HIMACHAL PRADESH JUDICIAL EXAM, 2009
Download Android App Download iOS App Note: 1. Use ORG Code: XLVPGR For IOS and Web APP. 2. To Download the PDF it is necessary to download the App. 3. You can Use Only Sigle Device to access the Courses on App Bihar Judiciary (PCS-J) Preparation Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer (APO) Preparation1. Duty under the Indian Stamp Act, in case of policy of fire insurance, is payable by:
a. the person issuing the policy
b. the person effecting the insurance
c. jointly by the person issuing the policy and the person effecting the insurance
2. Duty under the Indian Stamp Act, in case of a lease, is payable by:
c. the lessor and lessee equally
3. Who prescribe the rate of exchange for the conversion of foreign currency into the currency of India for the purpose of calculating stamp duty:
4. The penalty may be recovered, in case any instrument not duly stamped as per the Indian Stamp Act, by:
a. State Government
5. Which maxim denote the purpose of “res judicata”:
a. Interest rupublicae ut sit finis litum
b. Nemo debet lis vexari pro una et eadem causa
c. Resjudicata pro veritate occipiture
6. The plaint shall be rejected:
a. if it does not disclose a cause of action
b. where suit appears to be barred by any law
c. where it is not filed in duplicate
7. The provisions relating to particulars of the written statement and counter claim is in:
a. order 8 of Code of Civil Procedure
b. order 9 of Code of Civil Procedure
c. order 10 of Code of Civil Procedure
d. order 11 of Code of Civil Procedure
8. Largest order of Code of Civil Procedure is:
b. order 21
d. order 45
9. The doctrine of constructive res judicata is explained in:
a. Section 11, explanation III of Code of Civil Procedure
b. Section 11, explanation IV of Code of Civil Procedure
c. Section 11, explanation V of Code of Civil Procedure
d. Section 11, explanation VI of Code of Civil Procedure
10. Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court has no inherent jurisdiction:
a. to restore a suit dismissed for nonpayment of court fees
b. to restore an election petition dismissed for default
c. to consolidate suits based on different claims
11. No evidence is required to be pleaded in:
12. No second appeal shall lie from any decree when the subject-matter of the original suit is for recovery of money not exceeding:
b. Rs. 20,000/-
d. Rs. 30,000/-
13. Code of Civil Procedure contains
b. 51 Orders
d. 53 Orders
14. The parties to suit must submit the list of their witnesses within the time prescribed by the court but not later than:
a. 1 5 days after the issues are settled
b. 30 days after the issues are settled
c. 45 days after the issues are settled
d. 90 days after the issues are settled
15. Revisional jurisdiction of the High Court arises when the subordinate court:
a. exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law
b. failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it by law
c. acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally
16. Name the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure inserted by the Amendment Act, 1999, the object of which is to promote alternate method of dispute resolution:
b. Section 144
d. Section 158
17. The order 38 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with:
c. Arrest & attachment before judgement
18. The order of the Code of Civil Procedure which prescribe the consequences of disobedience or breach of injunction granted by the court:
19. Which order of the Code of Civil Procedure provides detailed rules regarding ‘judgment and decree’:
b. Order 20
d. Order 22
20. ‘Reference’ under the Code of Civil Procedure may be made to:
21. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not exhaustive. Many rules relating to law of evidence are contained in:
a. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Transfer of Property Act, 1882
c. Indian Succession Act. 1925
22. A fact is conclusive proof of another fact. If ’mat fact is proved than:
a. the court can call upon a party to prove another fact.
b. the court can allow opposite party to adduce the evidence to disprove another fact
d. the court shall regards another fact as proved
23. A man is alive unless nothing has been heard about him for seven years:
24. By information Technology Act, 2000, amendment made in:
a. Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 34 of the Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act
25. The plea of ‘Alibi’ is established by:
c. either by prosecution or by accused
26. A person is prosecuted for theft, evidence is sought to be produced to prove that the accused is a bad character and suspect of theft on several occasions in the past:
b. the evidence was admissible
c. the evidence was not admissible
27. ‘A’ agrees to sell to ‘B’ his white horse in writing. ‘A’ has two white horses and it becomes uncertain as to which horse was sold. Here in the document there is:
29. Facts judicially noticeable:
30. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to:
a. proceedings under Administrative Tribunals
b. proceedings under the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952
c. proceedings before Industrial Tribunals
31. A deaf-mute’s evidence made by writing in open court, shall be deemed to be:
32. An admission is a statement that may be:
33. For the admissibility of a dying declaration, it is not necessary that the statement:
b. the person making the statement must be under expectation of death
c. the person making the statement must be competent
d. the statement must be complete.
34. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, privilege is available to:
35. Exception to the rule ‘hearsay evidence is not admissible’, is laid down in the Indian Evidence Act:
b. Section 30
d. Section 32
36. The contents of documents may be proved by:
c. direct evidence & indirect evidence
37. The basis of specific relief is:
38. Suit for dispossession of immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 should be brought:
a. within one year from dispossession
b. within six months from dispossession
c. within three months from dispossession
d. within three years from dispossession.
39. The instrument may be rectified if:
a. misrepresentation by a party
40. Specific performance of any contract is granted:
a. if provided in the contract
b. if the contract is in its nature determinable
c. at the discretion of the court
41. Rescission of contracts may be allowed if:
a. where the contract is viodable at the instance of the plaintiff
c. where the third party acquire the interest in the contract in good faith
42. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 is related to:
b. cancellation of instruments
43. Ground for refusing specific performance of contract:
a. when compensation is an adequate relief
b. when contract depends upon person qualification of the party
c. contract requires constant supervision by the court
44. Mandatory injunction is granted under Specific Relief Act in:
45. Power to make rules for the purpose of carrying into effect the provisions of the Himachal Pradesh Court Act, 1976 is on:
46. Classes of subordinate civil courts in Himachal Pradesh under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976 are:
b. five
d. three
47. ‘Bill of Exchange’ is defined in:
48. The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 came into force on:
49. 49 The power of Collector to certify that full duty chargeable is paid on instrument is contained in:
a. section 32 of the Indian Stamp Act
b. section 31 of the Indian Stamp Act
c. section 30 of the Indian Stamp Act
d. section 29 of the Indian Stamp Act
50. To carry out the purpose of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 the rules may by:
Civil Law-II
1. Where the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage-money on a certain date and transfers the mortgaged property absolutely to the mortgagee subject to condition that the mortgagee will re-transfer it to the mortgagor upon payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called—
2. A gifts Rs. 5 lakh to B, reserving to himself, with B’s assent, the right to take back at leisure Rs. I lakh. Which one of the following is correct?
a. the gift is void in its entirety
b. the gift is valid upto Rs. 4 lakh
c. the gift is said to be revoked
d. the gift takes effect after A's life time
3. Which of the following is transferable under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
b. a decree of a court for mesue profits
4. Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains provisions relating to—
5. Which of the following would be a valid transfer under the Transfer of Property Act 1882?
a. A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in.an hour
b. A gives Rs. 500 to B on condition that he shall marry A's daughter C. At the date of the transfer C was dead
c. A transfers Rs. 500 to B on condition that she shall murder C
d. A transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. E dies, B marries with the consent of C and D
6. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has no application to transfer of property where—
a. it takes place by operation of law
b. it takes place by act of parties
7. Which of the following is not a ground for eviction of a tenant under the Himachal Urban Rent Control Act, 1987?
c. requirement for landlord's son to use the premises as office as a lawyer
8. Which of the following is not a non-residential building under the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987?
a. a building used for the purpose of trade
b. a build ing let out for residential and non- residential purposes, separately to more than one person, the portion thereof let out for the purpose of residence
c. a building used for the purpose of business
d. a building used partly for the purpose of trade and partly for the purpose of residence of the trader
9. Match list-1 with list-ll and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Kailash Chand v. (i) bonafide requirement
Dharm Dass
B. Ram Saran v. (ii) surrender of govt, premises
Pyare Lal
C. Dewan Chand (iii) statutory tenant
Bhalla v. Dr Ashok
Kumar Bhoil
D. Narinder Kumar v. (iv) unauthorized sub- Ramesh Kumar tenant
Codes:
A B C D
a. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
b. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
10. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of the provisions of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987?
a. the tenant shall pay rent within the time fixed by contract or by the 15th of the month next following the month for which it is payable
b. the tenant may deposit the rent with the Controller without first tendering it to the landlord
c. the tenant shall deposit the rent with the Controller within 21 days of the time referred to in section-20 for the payment of the rent
d. on an application made by the landlord for withdrawal of the rent deposited with him, the Controller shall order the amount to be paid to him in the prescribed manner
11. Which of the following sections of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987 imposes on the landlord duty to keep the building or rented land in good repairs?
b. section 12
d. none of these
12. Section 4 of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987 contains provisions relating to—
13. The term “tenant” within the meaning of Section-2 of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act,1987 does not include—
a. surviving spouse of the deceased tenant not living in the premises with the tenant at the time of his death
b. parents of the deceased tenant living with him at the time of his death
c. son of the deceased tenant living with him at the time of his death
d. daughter-in-law, being widow of the predeceased son of the tenant living with the tenant at the time of his death
14. The Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987 extends to—
a. any area administered by a municipal corporation
b. any area administered by a notified area committee
c. any area administered by a cantonment board
15. A person employed by, and acting under the control of, the original agent, in the business of the agency is a—
16. Which of the following is not correct under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
a. the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by a party to contract, who does not believe it to be true is fraud
b. active concealment of a fact by a party to contract, having knowledge or belief of the fact is misrepresentation
c. the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true is misrepresentation
d. a fraud which did not cause the consent to a contract of the party on whom such fraud was practiced, does not render a contract voidable
17. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in which of the following cases, the presumption of agents personal liability does not arise?
a. where an agent contracts for "a merchant resident abroad".
b. where the agent does not disclose the name of his principal
c. where the principal, though disclosed, cannot be sued
d. where the agent contracts with a party who knows that the principal is a minor
18. Which section of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent. Control Act, 1987 contains condition for conversion of a residential building into a non residential building?
b. section-12
d. none of these
19. The maximum penalty, which can be imposed under the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987, for contravention of any of the provisions of section 7or section 8, is—
a. fine which may extend to Rs. 1000/-
b. imprisonment for 2 years only
c. imprisonment for two years and fine '
d. as determined by the Magistrate 1st Class
20. Section 81 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains provisions relating to—
b. contribution to mortgage-debt
21. The term “contract” is defined in the following section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872—
b. Section 2(h)
c. Section 2(j)
d. Section 10
22. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists;
List-I List-II
A. Lalman Shukla v. (i) Restitution
Gauri Dutt
B. Tweddle v. Atkinson (ii) privity of contract
Balfour contract
C. Khan Gul v. Lakha Singh (iv) General offer
Codes:
A B C D
a. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
b. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
23. An agreement not to raise the plea of limitation is—
a. valid and binding
24. The case Nash v. Inman (1908) 2KBI related
25. In Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1892) 2 QB 484, the court ruled—
a. that an offer made to public at large is a nadun pactum
b. that a general offer is no offer.
c. that an offer can be made only to a particular person
d. an offer need not be made to an ascertained person
26. The theory on which quasi-copfractual obligations are based is to prevent unjust enrichment. Who is considered to be the real founder of this theory? '
b. Lord Wright
c. Anson
d. Lord Radcliffe
27. Which of the following sections of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 Imposes on a person, who sues for damages, a duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract?
b. Section 73
c. Section 74
d. Section 75
28. Which is not a ground for seeking divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
d. irretrievable breakdown of marriage
29. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Githa Hariharan (i) Adoption
v. Reserve Bank
B. Kartar Singh (ii) Guardianship
through Bachan
Singh v.
Surjan Singh
C. Naveen Kohli v. (iii) Cruelty explained
Neelu Kohli
D. A Jaychandra v. (iv) Irretrievable
Aneel Kaur breakdown of marriage
recommended
Codes:
A B C D
a. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
b. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
d. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
30. In “Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati”, AIR 1957 SC 176, the Supreme Court explained—
a. the concept of cruelty,
b. the institution of marriage,
c. the concept of desertion.
d. the concept of adultery, as applicable under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
31. For the purposes of section 9(3) of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, “mother” does not include—
d. a mother living separately under the . decree of court
32. Section 26 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 as amended by the Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1964, deals with—
33. In which of the following decisions, the constitutional validity of section-9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, was upheld by the Supreme Court?
a. T. Sareetha v. Venkata Subhaiah
b. Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar
c. Smt Harvinder Kaur v. Harvinder Singh
d. Payal Sharma v. Supdt. Nari Niketan
34. As a result of the changes introduced by the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005,the daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family, governed by the Mitakshara Law, becomes a coparcener—
35. A male Hindu, having more than one wives living, at the time of making adoption, may adopt a son—
a. with, the consent of all his wives
b. with the consent of either of the wives
c. with the consent of his wife senior most in marriage
d. without the consent of a wife suffering from diabetes.
36. The general rules of succession in the case of female Hindus are contained in—
a. section 9 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
b. section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
c. section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
d. section 15 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
37. Which provision of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, desiqualifies a Hindu to inherit property of the person whom he is convicted of murder?
b. Section 23
c. Section 25
d. Section 27
38. Which provision of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 expressly saves the custom regarding the adoption of a married person?
b. Section 10 (iii)
c. Section 10 (iv)
d. none of these
39. Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, does not apply to—
c. application for leave to sue as a pauper
40. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, applies
b. election petitions
c. appeals
d. none of these
41. Disability for the purpose of section 6(1) of they Limitation Act, 1963, does not mean disability arising because of—
b. insolvency
c. insanity
d. idiocy
42. Section 13 of the Limitation Act, 1963, applies in case of—
b. a minor
c. an idiot
d. an insane
43. Under section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963, defect of jurisdiction must relate to—
c. subject-matter jurisdiction
44. Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to—
45. Period of limitation for setting aside an ex-parte decree is—
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 15 days
46. Provision for condonation of delay, on the ground of sufficient cause is dealt with under—
a. section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963
b. section 8 of the Limitation Act, 1963
c. section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963
d. section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963
47. Section 22 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is not applicable in—
b. case of a continuing breach of contract
c. case of a suit for damages for wrongful detention of goods
48. A transferred his property to B in 1980, with a direction that the income arising out of the property was to be accumulated till 2010 (i.e. for 30 yrs). A died in 1955. The direction for accumulation would be valid—
b. till 1998
c. till 2010
d. till the lifetime off
49. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list;
List-I List-II
A. Krishnamurthy (i) Adverse
S. Setlur v. Possession
O.V. Narasimha (section-27, the
Setty Limitation Act)
B. Ram Nath Sao v. (ii) Sufficient cause
GobardhanSao (section-5, the
Limitation Act)
C. Sahkar Dastidar v. (iii) Continuing tort
Banjula Dastidar (section-22, the
Limitation Act)
D. TilakRamv. (iv) Acknowledge-
Nathu ment (section-18,
the limitation Act)
Codes:
A B C D
a. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
d. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
50. Match list-1 with list-ll and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Musahar Sahu v. (i) Part performance Lal Hakim Lal (section 53-A, TPA, 1882
B. Maddison v. (ii) Transfer by Alderson ostensible owner
C. Ram Coomar v. (iii) Doctrine of election
MecQueen
D. Mst. Dhanpatti v. (iv) Fraudulent transfer
Devi Prasad
Codes:
A B C D
a. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
c. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
d. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
1. ‘Country liquor’ and ‘Foreign Liquor’ are defined under Excise Act:
b. Section-3
c. Section-4
d. Section-5
2. An excise officer not below such rank as the state government may prescribe has the power:
a. to enter and inspect at any time by day or by night, any place in which any licensed manufacturer carries on the manufacture of or stores any intoxicant
b. to examine accounts and registers, test, measure or weigh any materials, stills, utensils, implements, apparatus or intoxicant found in that place '
d. none of the above
3. Choose the correct one: Subject to certain restrictions as the state government may prescribe, the authority granting any license, permit or pass under the Excise Act may cancel or suspend it—
a. at will, if the conditions of license or permit provide for such cancellation or suspension
b. if any duty or fee payable by the holder thereof be not duly paid
c. if it is transferred or sublet by the holder thereof without the permission of the said authority
d. all of the above are correct
4. Which activity is prohibited in-the ‘reserved forests’?
a. clearing of forests for cultivation or for any other purpose
b. kindling, keeping or carrying any fire
c. clearing or breaking up any land for cultivation or for any other purpose
5. Which section of the Indian Forest Act,1927 provides for concept of ‘village forest’?
b. Section 27
c. Section 28
d. Section 30
6. The Indian Forest Act, 1927 consists of—
a. 76 sections and XI chapters
b. 86 sections and XIII chapters
c. 60 sections and Xll chapters
d. 89 sections and XIII chapters
7. In which case section 42 was challenged before the Supreme Court on the basis of ‘freedom of trade and commerce’?
a. Yaswant Sone Workers v. State of U.P
b. State of Tripura v. Sudhir Ranjan Nath
c. Banwari Seva Ashram v. State of U.P.
d. Ambica Quarry Works v. State of Gujrat
8. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under section 125 of Cr.P.C. if:
a. she is unable to maintain herself
b. she has obtained divorce from her husband and has not remarried
c. she refused to live with her husband on the ground that he keeps a mistress
d. she is living in 'adultery'
9. The maxim term of imprisonment awardable in a ‘Summary Trial’ is:
a. three months
b. six months
c. One year
d. two years
10. ‘Warrant case’ means a case:
a. in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
b. on which case the court in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
c. relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
d. relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
11. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?
a. where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
b. where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
c. where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
d. where offence is exclusively bail-able whether accused is on bail or not
12. Point out the incorrect response under the Cr.P.C.?'
a. inquiry is conducted by a court
b. inquiry is conducted after framing the charge
c. inquiry is conducted prior to framing of charge
d. inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate
13. In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that section of Cr.P.C. was applicable to all irrespective of their religion?
a. Mohd. Uman Khan v. Gulshan Begum
b. Mohd. Amhed Khan v. Shah Begum
c. Subana Alias Saira Banu v. A.M. Abdul Gafoor
d. Sirajmohamad Khan v. Hafizunissa Yaseen Khan
14. Under section 29 of the Cr.P.C. the second class Magistrate cannot pass sentence upto—
a. 01 year
b. 02 years
c. 03 years
d. all of the above
15. For invoking section 133 of Cr.P.C. where should be the inconvenience or invasion on—
c. private place or private person
16. Which of the following offence cannot be summarily tried?
b. theft when the value of stolen property is below Rs. 200/-
c. offences relating to section 454 and 456 of the IPC
d. offences of abetment of the offences enumerated under section 260(vii) of Cr.P.C
17. Under section 198 of Cr.P.C the court can take cognizance of any offence laid down under section 497 and 498 of the IPC on the complaint of—
a. husband of the woman
b. father of the woman
18. Who is authorized for removal of public nuisance?
b. Judicial Magistrate 2nd Class
c. Judicial Magistrate. 1st Class
19. In relation to F.I.R., which of the following statement is not correct?
a. it is not a substantive evidence
b. it cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose
c. it merely marks the beginning of the investigation
d. the informant needs not be an eye witness
20. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under section 125 of Cr.P.C.?
a. wife who cannot maintain herself
b. major married daughter who cannot maintain herself.
c. mother or father who cannot maintain , herself or himself
d. minor illegitimate daughter who cannot maintain herself
21. In order that an Act should be punishable i^ must be morally blame-worthy. It must be a' sin”. Which of the following made this observation?
22. The draft of the IPC was prepared by:
23. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to instigate ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’. ‘B’accordingly instigates ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’ and ‘C’ commits that offence in consequence of B’s instigation. ‘A’ is:
b. not guilty of abetting murder
c. guilty of abetment by conspiracy
24. ‘A’ and ‘B’ who are cadets in the Indian Air Force take out from the Jodhpur Aerodrome an aircraft, without the authority of the Commandant and fly it away to Pakistan. What offence has been committed by them?
25. A workman throws snow from a roof giving warning. A passer-by is killed. The workman is:
b. guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. not guilty since death was accidental
d. guilty of causing death by negligence
26. Which of the following sections of IPC deals with vicarious liability?
a. Section 120-A
b. Section 121-C
c. Section 154
d. Section 159
27. Assertion (A): homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason(R): homicide is always unlawful
Codes:
a. Both and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. sharing of intention by all persons
29. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of ‘kidnapping’ under the Indian Penal Code?
c. without the consent of lawful guardian.
d. out of the keeping of the lawful guardian
30. ‘A’ cheats by pretending to be ‘B’ a person who is deceased. ‘A’ is liable to be punished under:
c. section 418 of IPC
31. Nothing is an ‘offence’ which is done by a child under:
32. The word ‘good faith’ Is defined in the IPC under:
33. An executioner who executes the death penalty is protected from Criminal liability under:
34. Minimum number of persons required to commit an ‘Affray’ is:
a. five
b. two
c. ten
d. eleven
35. Which one of the following cases Is not related to the'principle of joint liability based upon common intention?
a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
d. J.M. Desia v. State of Bombay
36. How many kinds of kidnappings are there In the Indian Penal Code?
b. two
c. three
d. four
37. Which of the following punishment cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal Code?
38. Under IPC which one of the following sections makes provision of solitary confinement?
b. Section 72
c. Section 73
d. Section 74
39. The essential elements of a crime are:
a. Motive, Mens-rea and Actus reus
b. Motive, intention and knqfwledge
d. knowledge, intention and action
40. ‘A’ in good faith says of a book published by ‘Z’ that Z’s book is indecent, ‘Z’ must be a man of impure mind. Is this defamation punishable under section 500 of IPC?
a. yes, because the opinion respects Z's character
b. no, because it is a slander
c. no, because it falls within one of the exception of section 499 of IPC
d. no, because it has not been repeated
41. Chapter XVII containing sections 138 to 143 was introduced in the Negotiable Instruments Act
a. Act 65 of 1988
b. Act 66 of 1988
c. Act 67 of 1988
d. Act 68 of 1988
42. How much time is given for complaint for ‘dishonour’ of cheque?
a. 45 days of intimation of dishonour
b. 90 days of intimation of dishonour
c. 30 days of intimation of dishonour
d. 15 days of intimation of dishonour
43. The offence of ‘dishonor’ of cheque excludes—
44. What are the defences available against proceedings under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act?
a. absence of a-legally enfprceable debt or liability
b. absence of legal notice of 15 days
45. “That there must be specific allegation; regarding the role played by each of the directors, then only they are liable for prosecution under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act”. In which of the following cases this statement was made:
a. Devi lyers v. Nawab Jan
b. Y.Srelatha v. Mukand Chand Bothra
c. Tord Engineers India Ltd. v. Nagarjuna Finance Ltd
d. BIPs System Ltd v. State
46. The effect of a notice under clause of section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is—
a. the payee forfeits the right to again present the cheque for payment
b. the payee can present the cheque for payment
c. the payee can present the cheque with the permission of the court
47. The purpose of Wild life (Protection) Act, 1972 is:
b. to protect the habitats of wild life
c. to protect the living creatures as well as women being live in wild
48. Who is the chairman of National Board for wild life?
d. Person appointed by the central government
49. ‘Narayan Saroval Chinkgra. Sanctuary’ is in the state of—
b. West Bengal
c. Rajasthan
d. Gujrat
50. In which case Supreme Court has declared that state government must always consider the rights of tribals before an action is taken to acquire an area and declare—
a. Animal and Environment Legal Defence Fund v. Union of India
b. Gujrat Navodaya Mandal v. State
