1. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police Officer can arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without warrant?
a. Section 42
b. Section 40
c. Section 51
d. Section 41
2. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, if a person is arrested by Police Officer without warrant, whether such person, has been admitted to bail or otherwise, the officer in-charge of the police station shall report to
a. The District Magistrate only
b. The sub-divisional Magistrate only
c. The District Magistrate or if he so directs, to the Sub-divisional Magistrate
d. The Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
3. A is a magistrate in his presence one murder took place during his morning walk, whether he can arrest the culprit himself:
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only police can arrest
d. As the Magistrate has to try the case he cannot arrest
4. Duty of a person making arrest includes
a. giving information regarding the arrest and place of detention to any of his friends, relatives or nominees
b. informing the person of his rights as soon as he is brought to the police station
c. an entry of the fact as to who is the person informed, in a book kept in police station for this purpose
d. all of the above
5. Which of the following statements is not correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
a. Where a private person or an authorised person has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to the custody of police; such private person can also make search of such arrested person
b. Enquiry and trial, both are included in 'judicial proceedings'
c. Complaint may be made by any person and it is not necessary that the injured or the affected only should complain
d. Charges are framed only in warrant cases: there is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons cases
6. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
If a person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, the Police Officer may—
a. Use all the means necessary to effect the arrest
b. Cause the death of such person irrespective of the offence he has committed
c. Cause the death of such person accused of murder
d. Cause the death of such person accused of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
7. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that the person of a female shall be examined only by or under the supervision of a female registered medical practitioner?
a. Section 53(2)
b. Section 55(2)
c. Section 60(2)
d. Section 54
8. Under section 53A of Cr.P.C., when a person is arrested on the charge of committing rape, the arrestee may be examined by a registered medical practitioner other than a registered medical practitioner employed in a hospital run by the Government or by a local authority when the later is not available within a radius of Sixteen kilometres from the place
a. Where the offence has been committed
b. Where the arrest was made
c. Where the nearest police station is situated
d. where the nearest court is situated
9. For a suit for which no Limitation period is provided, the period of limitation will be
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Twelve years
d. Thirty years
10. The period of limitation for preferring an appeal to the High Court from an order of sentence, other than the sentence of death, is
a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 60 days
d. 45 days
11. Wrongful confinement has been defined under:—
a. Section 339 of IPC
b. Section 340 of IPC
c. Section 342 of IPC
d. None of these
12. Under IPC, sexual intercourse by a man with a woman who is not his wife with her consent is a rape, if she is below the age of
a. 16 years
b. 17 years
c. 18 years
d. 19 years
13. Naz Foundation case relates to which of the following provisions:
a. Section 491 of the IPC
b. Section 377 of the IPC
c. Section 293 of the IPC
d. Section 497 of the IPC
14. A cut down a tree on B's land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B's possession without B's consent. A commits
a. no offence until the tree is taken away
b. the offence of criminal misappropriation of property
c. the offence of criminal breach of trust
d. the offence of theft, as soon as the severance of the tree from the ground is complete
15. Which one of the following is not an essential element of the offence of theft Under BNS
a. Dishonest intention to take property
b. Property must be movable
c. Property should be taken out of the possession of another person
d. Property must be immovable
16. A' & 'B' orally agrees to sell an estate. 'A' dishonestly induces 'B' to make A advance payment of Rs. 5 lacs and make final payment at the execution of conveyance. 'B' pays advance amount. Later on, at the request of 'B' to execute the conveyance, 'A' denies the agreement as well as the receipt of any amount. What offence has been committed by 'A'?
a. Offence under Section 403, Indian Penal Code
b. Offence under Section 406, Indian Penal Code
c. Offence under Section 420, Indian Penal Code
d. Offence under Section 420 & 465, Indian Penal Code
17. A, with six others, commits the offences of rioting, grievous hurt and assaulting a public servant endeavoring in the discharge of his duty as such to suppress the riot. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under which Sections of IPC
a. 107, 324 & 353
b. 147, 325 & 152
c. 353, 326A & 34
d. 148, 152 & 323
18. The Supreme Court of India has observed a clear distinction between dishonestly and fraudulently in the case of
a. Nathu Lal v. State of M.P.
b. Central Bank of India v. Narain
c. Mubarik Ali v. State of Bombay
d. Vimla Devi v. Delhi Administration
19. Which section of Evidence Act deals with Primary evidence?
a. Section 60
b. Section 62
c. Section 64
d. Section 65
20. An item of evidence which is not a secondary evidence is
a. copies made from the original
b. copies compared with the original
c. oral accounts of the contents of a document given by a person who himself has seen it
d. Counter part of a document as against the person who executed it
21. Out of the following which is not a secondary evidence?
a. Copies made from the original by mechanical process
b. Copies made from and compared with the original
c. Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by a person who has himself seen and read it
d. Oral account of a copy compared with the original
22. In the Evidence Act, the conditions in respect of computer output to be deemed and admissible in evidence as document is contained in
a. Section 65(B)(4)
b. Section 65(B)(1)
c. Section 65(B)(2)
d. Section 65(B)(5)
23. Under Indian Evidence Act, a document required by law to be attested, can be proved by calling:
a. both the attesting witnesses
b. at least one of the attesting witness
c. any other person
d. a legal heir of the attesting witness
24. Section 32 of IEA does not speak of which of the following kind of persons;
a. Person who is dead
b. Person who cannot be found
c. Person who is unwilling to give evidence
d. Person who has become incapable to giving evidence
25. Which of the following is not a public document?
a. Affidavit
b. Judgement of court
c. Arrest-warrant
d. Will
26. Section 92 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Evidence of terms of contracts, grants and other dispositions of property reduced to form of document.
b. Presumption as to books, maps and charts.
c. Presumption as to documents thirty years old.
d. Presumption as to electronic records five years old.
27. Where a suit abates or is dismissed under the provision of order 22 C P.C., then a second suit on the same cause of action
a. Can be instituted with the prior permission of the court
b. With the consent of the parties
c. Second suit cannot be instituted
d. On showing sufficient cause, suit can be instituted
28. To which of the cases the provisions of order 22 rule 3 and 4 C.P.C. do not apply?
a. Suit
b. Execution proceedings
c. First appeal
d. Second appeal
29. An agreement entered into or compromise on behalf of a minor without the leave of the Court, under Order 32, Rule 7 of C.P.C. is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable against all the parties other than the minor
d. None of the above
30. Under Order XXXII Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a next friend of a minor can be removed:
a. if he ceases to reside in India during the pendency of the suit
b. where his interest becomes adverse to that of the minor
c. where he does not do his duty
d. for any of the above reasons
31. The Provision of Article 368 of the constitution of India as it stands today, deals with:
a. power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
b. procedure for amendment of the constitution to be followed by Parliament
c. power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
d. passing and satisfaction of amendment Bills by State Legislatures
32. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India containing Articles 243ZH to 243ZT pertaining to the Cooperative Societies was inserted by:
a. Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment Act, 1992)
b. Constitution (Ninety Seventy Amendment Act, 2011)
c. Constitution (Ninety first Amendment Act, 2003)
d. Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment Act, 2010)
33. Total number of languages recognized in the Constitution of India are:
a. 28
b. 31
c. 22
d. 18
34. After which one of the following Supreme court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?
a. D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat
b. M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore
c. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
d. T. Devadasan v. Union of India
35. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Oral transfer Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act
b. Rule against perpetuity Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act
c. Doctrine of election Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act
d. Transfer by ostensible owner Section 40 of the Transfer of Property Act
36. 'A' sells his house to 'B' with a condition that B' cannot transfer his house to anyone except 'C. The sale is
a. Valid but condition is void
b. Void
c. Unlawful
d. Voidable
37. According to Section 54 of Transfer of Property Act, a contract for the sale of immovable property
a. Create any interest in the property
b. Create charge on the property
c. Confer title on the property
d. A contract that a sale of such property shall take place on terms settled between the parties
38. The judicial basis of quasi-contractual obligation can be explained through the principle of:
a. Voluntary benefits
b. Just and reasonable solution
c. Unjust enrichment
d. "Indebitus—assumpsit"
39. Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a:
a. Bailor
b. Surety
c. Bailee
d. Principal debtor
40. Quasi contractual obligations are based on the theory propounded by whom?
a. Lord Wright
b. Lord Sumner
c. Anson
d. Lord Mansfield
41. The principle of assessment of damages for breach is given in:
a. Hadley v. Baxendale
b. Scarf v. Zodine
c. King v. Horr
d. Hyde v. Wrench
42. Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions:
a. Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
b. Such as are of continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court
c. Regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure
d. Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit
43. Under Section 37 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 a temporary injunction can be granted-
a. After settlement of the issues
b. Before the conclusion of plaintiff’s evidence
c. Before the conclusion of defendant's evidence
d. At any stage of the suit
44. Domestic relationship means:
a. Relationship with family members living together as a joint family
b. Relationship with family members living together in a nuclear family
c. Relationship as sisters, widow, mother, single women, living with abuser
d. All the above
45. The delay in filing a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, can be condoned:
a. under Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963
b. under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
c. under Section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
d. under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
46. In which of the following judgments has the Supreme Court held that only those courts within whose territorial limits the drawee bank is situated, would have jurisdiction to try the cases for offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
a. K. Bhaskaran v. Sankaran Vaidhyan Balan and Another, (1999) 7 SCC 510
b. Dashrath Rup Singh Rathood v. State of Maharashtra and Another, (2014) 9 SCC 129
c. State of Bihar and Others v. Kalyanpur Cement Limited, (2010) 3 SCC 274
d. None of the above
47. ब्रजभाषा' है ?
a. पश्चिमी हिन्दी
b. बिहारी हिन्दी
c. पहाड़ी हिन्दी
d. पूर्वी हिन्दी
48. 'अभ्यंतर शब्द में कौनसी संधि प्रयुक्त हुई है?
a. यण संधि ।
b. वृद्धि संधि ।
c. गुण संधि ।
d. दीर्घ संधि ।
49. जिस समास में प्रथम पद संख्यावाचक अर्थात गणनाबोधक होता है तथा दूसरा पद प्रधान होता है. उत्से कहते हैं:-
a. द्वंद्व समास ।
b. द्विगु समास ।
c. तत्पुरुष समास ।
d. कर्मधारय समास ।
50. निम्नलिखित में से एक से अधिक उपसर्ग वाला शब्द चुनिए-
a. निर्विरोध ।
b. अंतरराष्ट्रीय ।
c. संक्षेपण ।
d. परिमार्जन ।
51. इनमें से कौनसा शब्द पर्वत का सही पर्याय नहीं है ?
a. भूधर।
b. शैल।
c. वर्त्य ।
d. नग ।
52. निम्नलिखित शब्द-युग्मों में से विलोम शब्द का सही विकल्प बताइएः-
a. जड़-चेतना ।
b. निर्दय सदाशय ।
c. शुभ-लाभ ।
d. नैसर्गिक कृत्रिम ।
53. जिजीविषा शब्द का अर्थ प्रकट करनेवाला बयां है-
a. जानने की इथग ।
b. ग्रहण करने की इच्छा ।
c. किसी को जीतने की इच्छा ।
d. जिंदा रहने की इच्छा ।
54. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध शब्द बताइए
a. प्योताना।
b. द्वारका।
c. मंत्रीमंडल।
d. हरितिमा ।
55. निम्न में से कौनसा अशुद्ध शब्द नहीं है?
a. प्रमाणिक
b. रचियता
c. कवियत्री
d. अन्त्याक्षरी
56. किस स्थिति में अवतरण चिह्न का प्रयोग सामान्यतः नहीं होता है?
a. किसी के महत्त्वपूर्ण वचन उद्धृत करने में।
b. अप्रचलित अथवा विशेष प्रचलित शब्दों में।
c. व्यक्तियों के उपनामों में।
d. रचना का अनुवाद करते हुए।
57. किस शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद त्रुटिपूर्ण है?
a. अभीष्ट अभि + इष्ट
b. मय वाक् मय
c. अब्त अप्+ ज
d. महेश्वर्य महा एश्वर्य
58. निम्न में से कौनसा, वचन संबंधी त्रुटि वाला वाक्य है?
a. महात्मा जी का दर्शन करके मैं धन्य हो गया।
b. श्रोताओं में कई श्रेणियों के लोग थे।
c. विद्रोहियों को कुत्तों की तरह घसीटा गया।
d. हर एक ने टोपी पहन रखी थी।
59. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द पर्यायवाची है?
a. विभावरी, निशाचरी, रजनी
b. मधुकरी, मिक्षा, भीख
c. मान, सम्मान, मान्य
d. अंबुधि, अर्णय, न
60. किस मुहावरे का अभिप्राय गलत है?
a. आकाश के तारे तोड़ लाना असंभव कार्य कर डालना।
b. आँख का काजल चुरा लेना बढ़ी बारीकी से चोरी करना।
c. द्रौपदी का चीर होना कभी समाप्त न होने वाली।
d. ताल कटना संगीत में माधा उपस्थित होना।
61. अपने घर, गाँव या नगर में किसी का आदर नहीं होता, अभिव्यक्ति हेतु निकटतम लोकोक्ति है-
a. घर की खाँड किरकिरी, बाहर का गुढ़ मीठा।
b. घर के पीरों को तेल का मलीदा
c. घर की बिल्ली घर में ही शिकार।
d. पर आये नाग न पूजिए बामी पूजन जाय।
62. ………….. student should learn from the best expert she or he can find.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No article
63. I Saw………… old man yesterday.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No article
64. NOTE: In the following question, a question is giving indirect speech. Out of four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the sentence in indirect speech.
Rahul said, “I will do it now or never.”
a. Rahul said that I will do it now or never
b. Rahul said that I would do it now or never.
c. Rahul said that he would do it now or never
d. Rahul said if he would do it then or never
65. NOTE: Direction choose the most appropriate form of indirect speech for the given sentence.
She said to me, “Where are going for the vacation.
a. She asked me where I was going for the vacation.
b. She said that where I was going for the vacation.
c. She asked me that where I was going for the vacation.
d. She asked where I had been going for the vacation.
66. Select the most appropriated ANTONYM of the given word?
Hospitality
a. Complaint
b. Cordiality
c. Coldness
d. Wrathful
67. Select the most appropriated ANTONYM of the given word?
TENACIOUS
a. Persistent
b. Relentless
c. Steadfast
d. Yielding
68. Select the most appropriated synonym of the given word?
Bafflement
a. Confusion
b. Pleasure
c. Clarity
d. Cleanliness
69. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word?
Perjury
a. Melancholy
b. Frankness
c. Penury
d. Falsehood
70. Choose the most appropriate answer and fill in the blanks.
The verb form of ‘Hard’ is ___________.
a. Harden
b. Harder
c. Hardest
d. Hard
71. Which one of the following words is a verb?
a. Sympathy
b. Sympathize
c. Sympathetic
d. Sympathizer
72. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct form of the verb.
By the time I meet him, he_________ reading the voluminous novel.
a. Was finishing
b. Had finished
c. Will finish
d. Finished
73. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
She___________ her daughter to school before she goes to work.
a. Takes
b. Taking
c. Has taken
d. Took
74. Jayesh has sent the email.
a. The email has had been sent by Jayesh.
b. The email has been sent by Jayesh.
c. The email was sent by Jayesh.
d. The email was send by Jayesh.
75. The agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening.
a. The secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening.
b. The secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening.
c. The secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening.
d. The secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening.
76. The teacher should check the homework.
a. The homework should be checked by the teacher.
b. The homework is checked by the teacher.
c. The teacher is responsible for checking homework.
d. The homework will be checked by the teacher
77. _______sets out in general terms, the purpose of the Act and it often precedes the preamble?
a. Long title
b. Short title
c. Preamble
d. None of above
78. Which government body is responsible for implementing rent control laws in India?
a. Central Board of Direct Taxes
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. State Rent Control Boards
d. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
79. What is the maximum limit for the security deposit that a landlord can collect from a tenant under rent control laws?
a. One month's rent
b. Two months' rent
c. Three months' rent
d. Four months' rent
80. Simultaneous direction for releasing the offender and directing him to pay compensation and cost is dealt in _________.
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
81. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a Special Public Prosecutor under POCSO only if he had been in practice for not less than _______ years as an advocate.
a. Three
b. Five
c. Seven
d. Ten
82. Can a child be repeatedly called under POCSO Act to testify?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, in certain circumstances
d. Yes, on written permission on defense counsel
83. As per the JJ Act 2015 child in need of care and protection means?
I. Child found without any home or settled place of abode and without any ostensible means of subsistence
II. Child found working in contravention of labour laws for the time being in force or is found begging
a. Only i
b. Only ii
c. Both i and ii
d. None of the above
84. As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, which of the following children can be kept in special homes?
a. Children in conflict with law
b. Neglected children
c. Abused children
d. All of the above.
85. The legal provision in India that mandates the establishment of Child Welfare Committees (CWCs) is under:
a. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
b. The Child Rights Protection Act
c. The Child Welfare Act
d. The Child Protection Act
86. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 covers
a. Workplace only
b. Dwelling house only
c. Both workplace and dwelling house
d. None of the above
87. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 extends to-
a. The whole of India
b. The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
c. The whole of Union
d. None of the above
88. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that marriages of all persons who are citizen of India belonging to various religions should be made compulsorily registrable in their respective States?
a. M. Jaimoon v. M. Amman Ullah Khan and Others
b. Khursid Bibi v. Mohd. Amin
c. Seema v. Ashwini Kumar
d. Shahnaj Bano v. Parvej Ahmad Khan
89. Which of the following is of the legal consequences of divorce under Muslim Law?
a. The parties acquire the right to contract another marriage.
b. Cohabitation becomes unlawful.
c. Mutual rights of inheritance ceases.
d. All of the above
90. A contract of sale is a contract of sale by sample:
a. only when there is a an express term in the contract to that effect
b. only when there is an implied term in the contract to that effect
c. when there is an express or implied term in the contract to the effect
d. irrespective of whether the contract contains a term for that effect or not
91. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is based on:
a. The English Bill of Exchange Act, 1882
b. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
c. The English Sale of Goods Act, 1893
d. The Indian Contract Act, 1872
92. The historic case laying down the test for determining the existence of partnership is
a. Grave v. Smith
b. Waugh v. Carver
c. Bloream v. Pell
d. Cox v. Hickman
93. Implied authority of partner as agent of the firm under section 19 of the Partnership Act does not empower him to
a. compromise or relinquish any claim by the firm.
b. withdraw a suit filed on behalf of the firm.
c. admit any liability in a suit against the firm.
d. All these
94. No person shall be entitled to dispose of or deal with the property of a Hindu minor merely because on the ground of his or her being the defacto guardian of the minor is provided under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act?
a. Section 17
b. Section 13
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
95. The "Breakdown theory" of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:-
a. Section 13 (1)
b. Section 13 B
c. Section 13 (1A)
d. Section 13 (2)
96. Section 18 of The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956 deals with
a. Appoint of other Officers
b. Commissioners and Additional Commissioners.
c. Settlement Commissioner and Additional Settlement Commissioner.
d. Director and Additional Directors of Land Records
97. Section 11 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961 deals with
a. Documents falling under two or more descriptions.
b. Set off or counter claim
c. Decision as to proper fee.
d. Statement of particulars of subject-matter of suit and plaintiff's valuation thereof
98. Which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950 deals with Control of the Excise Department.
a. Section 19
b. Section 2
c. Section 8
d. Section 12
99. Section 23A of Registration Act, 1908 deals with
a. Section 23A of Registration Act, 1908 deals with
b. Section 23A of Registration Act, 1908 deals with
c. Section 23A of Registration Act, 1908 deals with
d. Section 23A of Registration Act, 1908 deals with
100. Which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with “Secure electronic signature”
a. Section 11
b. Section 12
c. Section 15
d. Section 16