Hindi Medium MCQs
MP Lok Sewaon ki Pradan ki Guarantee Adhiniyam MCQs
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MP Lok Sewaon ki Pradan ki Guarantee Adhiniyam MCQs
1. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010 is:
a. Madhya Pradesh Act No. 20 of 2010
b. Madhya Pradesh Act No. 24 of 2010
c. Madhya Pradesh Act No. 14 of 2010
d. Madhya Pradesh Act No. 42 of 2010
2. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010 received the assent of the Governor on:
a. 18th August, 2010
b. 17th July, 2010
c. 17th August, 2010
d. 16th August, 2010
3. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010 was first published in the Madhya Pradesh Gazette (Extraordinary) on:
a. 17th August, 2010
b. 18th August, 2010
c. 19th August, 2010
d. 20th August, 2010
4. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010 was enacted by the Madhya Pradesh Legislature in the:
a. Fifty-ninth year of the Republic of India
b. Sixtieth year of the Republic of India
c. Sixty-first year of the Republic of India
d. Sixty-second year of the Republic of India
5. The object of the Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010 is to provide for:
a. establishment of local authorities
b. regulation of public employment
c. delivery of services to the people of the State within the stipulated time limit
d. constitution of administrative tribunals
6. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010 also provides for matters:
a. connected therewith and incidental thereto
b. relating to criminal procedure
c. concerning taxation only
d. relating to constitutional remedies
7. Section 1 of the Act deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Extent of the Act
c. Short title, extent and commencement
d. Power to make rules
8. This Act may be called:
a. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010
b. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Vidheyak, 2010
c. The Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewa Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010
d. The Madhya Pradesh Public Services Guarantee Act, 2010
9. The Act shall extend to:
a. the whole of India
b. such areas as notified by the State Government
c. the whole of Madhya Pradesh
d. municipal areas of Madhya Pradesh only
10. The Act shall come into force on such date as the State Government may appoint by:
a. executive order
b. circular
c. notification in the official Gazette
d. resolution
11. Under sub-section (3) of Section 1, the authority empowered to appoint the date of commencement of the Act is:
a. Governor
b. High Court
c. State Legislature
d. State Government
12. Section 2 of the Act deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Penalties
c. Definitions
d. Jurisdiction
13. “Application form” means an application which shall be filled on:
a. notified website
b. designated portal
c. official Gazette
d. online grievance system
14. Under the Act, “deemed approval” means an approval generated:
a. by the State Government
b. by the first appeal officer
c. manually by the designated officer
d. in accordance with sub-section (3) of Section 5 by the designated portal without the intervention of any person
15. “Designated entity” means:
a. an authority constituted by the High Court
b. an entity notified by the State Government for administering the designated portal
c. a department notified for deciding appeals
d. an officer appointed by the Governor
16. “Designated officer” means an officer notified for providing the service under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 4
c. Section 3
d. Section 5
17. “Designated portal” means:
a. an electronic system maintained by the designated entity for the purpose of delivering services
b. a portal maintained by the State Legislature
c. a manual record system maintained by the department
d. a grievance portal maintained by local authorities
18. “Eligible person” means:
a. every citizen of India
b. any resident of Madhya Pradesh
c. any government servant
d. any person eligible for receiving notified services
19. “First appeal officer” means an officer notified as such under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 5
c. Section 7
d. Section 9
20. Under the Act, “fraud” means an act defined under:
a. section 420 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 only
b. section 320 of the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita, 2023 or section 17 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
c. section 415 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 only
d. section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
21. Section 320 referred to in the definition of “fraud” is contained in:
a. the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. the Indian Contract Act, 1872
c. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. the Evidence Act, 1872
22. Section 17 referred to in the definition of “fraud” is contained in:
a. the Indian Contract Act, 1872
b. the Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. the Specific Relief Act, 1963
d. the General Clauses Act, 1897
23. “Prescribed” means:
a. prescribed by executive instructions
b. prescribed by the State Government
c. prescribed by notification
d. prescribed by the rules made under this Act
24. “Right to service” means:
a. right to file appeal
b. right to compensation
c. right to obtain the service within the stipulated time limit under section 4
d. right to seek review
25. “Second appellate authority” means:
a. an authority constituted by rules
b. an officer notified as such under section 3
c. the State Government
d. the designated entity
26. “Service” under the Act:
a. excludes permissions
b. means only welfare services
c. includes permissions and means any service notified under Section 3
d. means services notified by local authorities only
27. “State Government” means:
a. Government of India
b. Government of Madhya Pradesh
c. Governor of Madhya Pradesh
d. Council of Ministers of Madhya Pradesh
28. “Stipulated time limit” means:
a. minimum time within which service is to be provided
b. reasonable time determined by the designated officer
c. maximum time within which the service is to be provided by the designated officer or the appeal is to be decided by the first appeal officer as notified under section 3
d. time fixed by the applicant
29. Under the definition of “stipulated time limit”, the appeal is to be decided by:
a. designated entity
b. second appellate authority
c. State Government
d. first appeal officer
30. Which of the following definitions specifically refers to Section 4?
a. stipulated time limit
b. right to service
c. designated officer
d. service
31. Which of the following definitions specifically includes permissions?
a. eligible person
b. right to service
c. service
d. designated portal
32. Under the Act, the designated portal is maintained by:
a. the State Government
b. the designated officer
c. the designated entity
d. the first appeal officer
33. Which of the following is generated without the intervention of any person?
a. notified service
b. stipulated time limit
c. application form
d. deemed approval
34. Section 3 of the Act deals with:
a. Penalty
b. Right to service
c. Notification of services, designated officers, first appeal officers, second appellate authority and stipulated time limits
d. Revision
35. Under Section 3(1), the authority empowered to notify the services is:
a. designated officer
b. State Government
c. second appellate authority
d. designated entity
36. Under Section 3(1), the State Government may notify the services:
a. once every year
b. only at the commencement of the Act
c. from time to time
d. only by rules
37. Which of the following may be notified by the State Government under Section 3(1)?
a. Designated officers
b. First appeal officers
c. Second appellate authority
d. All of the above
38. Under Section 3(1), the State Government may notify the stipulated:
a. compensation
b. penalty
c. time limits
d. fees
39. The notifications under Section 3(1) relate to matters to which:
a. the Constitution shall apply
b. this Act shall apply
c. rules shall apply
d. local laws shall apply
40. Under Section 3(2), the State Government may notify services to which provision of:
a. appeal shall apply
b. review shall apply
c. deemed approval shall apply
d. revision shall apply
41. The power under Section 3(2) may be exercised by the State Government:
a. only once
b. from time to time
c. only after consultation with the High Court
d. only through rules
42. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 3(1)?
a. designated officers
b. first appeal officers
c. prescribed authority
d. stipulated time limits
43. Under Section 3(1), the second appellate authority is to be:
a. elected
b. constituted by court order
c. approved by the Legislature
d. notified by the State Government
44. Section 3(2) specifically relates to notification of:
a. appellate authorities
b. designated portals
c. services to which provision of deemed approval shall apply
d. penalties and compensation
45. Section 4 of the Act deals with:
a. Notification of services
b. Right to obtain service within stipulated time limit
c. Deemed approval
d. Penalty
46. Under Section 4, the authority responsible for providing the service is:
a. designated entity
b. State Government
c. designated officer
d. second appellate authority
47. The designated officer shall provide the service notified under:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 5
d. Section 3
48. Under Section 4, the service is to be provided to:
a. every resident of Madhya Pradesh
b. the applicant
c. the person eligible to obtain the service
d. any government servant
49. The designated officer shall provide the notified service within the:
a. reasonable time
b. prescribed period
c. stipulated time limit
d. time fixed by the applicant
50. Which of the following is mandatory under Section 4?
a. The designated officer may provide the service within stipulated time
b. The designated officer shall provide the service within stipulated time
c. The State Government shall provide the service within prescribed period
d. The designated entity shall provide the service within reasonable time
51. Section 5 of the Act deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Providing service in stipulated time limit
c. Penalty
d. Revision
52. Under Section 5(1), the stipulated time limit shall start from the date when:
a. application is approved
b. fee is deposited
c. required application for notified service is submitted
d. acknowledgment is issued
53. The required application for notified service may be submitted to:
a. designated officer only
b. designated officer or a person subordinate to him authorized to receive the application
c. first appeal officer only
d. second appellate authority only
54. Every application submitted under Section 5(1) shall be:
a. verified by affidavit
b. approved by the State Government
c. duly acknowledged
d. forwarded to the appellate authority
55. The application for obtaining the notified service may also be submitted to:
a. such other person as may be authorized by the State Government to receive the application
b. any public servant
c. any police officer
d. any elected representative
56. Under Section 5(1), the stipulated time limit shall start from the date of:
a. scrutiny of application
b. submission of application
c. approval of application
d. issuance of receipt
57. Under Section 5(2), on receipt of an application, the designated officer shall within the stipulated time limit:
a. forward the application to the State Government
b. impose penalty
c. either provide service or reject the application
d. refer the matter to the appellate authority
58. In case of rejection of application under Section 5(2), the designated officer shall:
a. record the reasons in writing and intimate to the applicant
b. orally inform the applicant
c. seek approval of the State Government
d. refer the matter to the second appellate authority
59. Under Section 5(2), the reasons for rejection of application shall be:
a. recorded in writing
b. communicated through Gazette notification
c. approved by the appellate authority
d. published on the portal
60. Under Section 5(3), deemed approval shall be generated if the designated officer:
a. rejects the application
b. fails to take a decision within the stipulated time-limit
c. transfers the application
d. seeks clarification from the applicant
61. Deemed approval under Section 5(3) shall be generated by:
a. State Government
b. designated officer
c. designated portal
d. first appeal officer
62. Section 5(3) applies to applications received for a service notified under:
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 3(2)
c. Section 4
d. Section 6
63. The deemed approval generated under Section 5(3) shall have:
a. limited administrative value only
b. evidentiary value only
c. no legal effect unless ratified
d. the same force of law as the approval duly granted by the designated officer
64. Which of the following provisions shall not apply to approval generated under Section 5(3)?
a. Section 3 and Section 4
b. Section 5 and Section 8
c. Section 6 and Section 7
d. Section 1 and Section 2
65. Approval generated under Section 5(3) shall not attract the provisions of:
a. Section 4 and Section 5
b. Section 6 and Section 7
c. Section 7 and Section 8
d. Section 2 and Section 3
66. Under Section 5(5), where service was received by fraudulent act or submission of false information, the designated officer shall:
a. suspend the service temporarily
b. refer the matter to police
c. impose fine only
d. revoke the same with immediate effect
67. The power to revoke service received by fraudulent act under Section 5(5) vests in:
a. State Government
b. designated officer
c. second appellate authority
d. designated entity
68. Under Section 5(5), revocation shall take effect:
a. after thirty days
b. after approval by appellate authority
c. with immediate effect
d. after publication in official Gazette
69. Which of the following is specifically mentioned as a ground for revocation under Section 5(5)?
a. Delay in filing application
b. Non-payment of fee
c. Fraudulent act or submission of false information
d. Failure to file appeal
70. Under Section 5(2), intimation regarding rejection of application is to be given to:
a. designated entity
b. State Government
c. appellate authority
d. applicant
71. Under Section 5(1), the subordinate person receiving the application must be:
a. nominated by the applicant
b. authorized to receive the application
c. appointed by the High Court
d. elected by local authority
72. Which of the following correctly states the consequence of failure of the designated officer to take a decision within stipulated time-limit?
a. Application shall stand rejected
b. Appeal shall automatically lie
c. Deemed approval shall be generated by the designated portal
d. Applicant shall file fresh application
73. Section 6 of the Act deals with:
a. Penalty
b. Appeal
c. Revision
d. Compensation
74. Any person whose application is rejected under sub-section (2) of section 5 may file an appeal to:
a. designated entity
b. State Government
c. first appeal officer
d. second appellate authority
75. An appeal under Section 6(1) may be filed where:
a. service is provided within stipulated time limit
b. application is rejected under sub-section (2) of section 5
c. deemed approval is generated
d. application is voluntarily withdrawn
76. A person who is not provided the service within the stipulated time limit may file:
a. revision before State Government
b. civil suit
c. writ petition only
d. appeal to the first appeal officer
77. The appeal under Section 6(1) shall be filed within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
78. The period of thirty days under Section 6(1) shall be computed from:
a. date of filing application only
b. date of knowledge
c. date of rejection of application or expiry of stipulated time limit
d. date of notice by designated officer
79. The first appeal officer may admit the appeal after expiry of thirty days if:
a. State Government grants permission
b. appellant pays additional fee
c. appellant files affidavit
d. he is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal in time
80. Under the first proviso to Section 6(1), the delay in filing appeal may be condoned by:
a. second appellate authority
b. designated officer
c. first appeal officer
d. State Government
81. Under the second proviso to Section 6(1), the first appeal officer may on his own motion:
a. impose penalty directly
b. call for the record of an application submitted under sub-section (1) of Section 5
c. revoke deemed approval
d. transfer the application
82. The first appeal officer may call for the record of an application which:
a. has been accepted
b. is pending before second appellate authority
c. has been rejected or has been pending beyond stipulated time limit
d. has been withdrawn
83. Under Section 6(1), the first appeal officer may pass:
a. only interim order
b. such order as may be deemed appropriate
c. order subject to approval of State Government
d. declaratory order only
84. Under Section 6(2), the first appeal officer may order the designated officer to provide the service within:
a. reasonable time
b. prescribed time
c. specified period
d. one month
85. Under Section 6(2), the first appeal officer may:
a. impose criminal liability
b. reject the appeal
c. dissolve the authority
d. review the rules
86. During hearing of the appeal, the first appeal officer may make a reference to the second appellate authority if:
a. application fee is unpaid
b. service was not provided despite the applicant having fulfilled all the requirements
c. applicant fails to appear
d. service is voluntarily withdrawn
87. Under Section 6(2a), reference to the second appellate authority may be made for imposing:
a. compensation
b. disciplinary action
c. penalty on the designated officer under sub-section (1) of Section 7
d. imprisonment
88. The first appeal officer may make a reference under Section 6(2a) where the application has been rejected:
a. after hearing State Government
b. without assigning sufficient reasons
c. after limitation period
d. without affidavit
89. A second appeal against the decision of the first appeal officer shall lie to:
a. designated officer
b. civil court
c. State Government
d. second appellate authority
90. The second appeal shall be filed within:
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
91. The period of limitation for second appeal shall run from:
a. date of filing first appeal
b. date on which the decision was made
c. date of service of notice
d. date of acknowledgment
92. The second appellate authority may admit the appeal after expiry of 60 days if:
a. sufficient cause prevented filing in time
b. penalty is deposited
c. State Government directs
d. designated officer consents
93. Under the second proviso to Section 6(3), the second appellate authority may on his own motion:
a. review rules
b. call for the record of an appeal filed under sub-section (1)
c. appoint designated officer
d. suspend first appeal officer
94. The second appellate authority may call for the record of an appeal which:
a. has been decreed
b. has been accepted
c. has been rejected or has been pending beyond stipulated time limit before the first appeal officer
d. has abated
95. Under Section 6(4)(a), the second appellate authority may order the designated officer to provide the service within:
a. such period as he may specify
b. thirty days only
c. reasonable time
d. prescribed time
96. Under Section 6(4)(a), the second appellate authority may:
a. frame rules
b. reject the appeal
c. dissolve designated entity
d. prosecute applicant
97. Along with the order to provide service, the second appellate authority may:
a. grant injunction
b. impose compensation only
c. impose penalty according to the provisions of section 7
d. order prosecution
98. If the designated officer does not comply sub-section (1) of section 5, the applicant may directly submit an application to:
a. State Government
b. second appellate authority
c. civil court
d. first appeal officer
99. An application submitted under Section 6(5)(a) shall be disposed of in the manner of:
a. revision
b. civil suit
c. first appeal
d. review petition
100. If the designated officer does not comply the order under sub-section (2) of section 6, the aggrieved applicant may directly submit an application to:
a. first appeal officer
b. second appellate authority
c. designated entity
d. State Government
101. An application submitted under Section 6(5)(b) shall be disposed of in the manner of:
a. second appeal
b. first appeal
c. revision
d. review
102. Under Section 6(6), the first appeal officer and second appellate authority shall have the same powers as are vested in:
a. criminal court
b. revenue court
c. civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. High Court under Article 226
103. The powers under Section 6(6) include requiring:
a. arrest of applicant
b. production and inspection of documents
c. attachment before judgment
d. registration of FIR
104. Under Section 6(6), summons for hearing may be issued to:
a. designated officer and appellant
b. Governor and Minister
c. police officer and complainant
d. only designated officer
105. Under Section 6(6)(c), the first appeal officer and second appellate authority shall also have powers in respect of:
a. any constitutional matter
b. any criminal matter
c. any other matter which may be prescribed
d. any matter referred by High Court
106. The Code of Civil Procedure referred to in Section 6(6) is:
a. Act No. 2 of 1908
b. Act No. 5 of 1908
c. Act No. 10 of 1908
d. Act No. 15 of 1908
107. Section 7 of the Act deals with:
a. Revision
b. Penalty and compensation
c. Power to make rules
d. Cognizance
108. Under Section 7(1)(a), the second appellate authority may impose penalty where the designated officer has:
a. acted in good faith
b. failed to provide service without sufficient and reasonable cause
c. committed fraud
d. delayed appeal proceedings
109. The lump sum penalty under Section 7(1)(a) shall not be less than:
a. 100 rupees
b. 250 rupees
c. 500 rupees
d. 1000 rupees
110. The maximum lump sum penalty under Section 7(1)(a) is:
a. 2000 rupees
b. 3000 rupees
c. 4000 rupees
d. 5000 rupees
111. Under Section 7(1)(b), where the designated officer has caused delay in providing the service, penalty may be imposed at the rate of:
a. 100 rupees per day
b. 200 rupees per day
c. 250 rupees per day
d. 500 rupees per day
112. The penalty imposed under Section 7(1)(b) shall not be more than:
a. 2500 rupees
b. 5000 rupees
c. 7500 rupees
d. 10000 rupees
113. Before imposing any penalty under Section 7(1), the designated officer shall be given:
a. notice in writing only
b. opportunity to engage advocate
c. reasonable opportunity of being heard
d. opportunity to file revision
114. The authority empowered to impose penalty under Section 7(1) is:
a. designated officer
b. first appeal officer
c. State Government
d. second appellate authority
115. Under Section 7(2), penalty may be imposed on the first appeal officer where he has failed to decide the appeal:
a. within prescribed procedure
b. within the stipulated time limit without sufficient and reasonable cause
c. after hearing the applicant
d. within sixty days
116. The penalty imposed on the first appeal officer under Section 7(2) shall not be less than:
a. 250 rupees
b. 500 rupees
c. 1000 rupees
d. 5000 rupees
117. Under Section 7(2), the maximum penalty on the first appeal officer may extend to:
a. 2000 rupees
b. 3000 rupees
c. 5000 rupees
d. 10000 rupees
118. Before imposing penalty under Section 7(2), the first appeal officer shall be given:
a. one month's notice
b. opportunity of review
c. opportunity to engage counsel
d. reasonable opportunity of being heard
119. Under Section 7(3), compensation to the appellant may be ordered from:
a. Government treasury
b. fees deposited by applicant
c. penalty imposed under sub-section (1) or (2) or both
d. departmental contingency fund
120. The compensation ordered under Section 7(3) shall:
a. exceed the imposed penalty
b. not exceed the imposed penalty
c. be equal to double the penalty
d. be fixed by State Government only
121. Under Section 7(4), disciplinary action may be recommended where the designated officer or first appeal officer has:
a. resigned from service
b. failed to discharge duties assigned under the Act without sufficient and reasonable cause
c. acted beyond territorial jurisdiction
d. committed contempt of court
122. Disciplinary action under Section 7(4) shall be recommended under:
a. criminal law
b. constitutional provisions
c. service rules applicable to the officer
d. rules framed by High Court
123. If the appellant is not satisfied with the penalty imposed by the Second Appellate Authority under Section 7(5)(a), he may make an application to:
a. designated officer
b. first appeal officer
c. officer nominated by the State Government under Section 8
d. civil court
124. The nominated officer under Section 7(5)(a) may impose penalty:
a. without hearing the officer concerned
b. after giving an opportunity of being heard to the First Appeal Officer or the Designated Officer
c. only on recommendation of State Government
d. only after departmental inquiry
125. The penalty imposed by the nominated officer under Section 7(5)(a) may extend to:
a. 2000 rupees
b. 3000 rupees
c. 4000 rupees
d. 5000 rupees including the penalty earlier imposed, if any
126. Under the proviso to Section 7(5)(a), the nominated officer may, instead of imposing penalty:
a. dismiss the officer from service
b. recommend disciplinary action only
c. transfer the officer
d. direct filing of criminal case
127. The nominated officer may recommend disciplinary action only for:
a. any reason whatsoever
b. reasons recorded orally
c. adequate and special reason to be mentioned in the order
d. administrative convenience
128. Under Section 7(5)(c), the nominated officer may impose penalty on the Second Appellate Authority if he is satisfied that:
a. appeal was allowed
b. penalty imposed was inadequate or proceedings were delayed or the authority acted in a manner not conducive to implementation of the Act
c. designated officer resigned
d. service was ultimately provided
129. Before imposing penalty on the Second Appellate Authority under Section 7(5)(c), the nominated officer shall:
a. obtain sanction from State Government
b. conduct judicial inquiry
c. give him an opportunity of being heard
d. seek opinion of Advocate General
130. The penalty imposed on the Second Appellate Authority under Section 7(5)(c) may extend to:
a. 1000 rupees
b. 2500 rupees
c. 5000 rupees
d. 10000 rupees
131. Under the proviso to Section 7(5)(c), the nominated officer may, instead of imposing penalty:
a. close proceedings
b. recommend disciplinary action only
c. remit the matter to civil court
d. suspend the authority
132. Which of the following is NOT a ground mentioned in Section 7(5)(c) for imposing penalty on the Second Appellate Authority?
a. Imposition of inadequate penalty
b. Delay in proceedings
c. Acting in a manner not conducive to implementation of the Act
d. Failure to frame rules
133. Under Section 7(1)(b), the penalty for delay is imposed on:
a. appellant
b. first appeal officer
c. designated officer
d. nominated officer
134. The compensation under Section 7(3) is payable to:
a. State Government
b. appellant
c. designated entity
d. first appeal officer
135. Under Section 7(4), recommendation of disciplinary action may be made by:
a. designated officer
b. first appeal officer
c. civil court
d. second appellate authority
136. Section 8 of the Act deals with:
a. Appeal
b. Review
c. Revision
d. Penalty
137. Under Section 8, an application for revision may be made by:
a. appellant only
b. designated officer or first appeal officer aggrieved by any order of second appellate authority in respect of imposing penalty
c. second appellate authority only
d. any eligible person
138. The revision under Section 8 lies against an order of:
a. designated officer
b. first appeal officer
c. State Government
d. second appellate authority
139. Section 8 applies to orders of second appellate authority in respect of:
a. granting service
b. imposing penalty under the Act
c. review proceedings
d. deemed approval
140. The revision application under Section 8 shall be made to:
a. civil court
b. High Court
c. officer nominated by the State Government
d. first appeal officer
141. The revision application under Section 8 shall be filed within:
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
142. The period of limitation under Section 8 shall run from:
a. date of knowledge of order
b. date of communication
c. date of service of notice
d. date of that order
143. The officer nominated by the State Government shall dispose of the revision application according to:
a. principles of natural justice only
b. prescribed procedure
c. procedure under Code of Criminal Procedure
d. executive instructions
144. Under the proviso to Section 8, the officer nominated by the State Government may entertain the application after expiry of 60 days if:
a. penalty is deposited
b. State Government permits
c. sufficient cause prevented submission in time
d. applicant is a public servant
145. Section 8A of the Act deals with:
a. Appeal against designated officer
b. Review of order of nominated officer
c. Compensation
d. Deemed approval
146. Under Section 8A, the Second Appellate Authority aggrieved by any order passed under clause (c) of sub-section (5) of Section 7 may make:
a. revision petition
b. second appeal
c. review application
d. writ application
147. The review application under Section 8A shall be made to:
a. first appeal officer
b. civil court
c. State Government
d. nominated officer
148. The review under Section 8A relates to an order passed under:
a. Section 6(2)
b. Section 7(1)
c. clause (c) of sub-section (5) of Section 7
d. Section 8 proviso
149. The review application under Section 8A shall be filed within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
150. Under Section 8A, the nominated officer shall dispose of the application according to:
a. prescribed procedure
b. summary procedure
c. criminal procedure
d. executive instructions
151. The nominated officer may entertain an application after expiry of 60 days under Section 8A if:
a. disciplinary action is recommended
b. penalty is excessive
c. application could not be submitted in time for sufficient cause
d. State Government directs
152. Under Section 8A, the person entitled to seek review is:
a. designated officer
b. first appeal officer
c. appellant
d. Second Appellate Authority
153. Which of the following proceedings is specifically mentioned in Section 8A?
a. Appeal
b. Review
c. Revision
d. Reference
154. Under Section 8, the officer nominated by the State Government may entertain delayed revision application if:
a. reasonable opportunity is denied
b. the application could not be submitted in time for sufficient cause
c. applicant deposits penalty
d. order is void
155. Which of the following authorities is common to both Section 8 and Section 8A?
a. First appeal officer
b. Designated officer
c. Nominated officer
d. Civil court
156. Section 9 of the Act deals with:
a. Revision
b. Protection of action taken in good faith
c. Power to remove difficulties
d. Appeals
157. Under Section 9, no suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything:
a. negligently done under the Act
b. done beyond jurisdiction
c. done or intended to be done in good faith under this Act or any rule made thereunder
d. done contrary to the Act
158. The protection under Section 9 extends to acts:
a. done under executive instructions only
b. done or intended to be done under this Act or any rule made thereunder
c. done under judicial orders only
d. done under departmental circulars only
159. Which of the following proceedings is specifically barred under Section 9?
a. Suit
b. Prosecution
c. Other legal proceeding
d. All of the above
160. Protection under Section 9 is available where the act is done:
a. maliciously
b. fraudulently
c. in good faith
d. without authority
161. Section 10 of the Act deals with:
a. Removal of difficulties
b. Penalty
c. Power to make rules
d. Review
162. Under Section 10(1), the authority empowered to make rules is:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. designated entity
d. second appellate authority
163. Rules under Section 10(1) may be made by:
a. executive order
b. notification in the official Gazette
c. departmental circular
d. resolution
164. Rules made under Section 10 are for carrying out:
a. recommendations of appellate authority
b. directions of civil court
c. the provisions of this Act
d. service rules only
165. Every rule made under this Act shall be laid before:
a. Parliament
b. High Court
c. Governor
d. State Legislature
166. Section 11 of the Act deals with:
a. Delegation of powers
b. Appeal
c. Removal of difficulties
d. Protection of action taken in good faith
167. Under Section 11, if any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the State Government may:
a. amend the Act
b. issue executive instructions inconsistent with the Act
c. by order remove the difficulty
d. refer the matter to the High Court
168. Any order made under Section 11 shall be:
a. inconsistent with the provisions of this Act
b. approved by civil court
c. published after legislative approval
d. not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act
169. The power to remove difficulties under Section 11 may be exercised by:
a. designated officer
b. first appeal officer
c. State Government
d. State Legislature
170. Under the proviso to Section 11, no order removing difficulties shall be made after expiry of:
a. one year from commencement of the Act
b. two years from commencement of the Act
c. three years from commencement of the Act
d. five years from commencement of the Act
171. The limitation prescribed under the proviso to Section 11 is to be computed from:
a. date of notification of rules
b. date of assent of Governor
c. commencement of this Act
d. date of publication in Gazette
172. Which of the following is a condition for exercise of power under Section 11?
a. Prior approval of State Legislature
b. Order must not be inconsistent with the provisions of the Act
c. Consultation with High Court
d. Publication for objections
173. Under Section 10(2), every rule made under the Act shall be laid before the:
a. Lokayukta
b. State Legislature
c. Governor
d. Council of Ministers
174. Section 9 grants protection against:
a. departmental proceedings only
b. criminal proceedings only
c. civil proceedings only
d. suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding
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