1. Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines
a. bailable offence
b. non-bailable
c. cognizable offence
d. non-cognizable
2. Non-bailable offence' implies an offence where:
a. the accused cannot be released on bail
b. grant of bail is discretionary with the court but the discretion has to be exercised on well established, principles for grant of bail
c. the accused may be considered for grant of bail only after the trial in the trial court begins
d. only the High Court is empowered to grant bail
3. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of term 'Victim' under Section 2(wa) of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
a. who suffers any loss
b. who suffers any injury
c. does not include guardian but legal heir
d. includes guardian as well as legal heir
4. Definition of offence is given in: —
a. Chapter-II of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Section 2(n) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
c. Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. All of the above
5. Under the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for filing an application for an order to set aside an abatement is:
a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
d. none of the above
6. Any suit for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule of the Limitation Act, the limitation would be—
a. One year
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Twelve years
7. Which one of the following cases is not related to the principle of joint liability based upon common intention?
a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
b. Mehboob Shah v. Emperor
c. Reg v. Govinda
d. J M Desai v. State of Bombay
8. A obtains a decree against B for a sum not due. It may be an offence under IPC if 'A' has done so
a. Negligently
b. Fraudulently
c. in good faith
d. none of the above
9. Which of the following is not correctly matched under IPC?
a. Furnishing false—information—Section 177
b. Giving false evidence—Section 191
c. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence—Section 205
d. Counterfeiting coin: —Section 231
10. The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 IPC was made clear by
a. Marshall, J in P v. Govinda
b. Melvill, J in Govinda v. R
c. Melvill, J in R v. Govinda
d. Marshall, J in Govinda v. R
11. 'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with 'C', wife of 'A'. 'B' contested by denying the allegation. 'B' was found guilty and convicted in said case. Subsequently, 'C' was prosecuted on charge of bigamy on allegations that she had married 'B' during subsistence of her marriage with 'A'. 'C' contested by denying that she was ever married to 'A'. In the case against 'C', the judgment in the first case against 'B' is
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Binding
d. None of these
12. Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of the Evidence Act:
a. is a conclusive proof
b. is not a conclusive proof
c. is not relevant
d. is not admissible
13. An expert is competent to testify which of the following?
a. Matters of Science
b. Questions of Art
c. Foreign Law
d. All of the above
14. 'B', 'C' and 'D' never saw 'A' writing. But they give their opinion about the handwriting of 'A'. The opinion of which one is relevant?
a. of 'B', because 'B' is a merchant in Delhi. 'A' has written many letters addressed to 'B'
b. of 'C' because 'C' is a clerk of 'A' 'C's duty was to examine and file A's correspondence
c. of 'D' because 'D' is Z's broker to whom Z habitually submitted the letters purporting to B written by 'A' for the purpose of his advice
d. All of the above
15. Where the suit is dismissed under rule 2 or 3 of order 9 C.P.C., the plaintiff?
a. May bring a fresh suit subject to Law of Limitation
b. Cannot bring a fresh suit
c. May bring a fresh suit with the leave of High Court
d. May bring a fresh suit with the leave of District Judge
16. A Suit may be dismissed where, after a summons has been issued to the defendant and returned unserved, plaintiff fails the apply for fresh summons for the period of—
a. Seven days
b. Sixty days
c. One month
d. Two months when the plaintiff fails to apply for fresh summons from the court
17. Jurisdiction of a court is decided by
a. subject matter of the dispute
b. pecuniary value of the suit
c. place where the dispute arose
d. all of the above
18. List of witnesses, after settlement of issues, must be filed within
a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days
19. The Chief Minister of National Capital Territory of Delhi is appointed by—
a. Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
b. President of India
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Chief Justice of Delhi High Court
20. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1. No bill can be introduced in the legislature of a state for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade without previous sanction of the President.
2. No bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament for altering the name of a state without the name of a state without the recommendation of the President and the concurrence of the state legislature concerned.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
21. Article 329 of the Constitution deals with
a. Amending power of Parliament
b. Taxing power of Parliament
c. Delimitation of Electoral constituencies
d. None of the above
22. Which one of the following is correct statement?
In deciding the question as to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the President shall act
a. according to the opinion of the Election Commission
b. according to the opinion of the Supreme Court
c. with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
d. in his own discretion
23. 'A' entered into an agreement with B' to sell immovable property of the former for consideration and 'B' was put in possession of the property. Both parties had signed the agreement. The agreement had not been registered under the Indian Registration Act. In a suit between the parties, 'B claimed the benefit of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act. Whether his claim is maintainable?
a. Yes, it is maintainable
b. No, it is not maintainable since the agreement was not registered
c. No, since the sale deed was not executed
d. None of the above
24. A leading case on restriction repugnant to interest created is: -
a. Cooper v. Cooper
b. Tulk v. Moxhay
c. Bellani v. Sabbine
d. Ariff v. Yadunath
25. Which of the following is the essential element of the principles of election:
a. Unauthorised transfer of property
b. A transaction
c. Profit-gift
d. All of the above
26. Which of the following cases is related to the 'doctrine of frustration'?
a. Hadley v. Baxendale
b. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
c. Satyabrata Ghosh v. Mugneeram
d. Madras Railway Co. v. Govind Rao
27. "A Contract is a contract between the parties to the contract. A third party is a stranger to the contract even if it is avowedly made for his benefit." This is known as
a. principle of estoppels
b. nullity of contract
c. constructive contract
d. privity of contract.
28. A person rightfully rescinding a contract is:
a. Entitled to claim damages
b. Not entitled to claim damages
c. Entitled to sue for wrongful repudiation of the contract
d. Both (a) and (c)
29. 'X' a magician agrees With Z to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is: —
a. voidable at the option of Z
b. Illegal
c. impossible in itself and void
d. Enforceable
30. To claim specific performance of a contract, it is
a. necessary to plead and prove that the plaintiff is ready and willing to perform his part of contract
b. necessary to plead and prove that the plaintiff has always been ready and willing to perform his part of contract
c. necessary to prove that the plaintiff was ready and willing to perform his part of contract
d. even if not pleaded and proved accordingly the Court can draw such inference from the circumstance
31. Relief of rescission is granted in cases:
a. Where the contract is void
b. Where the contract is voidable
c. Both void & voidable contracts
d. Neither void nor voidable contracts
32. A protection order made under Section 18 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 shall be in force till
a. the period of 60 days expires
b. the Magistrate desires
c. the aggrieved person applies for discharge
d. the respondent applies for discharge
33. Presumption under Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is in respect of-
a. That the cheque was signed by the accused
b. That the cheque was dishonouredby the banker
c. That the cheque was issued for discharge of any debt
d. That the cheque is valid under banking laws
34. An offence under Section 138 N.I. Act was tried summarily. But the court imposed on the accused a sentence of imprisonment for one year. The sentence is
a. Legal
b. only irregular
c. only improper
d. Irregular
35. वे शब्द जो किसी संस्कृत या प्राकृत मूल से निकले हुए नहीं जान पडते और जिनकी व्युत्पत्ति का पता नहीं लगता, कहलाते है: -
a. तत्सम
b. व्यंजन
c. देशज
d. खड़ी बोली
36. स्वर, व्यंजन, विसर्ग किसके विभिन्न प्रकार है:-
a. विशेषण
b. संजा
c. सर्वनाम
d. संधि
37. जिस सर्वनाम से वक्ता के पास अथवा दूर की किसी वस्तु का बोध होता हो, को कहते है :-
a. निजवाचक सर्वनाम
b. निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
c. अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
d. संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम
38. संजा या सर्वनाम का क्रिया के साथ संबंध निर्धारित करने वाले तत्व कहलाते है :-
a. विशेषण
b. अव्यय
c. क्रिया
d. कारक
39. दो या अधिक शब्दों के परस्पर संबंध बताने वाले शब्दों अपता प्रत्ययों का लीप होने पर, दो या अधिक शब्द में से जो एक स्वतंत्र शब्द बनता है, कहलाता है:-
a. समास
b. उपसर्ग
c. विशेषण
d. संजा
40. हाय । अब मैं क्या करू' किस प्रकार का आध्यय है
a. क्रिया विशेषण
b. संबंध सूचक
c. समुच्चयबोधक
d. विस्मयादिबोधक
41. क्रिया के उस रुपान्तरण की, जिससे क्रिया के व्यापार का समय तथा उसकी पूर्ण अथवा अपूर्ण अवस्था का बोध होता है. को कहते है
a. समास
b. सर्वनाम
c. काल
d. कारक
42. निम्न में से कौनसा शब्द "चांदनी" का समानार्थी नहीं है?
a. चन्द्रिका
b. कोमुदी
c. ज्योत्स्ना
d. कालत्र
43. उत्+हार की संधि है
a. उद्गार
b. उदहार
c. उद्धार
d. उधार
44. 'कामचोर' में समास है:-
a. अपादान तत्पुरुष
b. अव्ययी भाव
c. करण तत्पुरुष
d. बहुब्रीहि
45. निम्नांकित में से 'पुत्री' शब्द का पर्यायवाची नहीं है:-
a. तनया
b. आत्मजा
c. दुहिता
d. अबला
46. 'सृजन' शब्द का विलोम है: -
a. निर्माण
b. संहार
c. विजन
d. दुर्जन
47. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध शब्द है-
a. कवयित्री
b. कवियत्री
c. कवित्री
d. कवियत्रि
48. इनमें से निषेधुवाचक वाक्य है-
a. वाह। तुमने तो कमाल कर दिया।
b. सदा सत्य बोलो।
c. तुमने यह पुस्तक कब खरीदी ?
d. विद्यार्थी कक्षा में उपस्थित नहीं था।
49. निम्नांकित में से शुद्ध वाक्य है :-
a. तुलसीदास ने रामचरितमानस का प्रणयन किया।
b. तुलसीदास ने रामायण का प्रणयन किया।
c. तुलसीदास ने रामचरितमानस का पारायण किया।
d. तुलसीदास ने रामचरितमानस का संयोजन किया।
50. For me, breakfast is……………… best meal of the day.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. none of the above
51. ………….. Children recited………...poem in…………...honour of………… prime minister.
a. The, a, an, a
b. A, the, the, the
c. No article, a, an, the
d. The, a, the, the
52. NOTE: Select the correct the indirect form of the given sentence.
Priya Said, “Yes, I am confounded.
a. Priya admitted that she was confounded.
b. Priya admitted that she is confound.
c. Priya admitted that she was confound.
d. Priya admitted that she was confounded.
53. NOTE: Select the correct the indirect form of the given sentence.
Pritam said, “The prisoner had slept throughout the journey.”
a. Pritam said that the prisoner had been sleeping throughout the journey.
b. Pritam said that the prisoner had sleep throughout the journey.
c. Pritam said that the prisoner had slept throughout the journey.
d. Pritam said that the prisoner has slept throughout the journey.
54. What is most appropriate antonym of the given word?
Buffer
a. Cushion
b. Aggravate
c. Dampen
d. Palliate
55. What is most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?
Trajectory
a. Path
b. Descent
c. Nadir
d. Ascension
56. What is most appropriate synonym of the given word?
Discretionary
a. Mandatory
b. Arbitrary
c. Inflexible
d. Irrevocable
57. What is most appropriate synonym of the given word?
Evocatively
a. Soporific
b. Poignant
c. Mundane
d. Obsolete
58. Choose the correct past tense of the word “Run.”
a. Runed
b. Ranned
c. Ran
d. Running
59. Which of the following sentences uses the modal ‘can’ to express a ability?
a. Jackie cannot play piano
b. You can go home now
c. I can speck two languages
d. Can I call you back later?
60. Directions: choose the correct form of tense for the given sentence:
Although he________ hard for over five years, he hasn’t got a degree yet
a. Has been studying
b. Will study
c. Studied
d. None of the above
61. Direction: Fill the blanks with present perfect tense of the verb the given option:
The tourist___________ his wallet recently
a. Lost
b. Had lost
c. Has lost
d. Have lost
62. Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self-defense.
a. The criminal spoke not a word in self-defense.
b. The criminal in self defense spoke no word.
c. The criminal did not speak a word in self defense.
d. The criminal spoke in self defense, not a word.
63. The news has been brought to us by him.
a. He brought us the news.
b. He has brought us the news.
c. He was brought the news to us.
d. We brought the news to him.
64. We serve hot meals till 10.30 guests can order, coffee and sandwiches upto 11.30.
a. Hot meals are serving till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11.30.
b. Hot meals are being served till 10.30 coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11-30
c. Hot meals are served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches may be ordered till 1 1.30.
d. Hot meals will be served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11.30.
65. According to the ________ rule of interpretation, meaning of a word should be known from its Accompany ignore associating words?
a. Mischief rule
b. Golden rule
c. Noscitur a sociis
d. Primary rule
66. Section 8 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 deals with:
a. Eviction of tenants
b. Limited period tenancy
c. Revision of rent in respect of new tenancies
d. Revision of rent in respect of existing tenancies
67. Under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord shall, on a petition being filed in this behalf in the Rent Tribunal, be entitled to recover immediate possession of a residential premise, if he:
a. Is or was a member of any armed forces or paramilitary forces of the Union and aforesaid petition is filed within one year, prior to or subsequent to the date of retirement, release or discharge, as the case may be, or within a period of one year from the date of commencement of this Act, whichever is later.
b. Is or was an employee of the Central Government or the State Government or local bodies or State-owned corporations and files the aforesaid petition within a period prior to or subsequent to the date of his retirement or within a period of one year from the date of the commencement of this Act, whichever is later.
c. Has become a senior citizen and files the aforesaid petition after the expiry of three years from the date of letting out of premises.
d. Is or was a member of any armed forces or paramilitary forces of the Union and aforesaid petition is filed within one year, prior to or subsequent to the date of retirement, release or discharge, as the case may be, or within a period of one year from the date of commencement of this Act, whichever is later.
68. The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is Act No. _____ of 1958
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
d. 20
69. Under Section 2(l) of POCSO Act "Special Court" means a court designated as such under
a. Section 26
b. Section 27
c. Section 28
d. Section 29
70. Section 3 of POCSO Act states
a. Section 3 of POCSO Act states
b. Penetrative sexual assault
c. Sexual assault
d. Sexual harassment
71. As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, which of the following children can be kept in special homes?
a. Children in conflict with law
b. Neglected children
c. Abused children
d. Street children
72. Juvenile Justice Care and Protection of Children Act was passed by the Government of India in?
a. 1984
b. 1993
c. 2000
d. 2004
73. Where is the Juvenile Justice or children's rights included in the Constitution?
a. Clause (3) of article 15
b. Clause (e) of article 39
c. Clause (f) of article 39
d. All of the above
74. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 was enacted on_______.
a. 22nd April, 2013
b. 19th June, 2013
c. 23rd February, 2013
d. 16th May, 2013
75. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 came into force on-
a. 2nd day of October, 1987
b. 3rd day of November, 1987
c. 2nd day of October, 1986
d. 3rd day of December, 1986
76. On the ground of fosterage a Muslim marriages is—
a. Void (Batil)
b. Vaild (Sahih)
c. Irregular (Fasid)
d. Muta
77. Under the Muslim Law, 'Khula' and 'Mubara'at' are:
a. the forms of marriage
b. the forms of dissolution of marriage by agreement
c. the forms of repudiation of gift on attaining majority
d. the forms of demanding pre-emption
78. Section 9 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides for
a. agreement to sell at valuation
b. ascertainment of price
c. conditions and warranties
d. Both (1) and (2)
79. Nemo dat quod non habet (no man can confer a better title than that which he himself has) is an established principle of:
a. Rule of transfer of property
b. Rule of Law of Torts
c. Rule of Law of crimes
d. Rule of contract
80. Under Section 2(b) of the Indian Partnership Act, 'business' includes
a. every trade and occupation
b. every occupation and profession
c. every trade, occupation and profession
d. every trade and profession
81. The mode of determining the existence of partnership has been laid down in
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
82. The Court of Session is described in which section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
83. Which section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 specifies the courts by which offences are triable?
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 23
d. Section 24
84. Which section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 outlines the powers of superior officers of police?
a. Section 30
b. Section 31
c. Section 32
d. Section 33
85. The procedure for claims and objections to attachment is outlined in which section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 86
b. Section 87
c. Section 88
d. Section 89
86. Abetment under Section 45 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 can be constituted by:—
a. Instigation
b. Conspiracy
c. Intentional aid
d. All of these
87. Chapter X of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals:—
a. with false evidence and offences against public justice
b. with offences relating to elections
c. with offences relating to coin and government stamps
d. with offences relating to weight and measures
88. Under BNS ‘Stolen property’ is
a. Property the possession whereof has been transferred by theft, extortion, or robbery.
b. Property criminally misappropriated.
c. Property in respect of which criminal breach of trust has been committed.
d. All of the above.
89. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which ingredient is not necessary to constitute an offence of abetment
a. Conspiracy
b. Intentional aid
c. Instigation
d. Act abetted should be committed
90. Which section of BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 is often referred to as the res gestae doctrine, Which is a Latin phrase that means "things done".
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
91. Section 22 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Admissions by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit.
b. Confession to police officer.
c. Confession caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise, when irrelevant in criminal proceeding.
d. When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant.
92. Section 67 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Admissibility of electronic records.
b. Proof of document not required by law to be attested.
c. Proof of execution of document required by law to be attested.
d. Proof as to electronic signature.
93. Which section OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with Presumption as to certified copies of foreign judicial records.
a. section 84
b. section 87
c. section 88
d. section 89
94. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented according to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if the spouses have been living separately for a period of:-
a. 2 year
b. 3 year
c. I year
d. 4 year
95. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filing petition for:-
a. Judicial Separation
b. Void marriage.
c. Divorce
d. Voidable marriage
96. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 -Duties of subscriber of Electronic Signature Certificate.
a. Section 48
b. Section 41
c. Section 40A
d. Section 42
97. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908 -Persons to present documents for registration.
a. Section 36
b. Section 34
c. Section 32
d. Section 33
98. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 -Power of State Government to declare what is to be deemed "liquor"
a. Section 7
b. Section 6
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
99. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961-Levy of fee in Courts and Public offices.
a. Section 7
b. Section 6
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
100. Under which section of “The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956- General Superintendence of Subordinate Revenue Courts.
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 9
d. Section 10