1.       A dual economy means

I. the exercise of black money and white money
II. the exercise of agriculture and industry
III, the existence of commercial agriculture with subsistence farming

IV. modern industry and commercial agriculture co-existing with subsistence farming and traditional handicraft

a.       I only

b.       II only

c.       III only

d.       II, III and IV

 

2.       The term ‘epicentre’ is concerned with

a.       Nuclear explosion

b.       Earthquakes

c.       Cyclonic storms

d.       None of the above

 

3.       Which one is not a port on the east cost?

a.       Kolkata

b.       Paradip

c.       Kochi

d.       Vishakhapatnam

 

4.       The Indian Military Academy is located at

a.       Dehradun

b.       Mt. Abu

c.       Hyderabad

d.       Udhampur

 

5.       Which is the National Flower of India?

a.       Sunflower

b.       Rose

c.       Lotus

d.       Marigold

 

6.       What is ‘Watergate’?

a.       A gate of dam across missippi

b.       A dam across Hudson river

c.       Scandal in which President Nixon got entangled

d.       4 five star hotel in Los Angeles

 

7.       Shakuntala was written by

a.       Maithili Sharan Gupt

b.       Swami Dayanand

c.       Kalidas

d.       Tulsidas

 

8.       GIR National Park is in

a.       Rajasthan

b.       Maharashtra

c.       Gujarat

d.       Assam

 

9.       The H.O. of the International Court of Justice is at

a.       The Hague

b.       Geneva

c.       Rome

d.       Vienna

 

10.   Which of the following countries does not have the power of Veto in Security Council?

a.       UK

b.       Canada

c.       USA

d.       France

 

11.   Which athlete holding an Olympic record, belonging to a Commonwealth country, refused participation in CWG Games 2010 (Delhi) and apologized for same:

a.       Sebastian Coe

b.       P.T. Usha

c.       Both

d.       Jeev Milkha Singh

 

12.   Who has recently been re-elected as the new President of Germany?

a.       Angela Merkel

b.       Horst Koehler

c.       Helmut Kohi

d.       None of the above

 

13.   Indira Gandhi Prize for peace, Disarmament and Development for 2007 has been conferred on July 25, 2009 to

a.       Bill Gates

b.       Jacob Zuma

c.       Asma Jahangir

d.       None of the above

 

14.   What is the expanded form of AW ACS?

a.       Airport Works' and Customer Service

b.       Airbone Warning and Control Systems

c.       Agricultural Wealth and Consumer Statistics

d.       Ammunition Warehousing and Costing Symantics

 

15.   Recently India’s celebrated artist M.F. Hussain has got the nationality of

a.       Saudi Arabia

b.       Qatar

c.       Yemen

d.       Oman

 

16.   Where in world was the world tallest skyscraper, towering 818 meters, opened in January, 2010?

a.       Oman

b.       Bahrain

c.       Dubai

d.       Seoul

 

17.   Which of the following teams clashed in the Semi-finals in the Soccer World Cup, 2010?

a.       Germany and Holland

b.       Spain and Holland

c.       Spain and Germany

d.       Uruguay and Holland

 

18.   Name the Prime Minister of U.K. who recently visited India

a.       Gordon Brown

b.       Tony Blair

c.       David Cameroon

d.       Ed ward Heath

 

19.   A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after

a.       it is passed' by both Houses

b.       the President has given his, assent

c.       the Prime Minister has signed it

d.       it is so declared by the Supreme court

 

20.   Dissolution of the House means that the life of the House has ended and a fresh House has to be constituted. Which one of the following House in India cannot be dissolved?

a.       Lok Sabha

b.       Rajya Sabha

c.       Both (A) and (B)

d.       None of the above

 

21.   Dyarchy as a form of government at the provincial level was introduced by the

a.       Government of India Act, 1919

b.       Minto-Morley Reforms

c.       Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

d.       Government of India Act, 1935

 

22.   Economic justice as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in the

a.       Preamble and Fundamental Rights

b.       Preamble and Directive Principles

c.       Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

d.       Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

 

23.   The President of India can declare Emergency if there is

a.       war or threat of war

b.       failure of Constitutional machinery

c.       financial instability

d.       All of the above

 

24.   The Prime Minister is responsible to the

a.       Council of Ministers

b.       President

c.       Rajya Sabha

d.       Lok Sabha

 

25.   Which Article of the Constitution provide the  Parliament the power to amend the Constitution?

a.       370

b.       368

c.       390

d.       376

 

26.   The first draft of the Constitution was published in

a.       November, 1947

b.       January, 1948

c.       February, 1948

d.       November, 1948

 

27.   The used to be a Fundamental Right but is now a legal right only

a.       Cultural and Educational Rights

b.       Rights to Property

c.       Right against Exploitation

d.       Right to Religious Freedom

 

28.   In the recent proposed amendment in Cr.P.C. the police may arrest a person

a.       after obtaining written orders from Magistrate

b.       without orders of magistrate

c.       after obtaining orders⁷ from Deputy Commissioner

d.       after giving reasons in writing

 

29.   After completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to the Magistrate, The Magistrate

a.       is bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and accept the same if the police recommended that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding further

b.       is not bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and may order further investigation

c.       may issue a process against the accused person(s)

d.       both(B)&(C)

 

30.   Addition or alteration of charge has been provided

a.       under Section 214 of Cr.P.C.

b.       under Section 215 of Cr.P.C.

c.       under Section 216 of Cr.P.C.

d.       under Section 218 of Cr.P.C.

 

31.   An act which would otherwise be crime may in some cases be excused if the person accused of it shows that all except

a.       it was done only in order to avoid consequences

b.       nothing was done than was reasonably necessary

c.           the evil inflicted was not   disproportionate to the evil avoided

d.       none of the above

 

32.   Cognizance of offence under Section 498A of IPC can be taken by a Court

a.       on a police report

b.       on the complaint of the person aggrieved

c.       on the complaint of father/mother of the person aggrieved

d.       all the above

 

33.   During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by

a.       any police officer

b.       the investigating officer

c.       both(A)&(B)

d.       either (A) or (B)

 

34.   Error or omission in framing of charge

a.       is material in all circumstances shall vitiate the trial

b.       is material only if it has occasioned a failure of justice to the accused

c.       is material and the accused is liable to be acquitted

d.       both(A)&(C)

 

35.   In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right

a.       by the police officer

b.       by the court

c.       both by the police officer & the court

d.       neither (a) nor (b)

 

36.   In a summons case, instituted, on a complaint, the accused having been summoned is liable to be acquired under Section 256 of Cr.P.C,

a.       on account of death of the complainant

b.       on account of non-appearance of the complainant

c.       both(A)&(B)

d.       neither (A) nor (B)

 

37.   Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per Section 468 of Cr.P.C. is

a.       six months

b.       one year

c.       two years

d.       three years

 

38.   If the investigation is not completed within 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, and the accused is in custody, on the expiry of said period the accused is entitled to be

a.       discharged

b.       released on bail on making an application for release on bail

c.       released on bail without making an application for release on bail

d.       acquitted

 

39.   A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of

a.       45 days

b.       15 days

c.       90 days

d.       60 days

 

40.   A decision is a suit may operate as res-judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the suit by virtue of explanation

a.       III to Section 11 of CPC

b.       V to Section 11 of CPC

c.       VI to Section 11 of CPC

d.       IV to Section 11 of CPC

 

41.   A fresh suit on the same cause of action is not barred when

a.       rejected under Order VH, Rule 11 of CPC

b.       dismissed under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC

c.       dismissed under Order IX, Rule 3 of CPC

d.       either (A) or (B) or (C)

 

42.   A judgment can be reviewed on the ground of

a.       discovery of new & important evidence, not within the knowledge of the party concerned

b.       mistake of error of fact or law on the face of the record

c.       both(A)&(B)

d.       none of the above

 

43.   A person is an indigent person within the meaning of Order 33, Rule 1 of CPC, if he is not possessed of

a.       sufficient means to pay the fee payable

b.       any means to pay the fee payable on the plaint

c.       sufficient means for his livelihood

d.       none of the above

 

44.   An ex-parte decree can be set aside on the ground of

a.       summons not duly served on the plaint

b.       being prevented by any sufficient cause from appearance

c.       only (A) is correct

d.       both (A) and (B)

 

45.   Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, orders etc. can be corrected under

a.       Section 152 of CPC

b.       Section 154 of CPC

c.       Section 155 of CPC

d.       Section 153 of CPC

 

46.   On account of mis-joinder or non-joinder of under Order I, Rule 9 of CPC, the suit

a.       is liable to be dismissed

b.       cannot be dismissed

c.       may be dismissed or may not be dismissed as per the discretion of the court

d.       none of the above

 

47.   Order II, Rule 2 of CPC does not apply to

a.       application for execution

b.       writ petitions

c.       both (A) and (B)

d.       none of the above

 

48.   Application for execution of a decree is to be made

a.       to the court which passed the decree

b.       to the district court

c.       . to the High Court

d.       none of the above

 

49.   Goods are said to be in a ‘deliverable state’ where

a.       they are in good condition

b.       they are in reasonable condition

c.       they have been delivered on time

d.       the buyer is bound to take their delivery under contract

 

50.   A contract of sale of goods can be

a.       conditional

b.       absolute

c.       temporary i

d.       either (A) or (B)

 

51.   A disputed handwriting can be proved

a.       by calling an expert

b.       by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

c.       by comparison of the two-admitted and disputed documents

d.       all of the above

 

52.   Who was the first Indian Woman to be crowned Miss Universe?

a.       Rita Faria

b.       Zeenat Aman

c.       Sushmita Sen

d.       Aishwarya Rai

 

53.   A dying declaration to be admissible

a.       must be made before a Magistrate

b.       must be made before the police officer

c.       may be made before a doctor or a private person

d.       may be made either before a Magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person

 

54.   A will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness

a.       when it is registered

b.       when it is unregistered

c.       when it is admitted

d.       all of the above

 

55.   After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party fids a

a.       right to further cross-examine the witness afresh in general

b.       has no right to further cross-examine the witness

c.       right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new fact is introduced in the re-examination

d.       either (A) or (B)

 

56.   In criminal trials, the onus is on the accused to prove that his case falls in

a.       any of the general exception

b.       any of the special exception

c.       any of the proviso to any provision

d.       all of the above'

 

57.   Indian Evidence Act was drafted by

a.       Lord Macaulay

b.       Sir James F. Stephen

c.       Huxley

d.       Sir Henry Summer Maine

 

58.   Leading questions can be asked during

a.       examination-in-chief

b.       cross examination

c.       re-exammation

d.       all of the above

 

59.   The name of the Union given in the Constitution is

a.       Hindustan or Bharatavarsha

b.       India or Hindustan

c.       India or Bharat

d.       Bharatadesh or India

 

60.   Oral evidence is not admissible to clarify the language used in a document when the language is

a.       ambiguous or defective on its face

b.       plain but not applying to the facts

c.       plain but applying to two sets of facts

d.       related with terms of regional nature

 

61.   What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justices) in the Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution of India?

a.       20

b.       24

c.       31

d.       28

 

62.   Presumption under Section 112 of the Evidence Act is raised

a.       when a child is born during the continuance of valid marriage

b.       when a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried

c.       in both (A) & (B)

d.       neither (A) nor (B)

 

63.   Secondary evidence of a document means

a.       copies of that document

b.       oral account of the contents of the documents

c.       both (A) & (B)

d.       neither (A) nor (B)

 

64.   Muslim Marriage is a

a.       Contract

b.       Sacrament

c.       Living together at will

d.       Both a contract and a sacrament

 

65.   The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends to

a.       the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir

b.       Buddhists and Jains

c.       those who are not Muslims, Christians, Parsis and Jews by religion

d.       all

 

66.   Under Hindu Law the ground for divorce is

a.       Insanity

b.       Cruelty

c.       Adultery

d.       All of these

 

67.   Who is the Union Law Minister of India?

a.       H.R Bhardwaj

b.       Kapil Sibal

c.       Veerappa Moily

d.       P.Chidambram

 

68.   The Supreme Court in a significant judgment held that the Guru Granth Sahib is

a.       A juristic person

b.       The holiest of the holy books

c.       To be equated with the model

d.       Not a juristic person

 

69.   Which of the following soccer player is associated with the term ‘Hand of God’

a.       Pele

b.       Maradona

c.       Rooney

d.       Ronaldo

 

70.   The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath  conducted by 

a.       Chief Justice of India

b.       President of Vice-President

c.       President or some person appointed by him

d.       None

 

71.   What is the minimum age required for voting in India?

a.       16 years

b.       18 years

c.       21 years

d.       25 years

 

72.   Sarkaria Commission was set up to

a.       inquiring into Babri Masjid Demolition case

b.       review the Constitution

c.       review the Centre-State relations

d.       to investigate 1984 and Sikh riots

 

73.   Standard of proof in

a.       civil and criminal cases is the same

b.       criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases

c.       criminal case is lower than in civil cases

d.       none of the above

 

74.   The doctrine of estoppel is a

a.       substantive law

b.       rule of equity

c.       rule of evidence

d.       law of pleadings

 

75.   To an answer to a court question, the adverse party

a.       has a right to cross-examination as a matter of right

b.       has a right to cross-examine only with the permission of the court

c.       has no right to cross-examine the witness

d.       either (A) or (C)

 

76.   A firm can be held liable for the wrongful act of a partner where the act has been ratified by the partners, provided

a.       the act could be legally done with the authority of the partners

b.       the partners ratify the act with full knowledge of the facts

c.       neither (A) nor (B)

d.       both (A) and (B)

 

77.   A partner can retire by notice of his intention to retire, where

a.       the partnership is at will

b.       the partnership is for a specified period

c.       where a contract has been made between the partners for its determination

d.       none of the above

 

78.   A partner has no implied authroity

a.       to enter into a partnership with other persons in another business

b.       to borrow money in case of commercial firm

c.       either (A) or (B)

d.       neither (A) nor (B)

 

79.   A partnership firm is required to be registered under

a.       the Indian Registration Act, 1908

b.       the Companies Act, 1956

c.       the Indian Partnership Act, 1932

d.       Indian Contract Act,.1872

 

80.   An agreement in restraint of trade in a partnership under Section 11 of the Indian Partnership Act is

a.       valid

b.       voidable

c.       void

d.       illegal

 

81.   An agreement in restraint of trade in a partnership under Section 11 of the Indian Partnership Act is

a.       valid

b.       voidable

c.       void

d.       illegal

 

82.   In a partnership at will

a.       a partner of a firm can retire from the firm a t any time by giving a notice of his intention to retire to his co-partners

b.       a partner of a firm can dissolve the firm at any time by giving a notice of his intention to dissolve the firm to his co­partners

c.       either (A) or (B)

d.       neither (A) nor (B)

 

83.   X’ on receiving grave and sudden provocation from ‘Z’ intentionally causes the death of ‘Y’, who is ‘Z’ brother: ZX' has committed the offence of:

a.       murder

b.       grievous hurt

c.       culpable homicide not amounting to murder

d.       attempt to murder

 

84.   Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?

a.       Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the Government with a view to obtain a change in policies by lawful means

b.       Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings

c.       Comments expressing disapproval of the administrative action even though do not excite hatred on disloyalty

d.       Exciting disaffection towards the government

 

85.   ‘A’, a revenue officer, is entrusted with public money and is directed by law to pay into treasury all the public money which he holds. He instead of paying the same into the treasury dishonesty misappropriates the same buying a sofa set for his personal use. What offence has ‘A’ committed?

a.       Criminal breach of trust

b.       Dishonest misappropriation of property

c.       Cheating the Government

d.       None of the above

 

86.   When a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of a common intention of all, each of such persons is liable:

a.       for the part of the act done by him

b.       as if whole act is done by him alone

c.       for abetting such an offence

d.       for conspiracy of such an offence

 

87.   Which one of the following correctly defines the term ‘unlawful assembly’?

a.       An assembly of five or more persons

b.       An assembly of five or more persons armed with lethal weapons

c.       An assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime

d.       An assembly of two or more persons having some common object of doing a criminal act

 

88.   Including a person with dishonest intention to part with his property by putting him in fear of physical injury amounts to an offence of:

a.       criminal intimidation

b.       extortion

c.       criminal misappropriation

d.       theft

 

89.   Which one of the following statements is correct?

a.       In conspiracy, there is no distinction between principal and accessory

b.       In conspiracy, principal and accessory are distinct

c.       There has to be a distinction between principal and accessory in all offences

d.       None of the above is correct

 

90.   A’ with intention to kill her husband, purchased some poison-powder from a chemist who by mistake, dispensed plain sugar instead. She put the powder in a cup of tea and served it to her husband who drank it but did not die. Which one of the following statements is correct as far as the charge to attempt a murder is concerned?

a.       She is liable because she had committed the penultimate act

b.       She is liable because her intention to kill her husband is clear from the totality of acts

c.       She is not liable because administration of sugar is hot a step towards the commission of murder

d.       She is not liable because her husband did not die

 

91.   The defendant promises to marry the plaintiff on the death of his father. During the life time of the father, the defendant marries another woman. The plaintiff in this case:

a.       has the option of bringing an action for damages immediately or she may wait till the death of father

b.       can bring an action against the defendant only after the death of the father

c.       cannot bring any action against the defendant because the contract is discharged by frustration

d.       can bring an action against the defendant for  breath of contract only if. the defendant tells her that he will not marry her

 

92.   An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other, is a:

a.       valid contract

b.       unenforceable contract

c.       voidable contract

d.       void agreement

 

93.   The contract sequence in the formation of a contract is:

a.       offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration

b.       agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance

c.       offer, consideration, acceptance, agreements

d.       offer, acceptance, consideration, agreements

 

94.   Which one of the following is a contingent contract?

a.       'A' inures his factory against damage or destruction by fire

b.       'A' sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of price with interest

c.       A guard is appointed at a swimming pool for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons

d.       A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the lender when the borrower will be in funds

 

95.   Which one of the following contract is void?

a.       'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' goes mad

b.       'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other at the early date, 'A' insists on marriage immediately after expiry of one month from the date of the contract

c.       'A' and 'B^’ contract to marry each other, but 'A' can fix the date of marriage only after his return from England where he had gone for business

d.       'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' fails fill and his physician advises 'A' to take rest in bed for one month

 

96.   An offer is:

a.       only a declaration of intention

b.       only a proposal

c.       an invitation

d.       a willingness to do or abstain doing something with view to obtaining assent of the addressee

 

97.   The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:

a.       when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise

b.       when the promisor perfoms his promise

c.       when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded

d.       always at the discretion of the court

 

98.   A deed of adoption requires

a.       compulsory registration

b.       optional registration

c.       no registration

d.       none of the above

 

99.   A document relating to land, registered at a place where no part of the property is situated, the registration is /

a.       void ab initio

b.       void only if parties in collusion with each other committed fraud on the registering authority

c.       Voidable and may be set aside within the period of limitations

d.       either (B) or (C)

 

100.           Acknowledgement made by a person other than a person under liability is good if

a.       the person making it is known to the person under liability

b.       the person making it is an agent of the person under liability

c.       the person making it is a servant of the person under liability

d.       none of the above

 

101.           Limitation for filing an appeal commences from

a.       the date of judgment

b.       the date of signing of the decree

c.       the date of application for copy of the judgment

d.       none of the above

 

102.           The period of limitation for preferring an appeal to the High Court from an order of sentence, other than the sentence of death, is

a.       30 days

b.       90 days

c.       60 days

d.       45 days

 

 

103.           Oral evidence under Section 60 of Evidence Act may be

a.       direct only

b.       hearsay

c.       both(A)&(B)

d.       either (A) or (B)

 

104.           Give the correct response:

a.       All murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa

b.       All culpable homicides are murders

c.       A murder can never be a culpable homicide

d.       None of the above

 

105.           An adoption of a boy, whose mother, the adopting father could not have legally married, is not recognised by law, but is still considered valid

a.       because of judicial pronouncements

b.       because of promulgation of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act

c.       because of custom

d.       none of the above

 

106.           Under Section 13-B of the East Punjab Urban Restriction Act, 1949, the tenant is required to seek leave to defend within 15 days of service of notice upon him. He applies for leave to defend after 20 days

a.       Time can be extended by the Rent Controller automatically

b.       Time can be extended by showing sufficient cause

c.       Time cannot be extended at all

d.       None of the above

 

107.           Statutory tenant is a person who

a.       pays rent as per the rent agreement

b.       abides by all the provisions of Rent Act

c.       is the legal representative who occupies premises after death\of the original tenant

d.       none of the above

 

108.           On which of the following grounds, a tenant cannot be evicted

a.       nuisance

b.       personal need of the landlord

c.       building is unfit & unsafe for human habitation

d.       Inadequate rent

 

109.           In a simple mortgage, possession of the mortgaged property

a.       is given to the mortgage

b.       is given to a third party as security

c.       remains with the mortgagor

d.       none of the above

 

110.           In an agreement for transfer of property

a.       the transfer is recognized when the agreement is partly performed

b.       is recognized only when instrument of transfer is executed

c.       such transfer only when instrument of transfer is executed

d.       none of the above

 

111.           A lease of an immovable property can be

a.       for a limited period

b.       in perpetuity

c.       can be express or implied

d.       all of the above'

 

112.           A valid lease can be determined by

a.       efflux of time'

b.       Forfeiture

c.       on expiration of notice period for determination of such lease

d.       All of the above

 

113.           Pingalwara Trust was founded by

a.       Sant Fateh Singh

b.       Sant Isher Singh

c.       Bhagat Furan Singh

d.       Master Tara Singh

 

114.           City of Amritsar was founded by

a.       Guru Ram Dass Ji

b.       Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji

c.       Guru Har Rai Ji

d.       Guru Arjan Dev Ji

 

115.           Where was the Anglo Sikh Treaty signed between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the Britishers?

a.       Lahore

b.       Amritsar

c.       Ropar

d.       Kapurthala

 

116.           A Muslim woman entitled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of her marriage on the ground that

a.       the husband was impotent at the time of the marriage

b.       the husband has become impotent after marriage

c.       the husband was impotent at the time of the marriage and continues to be so

d.       none of the above

 

117.           Under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be governed by the provision of Section 125 Cr.PC, may be given by the parties

a.       jointly

b.       separately

c.       either jointly or separately

d.       none of the above

 

118.           For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication

a.       can be self-administered

b.       administered against his will or knowledge

c.       should not be self-administered

d.       none of tire above

 

119.           For the application of Section 34 IPC, there must be at least

a.       two persons

b.       more than two persons

c.       five persons

d.       more than five persons

 

120.           A retired confession

a.       can solely be made the basis of conviction

b.       cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any circumstances

c.       cannot be made solely the basis of conviction unless' the same is corroborated

d.       is not admissible in evidence

 

121.           In which the following, the right of private defence does not extend to cause death of , the offender?

a.       Rape

b.       Gratifying unnatural lust

c.       Causing miscarriage

d.       Kidnapping

 

122.           A confession to be inadmissible under Section 25 of Evidence Act

a.       must relate to the same crime for which he is charged

b.       must relate to another crime

c.       may relate to the same crime or any other crime

d.       none of the above

 

123.           What can be the maximum gap between 'the two sessions of Parliaments?

a.       Three months

b.       Four Months

c.       Six months

d.       Nine months

 

124.           Which of the following writs literally means you may have the body’?

a.       Habeas Corpus

b.       Mandamus

c.       Quo Warranto

d.       Certorari

 

125.           Which of the following Union territories has a Legislature

a.       Andaman and Nicobar Islands

b.       Dadra and Nagar Haveli

c.       Pondicherry

d.       Chandigarh