendment Act
c. 45th Amendment Act
d. 49th Amendment Act
161. Which of the following is the sequence number of Ms. Patil as President of the Republic of India?
a. 10th
b. 11th
c. 12th
d. 13th
162. According to our Constitution, Rajya Sabha is
a. dissolved in two years
b. dissolved every five years
c. dissolved every six years
d. not subject to dissolution
163. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our "Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations." Who was the Judge?
a. Justice Mathew
b. Justice Krishna Iyer
c. Justice Subba Rao
d. Justice H.R. Khanna
164. In which of the following cases the supereme court held that the preamble is not a part of the constitution?
a. A.K. Gopalan’s case
b. Berubari case
c. Minerva mill’s case
d. A.k. Antony case
165. Right to life does not include Right to die was held in
a. R. Rathi Ram v. Union of India
b. State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
c. Chenna Jagdeshwar v. State of Andhra Pradesh
d. Cyan Kaur v. State of Punjab
166. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of res judicata, except
a. quo warranto
b. habeas corpus
c. certiorari
d. prohibition
167. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
a. Right to Strike
b. Right against Exploitation
c. Right to Equality
d. Right to Freedom of Religion
168. The Right to Property was dropped from the List of Fundamental Rights by the
a. 24th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. None of the above
169. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wildlife of the country are in
a. Directive Principles
b. Fundamental Duties
c. National Policy
d. both Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties
170. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years?
a. 48th
b. 57th
c. 61st
d. 63rd
171. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had
a. original jurisdiction only
b. appellate jurisdiction only
c. advisory jurisdiction only
d. original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions
172. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral?
a. Indian Council Act, 1909
b. Government of India Act, 1919
c. Government of India Act, 1935
d. Indian Independence Act, 1947
173. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?
a. Indian Council Act, 1909
b. Government of India Act,1919
c. Government of India Act, 1935
d. Indian Independence Act, 1947
174. When was Magna Carta granted in England?
a. 1832
b. 1911
c. 1949
d. 1215
175. "The British Constitution is the mother of Constitutions. The British Parliament is the mother of Parliaments."
Whose statement is the above
a. William Holdsworth
b. Herman Finer
c. Ogg
d. Munro
176. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Conventions are certain and clear.
b. Conventions are unwritten.
c. Conventions are not applied by the courts.
d. Conventions take birth by chance.
177. Which of the following is/are the main source of the British Constitution?
a. Judicial Decisions
b. Conventions
c. Commentaries
d. Common Law
178. "There are many subtle distinctions in the vernacular of the British Constitution but none more vital than the distinction between the King and the Crown. "Whose statement is the above?
a. Herman Finer
b. Munro
c. Ogg
d. Gladstone
179. The two Houses of the British Parliament are
a. Senate and House of Lords
b. House of Commons and Diet
c. House of Commons and Senate
d. House of Commons and House of Lords
180. In the constitutional history of England, veto power was lastly used by the King in
a. 1707
b. 1832
c. 1911
d. 1949
181. In England, the government is called the
a. Government of the King
b. Government of the People
c. Constitutional Government
d. Government of Parliament
182. The mother of British Cabinet is
a. Privy Council
b. House of Lords
c. House of Commons
d. Parliament
183. "Cabinet is the solar orbital around which other bodies revolve and that it is a threefold hinge that connects together for action—the King, the Lords and the Commons." Whose statement is the above?
a. Lowell
b. Marriot
c. Munro
d. Gladstone
184. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. Money Bill can be presented first in the House of Lords. ‘
b. The House of Lords cannot detain Money Bill for more than one month.
c. The Speaker of the House of Commons decides which bill is Money Bill.
d. The House of Lords is the highest court of appeal.
185. it is convention in Britain that
a. the Prime Minister can be member of the House of Lords
b. the Prime Minister will be from House of Commons
c. the Prime Minister will be the person of King's choice
d. the Prime Minister can be member of the Privy Council
186. The highest court in the British Constitution is called
a. Supreme Court
b. Privy Council
c. High Court
d. House of Lords
187. Delegatus non potest delegare means
a. a delegate can further delegate its powers
b. delegated legislation is valid
c. a delegate cannot further delegate his powers
d. None of the above
188. During the operation of martial law
a. important rights of citizens are suspended
b. Parliament is dissolved
c. Civil Government is suspended
d. None of the above
189. In Britain, who among the following make Shadow Cabinet?
a. Prime Minister
b. King
c. Leader of the Opposition Party
d. Lord Chancellor
190. In England, the doctrine of ‘ule of Law' was propounded by
a. Jenning
b. Blackstone
c. Prof. Dicey
d. Sydney Low
191. Writ of Habeas corpus means
a. to produce the body of a person illegally detained before the court
b. stop the violation of right of a man
c. respect the Human Rights of a person
d. None of the above
192. Under Hindu Law, marriage is a
a. sacrament
b. contract
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Neither (A) nor (B)
193. Law relating to marriages amongst Hindus has been codified under the
a. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
b. Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
c. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929
d. , All of the above
194. If parties to a Hindu Marriage are Sapinda’ to each other, the marriage is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. None of the above
195. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter, and widow. His property shall devolve to
a. widow only
b. sons and daughter only
c. sons only
d. sons, daughter and widow all
196. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary Property by
a. sale
b. gift
c. will
d. None of the above
197. "A person is not disqualified from succeeding to any property on the ground of any disease, defect or deformity" is provided under
a. Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
b. Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
c. Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
d. None of the above
198. Under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of divorce by mutual consent?
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 9
d. Section 13B
199. Consent theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year
a. 1956
b. 1961
c. 1976
d. 1979
200. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, who among the following is not entitled to adopt?
a. An unmarried person
b. Wife who is divorced
c. Husband with the consent of wife
d. Husband without consent of wife
201. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a female child of 13 years of age. The adoption is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. illegal
202. Which of the following is the secondary source of Muslim Law?
a. Custom
b. Ijma
c. Qiyas
d. None of the above
203. Which of the following modifies the application of Muslim Law?
a. Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
b. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
c. Shariat Act, 1937
d. All of the above
204. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law?
a. Imam Abu Hanifa
b. Imam Yusuf
c. Imam Jafar
d. Imam Ahmed
205. Which of the following is absolute incapacity for marriage?
a. Consanguinity
b. Affinity
c. Fosterage
d. All of the above
206. A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a fifth wife such a marriage shall be
a. void
b. valid
c. irregular
d. Either (A) or (B)
207. After divorce, a Muslim woman
a. can immediately marry
b. cannot remarry
c. can marry only after completion of Iddat
d. None of the above
208. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia muslim marriage
a. One sale and two females
b. Two males
c. No witness is required
d. Both (A) and (B)
209. Which of the following is the wife's right when her husband does not pay dower?
a. Refuse consummation
b. File suit for recovery of dower
c. Keep possession over dead husband's property
d. All of the above
210. Which of the following is the right of pre-emption?
a. A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant possession
b. A right to purchase property in preference to other person
c. A right to purchase property at low price
d. None of the above
211. Custody of illegitimate children belongs to
a. the mother
b. the father
c. both the mother and the father
d. either the mother or the father
212. Which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act defines 'Transfer of Property'?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section4
d. Sections
213. The T.P. Act came into force on
a. July 01,1882
b. August 01,1882
c. September 01,1882
d. October 01,1882
214. The gift of future property is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. conditionally void
215. In case of gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then
a. gift is voidable
b. gift is void
c. gift is valid
d. None of the above
216. An unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer
a. immediately on birth
b. after attaining majority
c. on attaining 21 years of age
d. in case of female after marriage
217. Which one of the following mortgages does not require writing and registration?
a. Simple mortgage
b. English mortgage
c. Usufructuary mortgage
d. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
218. The 'rule against perpetuity' is provided in the T.P. Act under
a. Section 13
b. Section 14
c. Section 15
d. Section 17
219. The principle of lis pendens embodied in Section 52 of the T.P. Act pertains to
a. bonafide purchase
b. public policy
c. auction sale
d. None of the above
220. According to Section 5 of the T.P. Act, living person includes
a. company of association of individuals
b. individual human being only
c. only important company or associations
d. None of the above
221. The term 'sale', in the Transfer of Property Act, is defined in
a. Section 53
b. Section 54
c. Section 55
d. Section 56
222. The primary source of equity is
a. custom
b. written law
c. judicial decision
d. conscience
223. English rules of equity have
a. been substantially incorporated by the Indian legislature
b. been partially incorporated by the Indian legislature
c. been wholly incorporated by the Indian legislature
d. not all been incorporated by the Indian legislature
224. In case of conflict between equity on one hand and the text of law on the other, the court shall
a. choose equity
b. choose law
c. have the discretion to choose between equity and law
d. be bound by precedents
225. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A litigant cannot seek equitable remedies as a matter of right as such remedies are at the discretion of the court.
b. A litigant can seek equitable remedies as a matter of right as such remedies are the duty of the court.
c. There is distinction between legal interest and equitable interest in India
d. Statutory provision shall apply only to legal interest and not to equitaole interest in India.
226. The concept of 'trusts' originated in
a. France
b. Germany
c. England
d. Rome
227. The person not necessary for the creation of trust is
a. the author of the trust
b. trustee
c. legal representative
d. beneficiary
228. A trust created by the will of the testator may be revoked by him at his pleasure
a. by express words
b. by acts which lead to the inference that he intended to revoke it
c. by subsequent will
d. in case of person governed by the Hindu Marriage Act by the marriage of the Testator
229. A trust is not extinguished
a. when its purpose is completely fulfilled
b. when its purpose becomes unlawful
c. when the trust being revocable is expressly revoked
d. where the trustees have transferred their interest
230. Under Section 10 of the Specific Performance Act, the specific performance cannot be granted, if
a. there is no concluded contract
b. there is a concluded contract
c. the compensation in money is not an adequate relief
d. there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damages
231. Specific performance of contract means
a. actual execution of the contract according to its stipulations
b. claim of damages or compensation for non-execution of contract
c. Either (A) or (B)
d. Neither (A) nor (B)
232. A proposal when accepted becomes
a. promise under Section 2(b)
b. agreement under Section 2(e)
c. contract under Section 2(h)
d. None of the above
233. An agreement enforceable at the instance of one party and not of the other is called
a. a valid contract
b. an illegal contract
c. a void contract
d. a voidable contract
234. A contract made by a minor is void ab initio. It was laid down in
a. Kanhiyalal v. Girdhari Lal
b. Mohammad Saeed v. Vishambhar Dayal
c. Mohri Bibi v. Dharmo Dass Ghosh
d. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
235. Agreement, the meaning of which is not certain or not capable of certainty, is
a. voidable
b. illegal
c. enforceable
d. void
236. Goods displayed in showcase of a shop with price tag is
a. offer
b. invitation to offer
c. counter offer
d. None of the above
237. An agreement in connection with horse racing under Section 30 is
a. unlawful
b. voidable
c. void
d. valid
238. An agreement to remain unmarried is
a. valid
b. void
c. voidable
d. unenforceable
239. A contract, the performance of which becomes unlawful or impossible, is
a. void when the performance becomes unlawful or impossible
b. void
c. voidable when the performance becomes unlawful or impossible
d. neither void nor voidable
240. The age of majority for the purpose of the Contract Act is
a. 18 years
b. 21 years
c. 16 years for girls and 18 years for boys
d. 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys
241. A sum fixed beforehand as amount of compensation payable in the event of breach of contract is called
a. liquidated damage
b. penalty
c. Either (A) or (B)
d. Neither (A) nor (B)
242. A agrees to pay Rs. 1,000 to B without consideration. This agreement is
a. voidable
b. void
c. not enforceable
d. not enforceable as it was unwritten
243. When the consent to the contract is caused by coercion, the contract under Section 19 is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. illegal
244. When both the parties to agreement are at mistake regarding facts, the agreement will
a. be enforceable
b. be voidable
c. not be void
d. be void
245. A agrees with B to trace out secret money for him by the way of magic. This agreement is
a. void
b. voidable
c. enforceable
d. legal and enforceable in Bengal
246. A enters into contract with B. In this, B is guilty of fraud. A can now
a. rescind the contract but cannot get compensation
b. get compensation only
c. rescind the contract and get compensation
d. None of the above
247. "Tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is common law action for unliquidated damages and which is not exclusively the breach of trust or other mere equitable obligation." Who has given the above definition of tort?
a. Winfield
b. Fraser
c. Underhill
d. Salmond
248. The duty under the law of tort is towards
a. a specific individual
b. a group of individuals
c. the world at large
d. Both (A) and (B)
249. To constitute a tort
a. there must be some act or omission on the part of the defendant
b. the act must result in violation of legal right vested in the plaintiff
c. there must be a legal duty on the part of the defendant
d. Both (A) and (B)
250. An inevitable accident means
a. an act of God
b. an unexpected injury which could not have been foreseen and avoided
c. an unexpected injury which could have been foreseen and avoided
d. Both (A) and (B)
