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Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test-4
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RAJASTHAN MOCK TEST 4
1. In a famous case the Supreme Court has provided strict guidelines related to right of the arrested persons
a. Sakiri Basu case
b. Hussain Aara Khatton v. State of Bihar
c. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
d. None of these
Also Check: CRPC/BNSS Free Classes
2. A summon issued by a Court must be in:
a. Writing
b. Duplicate
c. signed by the presiding officer of the Court or other officer as directed by the High Court
d. all the above
Also Check: BNSS Bare Act
3. How are the summons served?
a. By a police officer
b. By an officer of the court
c. By any authorised public servant
d. By any of the above
Also Check: BNSS Free One Liner Notes
4. Under section 77 of Cr.P.C. a warrant of arrest may be executed
a. within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
b. within the session division
c. at any place within the State
d. at any place in India
Also Check: BNSS Free Detailed Notes
5. Cr.p.c- The police officer shall bring an arrested person before the court without any delay. This is the mandate of.
a. Section 76
b. Section 77
c. Section 78
d. Section 79
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
6. When warrant also cannot be executed the court may proceed under
a. Section 83 and 84 of Cr.P.C.
b. Section 82 and 83 of Cr.P.C.
c. Section 81 and 82 of Cr.P.C.
d. Section 80 and 81 of Cr.P.C
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
7. In the Cr.P.C. the procedure of proclamation for persons absconding and attachment of property is provided under: —
a. Section 61 to 79
b. Section 70 to 81
c. Section 82 to 86
d. Section 87 to 90
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8. Under which one of the following of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 summons to produce documents may be issued to the person in whose possession they are?
a. Section 90
b. Section 95
c. Section 94
d. Section 91
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
9. A suit for possession of immovable property based on title can be filed within:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Three years
d. Twelve years
Also Check: Limitation Act Free Classes
10. Limitation Act—The period of limitation for filing the suit for compensation of injury caused by an injunction wrongfully obtained begins to run from
a. When the injunction obtained
b. When the injunction ceases
c. When the injunction application is filed
d. When the suit for injunction is filed
Also Check: Limitation Act Free One Liner Notes
11. A intentionally deceived B into a belief that A has performed A's part of a contract which he has not performed, and thereby dishonestly induces B to pay money. A has committed:
a. the offence of cheating
b. the offence of criminal breach of trust
c. the offence of extortion
d. the offence of theft
Also Check: IPC/BNS Free Classes
12. The maximum imprisonment for the offence of mischief under IPC is: -
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
Also Check: IPC/BNS Bare Act
13. right of private defence extents to:
a. defence of body only
b. defence of property
c. defence of both body and property
d. cannot say
Also Check: IPC/BNS Detailed Notes
14. 'A' finds the key of Y's house door, which 'Y' had lost and commits house- trespass by entering Y's house having opened the door with the key What offence 'A' has committed: -
a. Lurking house-trespass
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. Attempt to commit theft
d. House-breaking
15. Five persons went to the house of Z armed with clubs to beat Z. Among these, one A was carrying a pistol concealing it underneath his clothes. During beating, A fired a shot resulting in Z's death.
a. Only A will be liable for causing the death
b. All of the above will be liable for beating Z
c. All of the above being the members of unlawful assembly will be liable for causing death
d. None of the above
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
16. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, it is omission and not an act, which is an offence?
a. Section 491
b. Section 296
c. Section 468
d. Section 508
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17. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative of husband is defined under:
a. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code
b. Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code
c. Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
d. Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
18. Which Section of Indian Penal Code defines 'cruelty'?
a. Section 304B
b. Section 356
c. Section 376A
d. Section 498A
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19. The Indian Penal Code was drafted by:
a. Second Law Commission of India
b. First Law Commission of India
c. Third Law Commission of India
d. Lord Macaulay
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
20. Minimum punishment as imprisonment provided under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is:
a. One week
b. 24 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 08 hours
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
21. Mark what is not a 'public document within the meaning of the expression used in the Evidence Act?
a. The records of Motor Accident Claims Tribunal.
b. The register of private documents maintained in the office of Sub- Registrar under the Registration Act.
c. The record of proceedings of the House of the People maintained in the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
d. Promote executed by 'A' while taking loan from a money lender.
Also Check: Evidence/BSA Free One Liner Notes
22. Under which section of the Evidence Act provisions for presumption as to Gazettes in Electronic forms has been made?
a. Section 81A
b. Section 85A
c. Section 85B
d. Section 88A
Also Check: Evidence/BSA Free Classes
23. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to presumption as to electronic agreement?
a. Section 81A
b. Section 85C
c. Section 88A
d. Section 85A
Also Check: BSA Bare Act
24. Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
A. A' agrees absolutely in writing to pay 'B' Rs. 1000 on the 1st March, 2010. The fact that at the same time an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till the thirty-first March, cannot be proved.
B. 'A' Sells 'B' a horse and verbally warrants him sound. 'A' gives 'B' a paper in these words "Bought of 'A', a horse for Rs. 500". 'B' may prove the verbal warranty.
a. (A) incorrect, (B) correct
b. (B) incorrect, (A) correct
c. Both correct
d. Both incorrect
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25 'Mistake' referred to in Proviso (1) to Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, refers to
a. unilateral mistake only
b. mutual mistake only
c. unilateral and mutual mistake
d. none of the above
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26. 'A' accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of self-control. 'B' denies this fact
a. The burden of proof must be shared by both 'A' and 'B'
b. The burden of proof is on 'B'
c. The burden of proof is on prosecution
d. The burden of proof is on 'A'
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27. Estoppel can be:
a. by silence
b. by negligence
c. by election
d. all the above
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28. Which is the correct statement in context of summary procedure for civil suits?
a. May be invoked for recovery of a liquidated demand in money payable by the defendant arising out a written contract.
b. May be applied suo motu by any civil court in its discretion in the interest of expeditious adjudication.
c. Requires the defendant to seek leave to defend which, if granted, must be unconditional
d. All these statements are not correct
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29. Under which one of the following provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 consequences of disobedience or breach of injunction has been described?
a. Order XXXII
b. Order XXXIII
c. Order XXXIX Rule 2A
d. None of the above
Also Check: CPC Free One Liner Notes
30. Which Rule of Order XXXIX of the Code provides that an injunction directed to the Corporation is binding not only on the Corporation but also on all members and officers of the Corporation whose personal action it seeks to restrain—
a. Rule 3
b. Rule 3A
c. Rule 4
d. Rule 5
Also Check: CPC Free Detailed Notes
31. A temporary injunction can be granted to a party establishing
a. a prima facie case in his favour
b. balance of convenience in his favour
c. irreparable injury to him in the event of non-grant of injunction
d. all of the above
Also Check: CPC Bare Act
32. Point out incorrect statement in the following—
a. Repugnancy between a law made by Parliament and a law made by a State Legislature under State List has mentioned in Article 254.
b. Repugnancy between a law made by Parliament a law made by a State Legislature on the same subject in List III is covered under Article 254.
c. A state legislation under Article 304(b) would remain valid even though the bill for purpose was introduced and passed without previous sanction of the President.
d. No constitutional amendment to amend Article 368 shall be validness required number of state legislatures have ratified the same.
Also Check: Constitution Free Classes
33. Which of the following is accepted as the official language of the Union of India
a. Hindi in both Devanagari and Urdu Scripts with Roman Numerals
b. English with Roman Numerals
c. Hindi in Devanagari Script with the International form of Indian Numerals
d. None of the above.
Also Check: Constitution Free One Liner Notes
34. Prior to the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, in which of the following cases the Supreme Court had observed that secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution?
1. State of W.B. v. Union of India
2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
3. M.H. Kureshi v. State of Bihar
4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
Also Check: Constitution Free Detailed Notes
35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I List II
A. Article 61 1. Appointment of ad hoc judges in the Supreme Court
B. Article 71 2. High Courts are courts of record
C. Article 127 3: People for the impeachment of the President
D. Article 215 4. Matters relating to the election of President or Vice President
a. CODE: A B C D - 1 4 3 2
b. CODE: A B C D - 3 2 1 4
c. CODE: A B C D - 1 2 3 4
d. CODE: A B C D - 3 4 1 2
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36. Where the mortgagor delivers, possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee authorizing him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgagee money and to receive the rent and profits accruing therefrom. Such a mortgage is called:
a. Usufructuary mortgage
b. Simple mortgage
c. Anomalous mortgage
d. English mortgage
Also Check: TPA Free Classes
37. Within the meaning of provisions of Section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act the mortgage remedies by suit are:
a. for foreclosure
b. for sale
c. for appointment of receiver
d. all are relevant
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38. A right to obtain a decree from the court that the mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called:
a. a right foreclosure
b. a right for claim
c. a right for redemption
d. a right for sale
Also Check: TPA Free Detailed Notes
39. Which of the following sections of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 imposes on a person, who sues for damages, a duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract?
a. Section 72
b. Section 73
c. Section 74
d. Section 75
Also Check: Contract Act Free Classes
40. A becomes surety to C for B's conduct as a manager of C's bank. Afterwards B and C contract, without A's permission that B shall become liable for one- fourth of the losses on overdraft. B allows a customer to withdraw and the bank losses a sum of money. To make good this loss A is—
a. Wholly liable
b. Not liable
c. Liable to the extent of one-fourth
d. Liable to the extent of three-fourth
Also Check: Contract-I Free One Liner Notes
41. 'Baliee' is a person:
a. to whom the goods are delivered
b. who delivers the goods
c. who fails to deliver the goods
d. none of the above
Also Check: Contract-II Free One Liner Notes
42. 'X' hires a carriage, of 'Y- The carriage is unsafe, though 'Y is not aware of it and 'X' is injured. For the injury to 'X', 'Y is—
a. Liable
b. Not liable
c. Liable to the extent of 50%
d. None of these
Also Check: Contract Act Detailed Notes
43. Which of the following statements is wrong? Perpetual injunction?
a. is granted by a decree
b. can be granted without notice to and hearing the defendant
c. can never be granted without notice to and hearing the defendant
d. can be granted on merits only
Also Check: SRA Free One Liner Notes
44. In which of the following case would the Court not grant perpetual injunction when the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiffs right to, or enjoyment of property?
a. Where the defendant is the agent of the plaintiff
b. Where compensation in money would not afford adequate relief
c. Where it is necessary to prevent multiplicity of judicial proceedings
d. Where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual loss caused to the plaintiff
Also Check: SRA Bare Act
45. Under the protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, besides passing orders for protection and residence, a Magistrate can pass:
a. Custody orders
b. Compensation orders
c. Exparte orders
d. All the above
Also Check: DV Act Free One Liner Notes
46. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Sections of Negotiable Act)
a. Cognizance of offences (i) Section 140
b. Power of Court to try
cases summarily (ii) Section 139
c. Defences which may not
be allowed in any
prosecution under Section 138 (iii) Section 143
d. Presumption in favour
of holder (iv) Section 142)
a. CODE: A B C D
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
b. CODE: A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
c. CODE: A B C D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
d. CODE: A B C D
(ii) (i) (iv) (ii)
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47. In order to rebut the presumption under Section 138 & 118 of N.I. Act accused
a. Must prove the absence of consideration by direct evidence
b. Must prove absence of consideration beyond reasonable doubt
c. Must give some evidence in defence
d. May rebut the presumption on the principle of preponderance of probability
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48. निम्न शब्द-समूहों में वचन की दृष्टि से कौनसा विकल्प सही नहीं है?
a. एकवचन. बहुवचन लता. – लताएँ
b. एकवचन. बहुवचन गाथा - गाथाएँ
c. एकवचन. बहुवचन कमा - क्षमाएँ
d. एकवचन. बहुवचन कन्या. – कन्याएँ
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49. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा वाक्य शुद्ध है?
a. मैं मंगलवार के दिन बात रखता हूँ
b. आपके प्रश्न का समाधान मेरे पास है।
c. यह उसका चश्मा भूल गया।
d. आज उसके रहस्य का राज खुल गया ।
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50. LICENCE शब्द का सही हिंदी रूपांतरण बताइए
a. पट्ट्टा ।
b. अनुज्ञति ।
c. अनुमति पत्र ।
d. प्रत्याभूति ।
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51. निम्न में से सही विकल्प बाइए
a. HONORARIUM मानदेय।
b. APPROVAL सस्तुति।
c. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT कार्यवाही।
d. OATH संदेश।
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52. खूब मन लगाकर पढ़ी ताकि परीक्षा में प्रथम आओं वाक्य में प्रयुक्त अध्यय कौनसा है ?
a. खूब
b. ताकि ।
c. मे
d. आओ।
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53. लिखते हुए किसी शब्द के छूट जाने पर उसे लिखने के लिए किस चिह्न का प्रयोग करते हैं-
a. कोष्ठक चिह्न ।
b. उद्धरण चिह्न ।
c. अल्प विराम चिह्न ।
d. हंसपद चिह ।
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54. 'खग जाने खग ही की भाषा का अभिप्राय हैः-
a. चालाक ही चालाक की बात समझ सकता है।
b. विद्वान् सभी भाषाओं का ज्ञाता होता है।
c. पक्षी ही पक्षी की बोली जानता है।
d. फालतू आदमी फालतू बात ही करता है।
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55. रोगी को बहुत घबराहट हो रही थी। वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द है
a. सज्ञा
b. किया
c. किया विशेषण
d. अवाय
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56. वह आदमी आ रहा है, वाक्य में 'वह' की व्याकरणिक कोटि है.
a. संज्ञा
b. सर्वनाम
c. विशेषण
d. अव्यय
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57. नौकर चिट्ठी लाया, वाक्य में क्रिया है;
a. अकर्मक
b. सकर्मक
c. पूर्वकालिक
d. प्रेरणार्थक
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58. कसौटी शब्द है
a. तत्सम
b. तदद्भव
c. देशज
d. विदेशी
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59. निम्न में से कौनसा नि उपसर्ग से निर्मित शब्द है?
a. निरपराध
b. निराकार
c. न्यून
d. निर्गम
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
60. निम्न में से कौनसा वाक्य अशुद्ध है?
a. वह क्रोध में भरकर चिल्लाने लगा।
b. अब मेरी बात मान लो।
c. यह राम का नाम लेकर चल पड़ा।
d. धन से रहित जीवन व्यर्थ है।
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61. निम्न में से कौनसा सही विलोम बर्ग नहीं है?
a. भिज्ञ अनभिज्ञ
b. विधवा सथवा
c. वाचाल मूक
d. नैसर्गिक कृत्रिम
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62. निम्न में से कौनसा शब्द-युग्म अर्थ की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण है?
a. निर्झर - झरना निर्जर - देवता
b. प्रसाद -कृपा प्रासाद - महल
c. षष्टि - छह षष्ठी- सात
d. अभिराम - अविराम सुंदर – लगातार
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63. ………… light comes from the sun.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No article
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64. Many shops were set up in…………. enclosed area
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. None of above
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65. NOTE: Out of four alternatives suggested, selected the one which best expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
He said “she is going to the party, isn’t she”?
a. He said that she had been going to the party and asked if she weren’t.
b. He confirmed whether she was going to the party or not
c. He told she was going to the party.
d. He said that she was going to the party or not
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66. NOTE: Select the correct indirect speech from the given sentence.
Mother said to me, “I’m worried about your safety.”
a. Mother told me that she had been worried about my safety
b. Mother told me that she was worried about my safety.
c. Mother said she is worried about your safety.
d. Mother said that I was worrying about your safety.
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67. He __________ daily for a year now.
a. Exercises
b. was exercising
c. nhas been exercising
d. have been exercising
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68. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?
Raza
a. Conceit
b. Forge
c. Encumber
d. Descry
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69. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word?
Retaliate
a. Facilitate
b. Rotate
c. Clap
d. React
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70. find the synonym of the given word?
Inevitable
a. Uncertain
b. Unavoidable
c. Doubtful
d. Dubious
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71. Directions identify the underlined word in the given sentence
I see him passing my house every day
a. Gerund
b. Present participle
c. Infinitive
d. Object
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72. I __________ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
a. have been
b. had been
c. shall be
d. Am
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73. Directions: select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank
The old neem tree which____________ in our compound for fifty years suddenly crashed to the ground last night.
a. Had stood
b. Has stood
c. Is standing
d. Stands
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74. DIRECTION: insert the correct word/expression
It is time you_________ home.
a. Go
b. Have go
c. Went
d. Are going
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75. They first sun-dried the garbage for one to three days to bring down the moisture level.
a. The moisture level was brought down by sun-drying the garbage for one to three days
b. One to three days of sun-drying brought down the moisture level of the garbage
c. The moisture level of the garbage came down when it was sun-dried for one to three days
d. The garbage was first sun-dried for one to three days to bring down the moisture level
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76. The people couldn’t move me to the hospital and the doctor operated on me at home.
a. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and was operated on at home by the doctor.
b. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I had to be operated on at home.
c. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I was operated at home by the doctor.
d. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital by the people and operated on at home
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77. Why did he deprive you of the membership?
a. Why you were deprived of the membership?
b. Why were you deprived of his membership by him?
c. Why was he deprived of his membership
d. Why were you deprived of your membership by him?
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78. If there is any appearance of consistency between the schedule and specific provision in an enactment, the ________ shall prevail?
a. Schedule
b. Provisions
c. Both will be applicable as per situation
d. None of the above
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79. Can a landlord evict a tenant under rent control laws without sufficient cause?
a. Yes, with a notice period of one month
b. Yes, with a notice period of three months
c. No, the landlord needs a valid reason to evict the tenant
d. No, eviction is not allowed under rent control laws
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Free One Liner Notes
80. Which of the following is not considered a valid reason for eviction under rent control laws?
a. Non-payment of rent
b. Subletting without permission
c. Violation of the rental agreement terms
d. Landlord's desire to occupy the property
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Bare Act
81. Before making any order under Section 4(1) of the Probation of Offenders Act, the Court shall take into consideration the report, if any, of the ________ concerned in relation to the case.
a. Police Officer
b. Probation Officer
c. Prosecutor
d. Special Commission
Also Check: Probation of Offenders Act Free One Liner Notes
82. Provided that for reasons to be recorded in writing, the Special Court under POCSO Act may permit disclosure of identity of the child, if in its opinion such disclosure
a. will help him establish his case
b. is in the interest of the child
c. necessary for national interest
d. all of the above
Also Check: POCSO Act One Liner Notes
83. What can be the reasons for a child’s interrogation as per the POCSO Act?
a. To establish whether the child needs urgent medical attention
b. To hear the child’s version of the circumstances leading to the concern
c. To get a picture of the child’s relationship with their parents or family
d. All of the above
Also Check: POCSO Act Free Classes
84. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 came into force on
a. 15th January 2015
b. 15th November 2016
c. 15th January 2016
d. 15th November 2015
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85. The upper age limit upto which a child having committed offence is considered to be a juvenile is:
a. 16 years
b. 18 years
c. 15 years
d. None of the above
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86. Which of the following constitutes a type of juvenile delinquency?
a. Status Offence
b. Civil Offence
c. Criminal Offence
d. A and C
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87. Sine qua non for unorganised sector is that number of workers should be less than ____.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 50
d. 100
88. “Advertisement” under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 includes-
a. Notice
b. Circular
c. Wrapper
d. All the above
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89. A Muslim woman can seek divorce if the husband is not traceable for a period of
a. 7 years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
d. 3 years
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90. Implied and contingent Talaq is not approved by
a. Maliki
b. Shia
c. Shaifi
d. All of the above
Also Check: Muslim Law Free Notes
91. 'A 'sale of goods' under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, creates:
a. a jus in rem
b. a jus in personam
c. both (1) and (2)
d. either (1) or (2) depending on the facts and circumstances of the case
Also Check: SOGA Free One Liner Notes
92. Baldry v. Marshall is a leading case relating to:
a. Fitness for buyer
b. Sale under a patent or trade name
c. Consent by fraud
d. None of the above
Also Check: SOGA Free Classes
93. When a minor elects to become a partner he becomes personally liable to third parties for all acts of the firm done since
a. he was admitted to be benefits of partnership.
b. from the date of his attaining majority.
c. from the date of his becoming a partner.
d. Both (2) and (3)
Also Check: Partnership Act Free One Liner Notes
94. The Doctrine of Holding Out is mentioned in:
a. Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act
b. Section 28 of the Indian Partnership Act
c. Section 29 of the Indian Partnership Act
d. None of the above
Also Check: Partnership Act Free Classes
95. A marriage solemnized between two Hindus would not be regarded as void under Section 11 of the Act if—
a. One party has a spouse living at the time of marriage
b. The parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship
c. Either party is incapable of giving a valid consent to the marriage due to unsoundness of mind
d. The parties are sapindas of each other
Also Check: Hindu Marriage Act Free Notes
96. Any male Hindu who has a wife living does not need the consent of wife to adopt son or daughter if wife has:
a. Completely and finally renounced the world
b. Ceased to be a Hindu
c. Declared to be of unsound mind
d. All of the above
97. Under section 17 of the Information Technology Act, 2000- who may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint a Controller of Certifying Authorities.
a. Court
b. State government
c. Central Government
d. None of the above
Also Check: IT Act One Liner Notes
98. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908-Documents of which registration is compulsory deals with
a. Section 13
b. Section 12
c. Section 17
d. Section 18
Also Check: Registration Act Bare Act
99. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950-Passes necessary for import export and transport deals with
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 14
d. Section 12
Also Check: Rajasthan Excise Act One Liner Notes
100. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961-Multifarious suits deals with
a. Section 5
b. Section 4
c. Section 6
d. Section 7