PUNJAB JUDICIAL SERVICE PRR EXAMINATION 2015

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1. Provision for free legal aid has been laid down in----------of the Constitution of India.

a. Article 39A

b. Article 38(2)

c. Article 26

d. Provision has not been made in the Constitution but has been developed by judicial construction.

2. Section ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides when search warrant may be issued by the Court.

a. 92

b. 93

c. 95

d. None of the above

3. A sentence of life imprisonment may be computed to imprisonment for a term not exceeding _____ years under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

a. 20

b. 10

c. 14

d. All of the above

4. Discharge of offender on submission of apology is covered under Section------of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

a. 339

b. 458

c. 388

d. 348

5. Which of the following provisions deals with the power of the Sessions Judge of revision?

a. Section 401 Cr.P.C.

b. Section 400A Cr.P.C.

c. Section 402 Cr.P.C.

d. Section 399 Cr.P.C.

6. The provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 which deals with the order of the High Court on appeal to be certified to lower court is contained in

a. Section 388

b. Section 387

c. Section 384

d. Section 391

7. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes provision for ‘notional partition’?

a. Section 6

b. Section 10

c. Section 14

d. Section 18

8. The ratio of width of our National Flag to its length is

a. 2.2

b. 2.3

c. 2.4

d. 3.4

9. The largest Indian State by area is

a. Rajasthan

b. Maharashtra

c. Uttar Pradesh

d. Madhya Pradesh

10. Who was known as Iron man of India?'.

a. Govind Ballabh Pant

b. Jawaharlal Nehru

c. Subhash Chandra Bose

d. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

11. Under Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 a document registered by law to be attested can be provided by calling

a. both the attesting witnesses

b. at least one of the attesting witnesses

c. any other persons

d. a legal heir of the attesting witness

12. Leading question can be asked as a matter of right

a. during examination-in-chief

b. during cross-examination

c. during re-examination

d. under no circumstances whatsoever

13. An inscription on a metal plate or stone

a. is a conduct

b. is an opinion

c. is a document

d. is a motive

14. X desires a Court to give judgment that B shall be punished for a crime which A says B has committed. According to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the burden of proof is on

a. A, under Section 101

b. B, under Section 103

c. A, under Section 104

d. B, under Section 108

15. ‘Conclusive proof of legitimacy’ of a child born during the valid marriage is dealt under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

a. Section 115

b. Section 114

c. Section 112

d. Section 113

16. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 uses the word ‘wantonly’ is

a. Section 272

b. Section 172

c. Section 153

d. Section 253

17. N, a landlord after repeatedly demanding and not getting the rent of his flat from the tenant H, one day locked the flat in order not to allow H to enter it, till he pays the rent to him. Which of the following offences has N committed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

a. Wrongful confinement

b. Assault

c. Criminal force

d. Wrongful restraint

18. Extinguishment of ‘right to property’ is dealt under-------- Limitation Act, 1963.

a. Section 26

b. Section 27

c. Section 28

d. Section 29

19. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the day from which such period is to be reckoned.

a. may be included

b. shall be included

c. shall be excluded

d. may be excluded

20. In computing the period of limitation for any suit the time during which the plaintiff has been prosecuting with due diligence another civil proceedings, whether in a court of first instance or of appeal or revision, against the defendant shall be excluded where the proceeding relates to the same matter in issue and is prosecuted in good faith in a court which from the defect of jurisdiction is unable to entertain it. Exclusion of such period has been laid down in section-------------- of the Limitation Act, 1963.

a. 13

b. 12

c. 15

d. 14

21. What is the period of limitation, prescribed under the Limitation Act, 1963 for a suit for specific performance from the date fixed for the performance or if no such date is fixed, when the plaintiff has notice that the performance is refused?

a. one year

b. three years

c. two years

d. six months

22. Which of the following gives the meaning of the term ‘Beneficiary’ in the Wakf (Waqf) Act 1995?

a. A person or object for whose benefit of wakf (waqf) is created but does not include religious, pious and charitable objects and any other objects of public utility sanctioned by the Muslim Law.

b. A person or object for whose benefit a Wakf (Waqf) is not created but does include religious, pious and charitable objects and any other objects of public utility sanctioned by the Muslim Law.

c. A person or object for whose benefit a Wakf is created and also include religious, pious and charitable objects and any other objects of public utility sanctioned by the Muslim Law.

d. None of the above.

23. Which Section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with the bar of the suit for compensation for breach after dismissal of suit for specific performance?

a. Section 12

b. Section 24

c. Section 15

d. Section 30

24. Which Section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that liquidation of damages is not a bar to specific performance?

a. Section 12

b. Section 15

c. Section 23

d. Section 28

25. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, where no provision is made by contract between the partners for the duration of their partnership or for the determination of their partnership, the partnership is called.

a. Partnership indefinite

b. Partnership at will

c. Unlimited partnership

d. General partnership

26. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, where a partner is entitled to interest on the capital subscribed by him, such interest is payable.

a. out of profits only

b. out of capital if no profits

c. out of capital if losses

d. none of these

27. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, where the partnership is at will, a partner way retire.

a. by giving oral notice expressing his intention

b. by giving written notice expressing his intention

c. without any notice

d. none of the above

28. 28. Assess the truth or falsity of the following statements by picking the right option under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.

Statement I: Consent of all existing partner^ is generally required for introduction of a new partner into a firm.

Statement II: A partner may retire with the consent of all other partners in the firm.

a. Only Statement I is true

b. Only Statement II is true

c. Only I and II are true

d. Both I and II are false

29. Z and W are partners in a stationery business. Z orders on the firm’s letter head to supply two bags of wheat at his residence. What will be the liability of the firm under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

a. The firm is not liable to pay the debt

b. The firm is liable to pay the debt

c. The firm is liable only for half of the debt

d. None of the above

30. Credit for securing the highest World Cup score in Cricket in 2015 goes to

a. Glen Turner

b. Chris Gayle

c. Martin Guptil

d. Daniel Vettori

31. Teachers’ day in India is observed on

a. Septembers

b. January 30

c. November 14

d. October 2

32. The minimum age of qualify for election to Lok Sabha is

a. 35 years

b. 25 years

c. 21 years

d. 18 years

33. A suit under Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, can be filed bn the basis of

a. Hundi only

b. Bill of exchange only

c. Promissory note only

d. D) All of the above

34. The Preamble of Constitution of India includes all the following except.

a. Equality of status

b. Adult Franchise

c. Fratemit

d. Justice

35. ‘A’ wishes to prove a dying declaration by ‘B’, ‘A’ must prove ‘B’s death. Which'SectiOn of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for such eventuality?

a. Section 32(1)

b. Section 104

c. Section 32(2)

d. Section 105

36. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, ' 1872 relates to presumption as to ‘dowry death’?

a. Section 113A

b. Section 113B

c. Section 114A

d. Section 114

37. Under which explanation of Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Constructive Res Judicata has been explained?

a. Explanation-I

b. Explanation-II

c. Explanation-Ill

d. Explanation-IV

38. Which provision specifically enables the court to pronounce judgment in case the defendant fails to file written statement or subsequent pleadings?

a. Order X, Rule 8 CPC

b. Order VIII, Rule 10 CPC

c. Order XVm, Rule 8 CPC

d. Order XVIII, Rule 10 CPC

39. Provisions for suits by indigent persons are contained in------------of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.

a. Order XXX

b. Order XXXI

c. Order XXXII

d. Order XXXHI

40. What is the maximum amount of compensatory costs that can be awarded under Section 35A(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

a. Rs. 1000

b. Rs. 2000

c. Rs. 3000

d. Rs. 4000

41. Provisions relating to set-off and counterclaims are contained in which of the following order to the code of Civil Procedure, 1908? .

a. Order VI

b. Order VII

c. Order VIII

d. Order IX

42. What is the purpose of Section 144A of the. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

a. It seeks to enable the District Magistrate to prohibit any mass drill or mass training with arms in any public place.

b. It seeks to enable the Chief Secretary to prohibit any mass drill or mass training with arms in any public place.

c. It seeks to enable the Judicial Magistrate to prohibit any mass drill or mass training with arms in any public place.

d. It seeks to enable the State Government to prohibit mass drill or mass training with arms in any public place.

43. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for free legal aid?

a. Section 302

b. Section 303

c. Section 304

d. Section 305

44. The ‘Betting in Cricket’ is being probed by which one of the following?

a. Justice A.P. Shah

b. Justice Mukul Mudgal

c. Justice Vijender Jain

d. Justice S.S. Sbdhi

45. Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji was killed in 1708 at

a. Amritsar

b. Kiratpur Sahib

c. Nanded

d. Sri Anandpur Sahib

46. The current sanctioned strength of the Judges (including the Chief Justice) of the Supreme Court of India is

a. 25

b. 27

c. 29

d. 31

47. In which case did the Supreme Court of India propound the doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution of India?

a. Golak Nath Case

b. Kesavananda Bharati case

c. T.M.A. Pai Case

d. I.R. Coelho Case

48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?

a. Right against exploitation

b. Right to Constitutional Remedies

c. Right to Property

d. Cultural and Educational Rights

49. Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India?

a. Governor of the State

b. Chief Justice of the High Court

c. Vice President

d. Judge of the Supreme Court of India

50. Procedure for impeachment of the President has been provided under Article of--------the Constitution of India.

a. 56

b. 60

c. 61

d. 63

51. In a contract of guarantee under Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person for whom the guarantee is given is called

a. Surety

b. Principal Debtor

c. Creditor

d. None of the above

52. The principle on which a dying declaration is admissible under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is indicated in the legal maxim.

a. Actori incumbit onus probandi

b. Nemomoriturusproesumiturmentiri

c. Dormiunt leges aliquando, munquam moriuntur

d. Fatetur facinus qui judicium fugit

53. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with evidence as to affairs of State?

a. Section 123

b. Section 121

c. Section 120

d. Section 122

54. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is expressly excluded by the proviso to Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

a. Section 354

b. Section 354A

c. Section 498A

d. Section 497

55. In which year, terrorists crash two planes into New York’s World Trade Centre on September Ilina sequence of destruction?

a. 1999

b. 2000

c. 2001

d. 2002

56. The Judges of the State High Court are appointed by

a. Governor of the State

b. President of India

c. Chief Justice of India

d. Chief Justice of the State High Court

57. Which of the following is the true meaning of the term Legal Representative under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908?

a. A person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person

b. Any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party sues in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of a party so suing.

c. Any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party is sued in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of a party so sued.

d. All of the above

58. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 requires the minimum period of years of _______ desertion for filing a petition for divorce immediately preceding the presentation of the petition.

a. Three

b. Five

c. Two

d. Seven

59. The special grounds of divorce that are available to the wife only are given under Section _____ of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

a. 13(1)

b. 13(2)

c. 13(1A)

d. 13A

60. The provision for maintenance pendente lite has been made under Section--------------of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

a. 23

b. 24

c. 25

d. 26

61. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 deals with the making of rules regarding registration of Hindu Marriages?

a. Section6

b. Section?

c. Sections

d. Section9

62. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 deals with punishment for bigamy?

a. Section 14

b. Section 15

c. Section 16

d. Section 17

63. Absolute restriction on the transfer of property is void under Section----------of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

a. 10

b. 11

c. 12

d. 13

64. Doctrine of lis pendens is dealt under Section ----------of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

a. 51

b. 52

c. 53

d. 43

65. A suit to obtain a decree that a mortgage or shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called a suit for --------under the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882.

a. Redemption

b. Actionable claim

c. Foreclosure

d. Marshalling

66. The custody of a child under the age of ______ years ordinarily lies with mother under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956.

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

67. A, for the purpose of inducing B to desist from prosecuting a civil suit threatens to burn B’s house. A is guilty of--------------under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

a. Assault

b. Criminal trespass

c. Attempt to commit house-breaking

d. Criminal intimidation

68. Joining unlawful assembly armed with deadly weapons has been dealt with under-------of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

a. Section 141

b. Section 142

c. Section 143

d. Section 144

69. Assault or criminal force with Intent to outrage the modesty of women is dealt under----------- of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

a. Section 363

b. Section 509

c. Section 354

d. Section 511

70. A police officer tortures a person to force him to confess the commission of crime. He shall be guilty under-------of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

a. Section 325

b. Section 326

c. Section 330

d. Section 328

71. Fundamental ‘Right to Education’ was introduced in the Constitution of India by

a. 24th Amendment Act

b. 25th Amendment Act

c. 86th Amendment Act

d. 89th Amendment Act

72. The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate inscribed below the emblem of India is taken from.

a. Rigveda

b. Ramayana

c. Mahabharata

d. Mundaka Upanishad

73. S1, S2 and S3 are sureties to C for the sum of Rs. 12000/- lent to P and there is a contract between SI, S2 and S3 that the first surety is to be responsible to the extent of one fourth, the second surety to the extent of one fourth and the third surety to the extent of one half. P makes default in the payment. As between the co-sureties SI: S2 : S3, the amount payable as per Indian Contract Act, 1872, is

a. 4000 : 4000 : 4000

b. 3500:3500:5000

c. 3000 : 3000 : 6000

d. 6000 : 6000 : nil

74. A revokes his proposal made to B by telegram. Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the revocation is complete as against A when the telegram is

a. Received by B

b. Despatched by A

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. None of the above

75. A damaged the car of B at Chandigarh. A lives in New Delhi and B lives in Amritsar. B can sue A for compensation in which of the following city/cities:

a. Amritsar

b. New Delhi

c. Either (A) &(B)

d. None of the above

76. Caveat under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 shall not remain in force after the expiry of

a. 30 days

b. 90 days

c. 60 days

d. 15 days

77. Objection as to place of suing shall be taken in the Court of first instance, is the essence of Section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

a. 21A

b. 20

c. 22

d. 21

78. Section-------of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 makes provision for appointment of Special Judges and Benches.

a. 28

b. 12

c. 29

d. None of the above

79. The Registration Act, 1908 came into force on

a. 30th September, 1908

b. 31st December, 1908

c. 1st January, 1909

d. 1st April, 1909

80. A Magistrate, under Section 259 of the code of Criminal Procedufb,'1973 has the power to convert summons cases to warrant-cases relating to offence punishable for a term exceeding:

a. Six months

b. Three months

c. One year

d. Nine months

81. Judicial confession can be recorded by following the procedure prescribed in----------of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

a. Section 164

b. Section 364

c. Both the Sections

d. None of these

82. In the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provisions for jurisdiction in case of juveniles have been made under Section------

a. 25

b. 26

c. 52

d. 27

83. Arrest of persons is covered under Chapter------of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

a. IV

b. V

c. vi

d. III

84. As per the provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 where fine is the only punishment, what is the maximum period of imprisonment for non-payment of fine when the maximum amount of fine imposed is of Rs. 100?

a. 2 months

b. 4 months

c. 6 months

d. 1 year

85. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines forgery?

a. Section 463

b. Section 464

c. Section 468

d. Section 470

86. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 was unconstitutional?

a. Sher Singh v. State of Punjab

b. Mithu v. State of Punjab

c. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

d. Triveni Ben v. State of Gujarat

87. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 deals with the ‘withdrawal of complaint’?

a. Section 223

b. Section 254

c. Section 257

d. Section 259

88. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1978 deals with the period of detention undergone by the sentence of imprisonment?

a. Section 425

b. Section 426

c. Section 427

d. Section 428

89. Guidelines for mutual satisfactory disposition are covered under Section -----------of the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

a. 265C

b. 265D

c. 265E

d. 265H

90. The President’s power to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament is contained in Article ------of the
Constitution of India.

a. 119

b. 120

c. 123

d. None of the above

91. Consensus ad idem un der a contract means:

a. Common intentic

b. Meeting of minds

c. Theme of contract

d. None of the above

92. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of other or others, is a

a. Valid contract

b. Unenforceable contract

c. Voidable contract

d. Void agreement

93. Undue influence has been defined under Section------------of the Indian Contract Act,
1872.

a. 16

b. 23

c. 15

d. None of the above

94. The provisions of which Section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deal with presumption in cases of simultaneous deaths?

a. Section 23

b. Section 22

c. Section 21

d. Section 20

95. Vasanth dies intestate leaving behind his brother’s son, and son & daughter of his sister. What will be the share of daughter of his sister as per the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

a. 1/2 of the property

b. 1/3 of the property

c. 14 of the property

d. 1/6 of the property

96. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 a petition for divorce is presented before the

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court

c. District Court

d. District and the High Court

97. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 husband and wife are allowed to divorce by mutual consent?

a. Section 13A

b. Section 13B

c. Section 14

d. Section 9

98. Which one of the following Sections of the Sale of Goods Act 1930 deals with the doctrine of caveat emptor?

a. Section 15

b. Section 16

c. Section 17

d. Section 18

99. The general principles on which the perpetual injunctions could be granted are contained in of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.

a. Section37

b. Section 38

c. Section 39

d. Section 40

100. Which Section provides for a special remedy of possession by way of a summary procedure for a person disposed of immovable property without consent and otherwise in due course of law.

a. Section 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

b. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963

c. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963

d. All of the above

101. Rule against perpetuity is laid down under Section ______ of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

a. 13

b. 14

c. 15

d. 16

102. In case, the donee dies before acceptance of the gift, the said gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is

a. Valid

b. Heritable

c. Void

d. Voidable

103. Section 17 of the Registration Act, 1908 provides for

a. document which are not at all registerable

b. documents which are the compulsorily registerable

c. documents the registration of which is optional

d. both(A)&(C)

104. Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908 provides the time for presentation of document for registration from the date of execution before the proper officer as

a. four months

b. two months

c. three months

d. six months

105. ‘Future goods’ has been denied, in thp Sale of Goods Act, 1930, under

a. Section 2(5)

b. Section 2(6)

c. Section 2(7)

d. Section 2(8)

106. Under Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, during the pendency of suit in a foreign court, Indian Courts-----------trying a suit founded on the same cause of action

a. are precluded from

b. are not precluded from

c. do not have the jurisdiction of

d. none of the above

107. Inherent powers of the court to meet the ends of justice have been saved under Section ---------of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

a. 149

b. 150

c. 151

d. None of the above

108. Under Section 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, any person considering himself aggrieved by a decree or order may apply for-------------

a. Review

b. Revision

c. Reference

d. None of the above

109. Hearing of the suit and examination of witnesses is covered under Order-------------of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

a. XVIII

b. XX

c. XVI

d. None of the above

110. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 deals with appeal from original decree?

a. Section 90

b. Section 96

c. Section 82

d. Section 98

111. Where in a judicial proceeding the handwriting of a teacher is in question, the opinion of his or her student shall be relevant under _______ of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

a. Section 45

b. Section 47

c. Section 46

d. None of the above

112. The maxim allegans contraria non est audiendus means:

a. A person alleging contrary facts should ' not be heard

b. Allegation of contradictory statements should not be made before an audience

c. A promise which is contrary to law is not acceptable as an admission

d. None of the above

113. Presumption as to genuineness of certified copies of documents is stated in Section ____ of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

a. 77

b. 78

c. 79

d. 80

114. A man by deceit caused a woman, not lawfully married to him, to believe that she is lawfully married to him and to cohabit with him In that behalf, is dealt under Section-----of the Indian Penal Code, 1960.

a. 497

b. 495

c. 494

d. 493

115. Penalty for non-appearance in a case where a declaration has been made under Section 82(4) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 pronouncing a person as a proclaimed offender is provided under

a. Section 175A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. Section 174A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

c. Section 173A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

d. Section 172A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

116. If the money suit is filed within three years from the date on which cause of action arises then the suit

a. is not governed by the Limitation Act, . 1963

b. is not barred by Limitation

c. is barred by Limitation

d. none of the above

117. In computing the period of limitation for application to set aside an award, the time requisite in obtaining a copy of the award shall be excluded tinder---------of the Limitation Act, 1963

a. Section 12(1)

b. Section 12(2)

c. Section 12(3)

d. Section 12(4)

118. Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the easement rights over the property belonging to the Government are acquired by continuous and uninterrupted use for

a. 12 years

b. 20 years

c. 50 years

d. 60 years

119. Under Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament for the Union consists of

a. The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

b. The Council of States and the House of People

c. President, the Council of States and the House of People

d. President and the Lok Sabha

120. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which one of the following is not a class I heir?

a. Mother

b. Father

c. son

d. Daughter of a predeceased son

121. The maxim ‘nemo dat quad non habet” means—

a. No man can be judge in his cause

b. Necessity makes that lawful which otherwise in unlawful

c. Nobody can pass better title than he himself if has

d. None of the above

122. Which of the following statements is correct? A court may on the application of the Decree Holder, order execution of the decree under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908—

a. by attachment and/or sale of any property of the Judgment Debtor

b. by delivery'of any property specifically decreed

c. by appointing a receiver

d. All of the above

123. The present Attorney General of India is:

a. G.E. Vahanwati

b. Mukul Rohtagi

c. Bhushan Jain

d. N. Gopalaswami

124. What is the quorum under Article 100 of the Constitution of India to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament?

a. One-tenth of the total members of the House

b. One-fifth of the total members of the House