RAJASTHAN MOCK TEST 9
1. Where the order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed is expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order; and where the order is not expressly fixed it shall be performed:
a. In that order which the nature of transaction require
b. In the order as one of the parties prefer
c. As desired by the proposal
d. None of the above
Also Check: Contract Act Free Classes
2. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, if the time is essence of a contract and the promisor fails to perform the contract by the specified time, the contract:
a. becomes void
b. remains valid
c. becomes voidable at the instance of the promise
d. becomes unenforceable
e. None of these
Also Check: Contract-I Free One Liner Notes
3. A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract—
a. remains valid
b. becomes voidable when it Ceases to be enforceable
c. becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
d. becomes void since inception
Also Check: Contract-II Free One Liner Notes
4. Where the debtor has omitted to intimate, and there are no other circumstances indicating to which debt the payment is to be applied:
a. the creditor may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt actually due and payable to him from the debtor, provided its recovery is not barred by the law
b. it is to be applied in discharge of the debts in order of time
c. it is to be applied in discharge of the debts in order of time provided they are not barred by the law of limitation
d. the creditor may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt actually due and payable to him from the debtor, whether its recovery is or is not barred by the law in force for the time being as to the limitation of suits
Also Check: Contract Bare Act
5. Period during which proceedings stand stayed by an injunction or order is excluded:
a. Under Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963
b. Under Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963
c. Under Section 16 of the Limitation Act, 1963
d. Under Section 13 of the Limitation Act, 1963
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6. The provisions of Section 14 of the Limitation Act are applicable:
a. Only if on the opening day plaint is presented before the proper Court
b. Even if on the opening day the plaint is not presented in the proper Court
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
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7. Section 17 of the Limitation Act does not take within its ambit
a. an appeal
b. an execution application
c. a suit
d. all of the above
Also Check: Limitation Act Bare Act
8. A suit can be said to be in limitation even after period prescribed
a. if the parties to the suit by agreement had agreed to waive it
b. if the defendant admits the whole claim of the plaintiff in notice reply
c. if the defendant acknowledges liability of the plaintiff's right before expiration of the period of limitation
d. If the defendant does not raise any objection to the plaintiff's claim on the ground of limitation
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9. Which 'of" the following statements is correct? A- joint session of the Parliament shall be:
1. Convened by the Speaker under Article 108.
2. presided over by the senior most member of the House.
3. convened by the President under Article 108 to break impasse in the passage of a Bill.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
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10. Rajya Sabha can keep a money bill for a period of maximum
a. Six months
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days
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11. Money Bill can be initiated only in: —
a. Finance Commission
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Lok Sabha
d. None of these
Also Check: Constitution Free Detailed Notes
12. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The constitutional validity of a central law can be considered by a High Court
b. The constitutional validity of a central law cannot be considered by a High Court
c. The constitutional validity of a central law can be considered by a District Judge
d. The constitutional validity of a central law can be considered by any court
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13. The authority empowered to transfer a judge from one High Court to another High Court is the:
a. Chief Minister
b. Speaker
c. President
d. Governor
14. Examine the two statements and give the correct answer:
Assertion (A): A boy of six and half year old intentionally kills B. A is not liable for murder.
Reason (R): A child under the age of seven years is immuned from criminal liability
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (B) is false but (R) is true
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15. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code the act of a person of unsound mind is not an offence?
a. Section 82
b. Section 84
c. Section 83
d. Section 85
Also Check: IPC/BNS Bare Act
16. Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation is dealt under
a. Section 374 A of IPC
b. Section 375 A of IPC
c. Section 376 A of IPC
d. Section 377 A of IPC
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17. Right of private defence is not available:
a. Against an insane
b. Against a child
c. When there is a time to recourse the public authorities
d. All of the above
18. In a case of free fight between two parties—
a. Right of private defence is available to both the parties
b. Right of private defence is available to individuals against individual
c. No right of private defence is available to either party
d. Right, of private defence is available only to one party.
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19. Defence of necessity is not available to excuse killing of someone to protect the life of many. This principle which is followed in India was laid down earlier by the Queens Bench Division in the following case.
a. R. v. Moore
b. R. v. Dudely and Stepens
c. R. v. Davis
d. R. v. Mc'pherson
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20. An admission is the best evidence against the maker if it is:
a. Oral only
b. Documentary only
c. In electronic form only
d. Either oral, or documentary contained in electronic form
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21. 'A' is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to sell them below their value. Which of the following is correct? may prove the statements,
a. A though in the nature of admission, because they are explanatory of conduct influenced by facts in issue.
b. A may not prove the statements are self-serving because they admissions.
c. A may not prove the statements because as accused he cannot be a witness in his own defence.
d. All these are incorrect
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22. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal matters
a. Section 23
b. Section 27
c. Section 53
d. Section 133
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23. Confession of an accused is irrelevant and inadmissible when made:
a. While in police custody but in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
b. In consequence of a deception practised on the accused for the purpose of obtaining it
c. When he was drunk
d. Before a Magistrate, who told him that if he made a full confession, he would be released
24. A Statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself: -
a. Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act. This
b. Prosecution may prove statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
c. Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence of information received
d. None of the above is correct
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25. A confession made by the accused person is relevant: -
a. if it has proceeded from a person in authority, unless made in the immediate presence of a magistrate
b. if it is made by a police officer, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
c. if it is made to a Magistrate provided the police officer is present
d. if it is made whilst he is in custody of a police officer, and is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
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26. The offence affecting the socioeconomic condition of the country, to which plea bargaining is not applicable, shall be notified by:
a. The State Government
b. The Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes Commission
c. The Human Rights Commission;
d. The Central Government
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27. In a plea bargain who may participate
a. police officer investigating the case
b. Victim
c. Accused
d. all of the above
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28. Plea bargaining under Indian law implies:
a. bargain for declaration that the accused is innocent
b. bargain for dilution of the charge
c. bargain for lesser punishment or release on probation on accepting the charge
d. plea for lesser punishment and dilution of the charge
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29. Statement of an accused is recorded
a. To give him opportunity to state his defence
b. To enable him to explain circumstances appearing in the evidence against him
c. To extract the truth from his mouth
d. To verify whether he can be released on probation
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30. Under Section 351 BNSS, 2023., the statement of the accused has to be recorded
a. on oath
b. without oath
c. on oath in warrant case
d. on oath in cognizable case
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31. In a situation where a person competent to compound an offence is dead, the compounding:
a. Cannot be done
b. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased
c. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased with the due permission of the Court
d. None of the above
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32. The nature of Revision under Code of Civil Procedure is that
a. it operates as a stay of the proceedings
b. it operates as a stay of a suit
c. it operates as a stay of proceedings and suit both
d. it shall not operate as a stay of the suit or proceedings except where such suit or proceedings is stayed by the High Court
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33. The duration of existence of a Caveat filed under Code of Civil Procedure 1908 is
a. 60 days from the date on which it was filed
b. 30 days from the date on which it was lodged
c. 120 days from the date when it was lodged
d. 90 days from the date, when it was lodged
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34. (A) Women, who due to the customs and manners of the country, ought not be compelled to appear in public are exempted from personal appearance in Court.
(B) However nothing shall be deemed to exempt such women from arrest in execution of civil process in any case in which the arrest of women is not prohibited by the Code of Civil Procedure.
a. Both (A) and (B) of the above statement are correct
b. Only (A) of the above statement is correct
c. Only (B) of the above statement is correct
d. Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
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35. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 embraces the principle of restitutions?
a. Section 134
b. Section 144
c. Section 148A
d. Section 151
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36. A owing half share and B' and 'C each a quarter share of mauza Sultanpur exchange one-eighth share of that mauza for a quarter share of mauza Lalpura. There being no agreement to contrary. 'A' is entitled to an eighth share in Lalpura and 'B' and 'C' each is entitled to:
a. One-fourth share
b. One-eighth share
c. One-half share
d. One-sixteenth share
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37. Under Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the transferee is entitled to the benefits of insurance covered against the loss or damage by
a. Fire
b. Encroachment
c. Natural calamity
d. None of the above
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38. In which of the following cases would the specific performance of a contract not be enforced by the court?
a. Where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce
b. Where the property consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market
c. Where compensation in money van be afforded for non-performance of the contract as an adequate relief
d. Where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by non-performance of the contract
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39. Which of the following contract cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of section 14 of the Act?
a. Execution of a formal deed of partnership
b. Contract for the construction of any building or execution of ant other work on land
c. Contract which is determinable in its nature
d. Contract to execution a mortgage or furnish ant other security for repayment of ant loan which the borrower is not willing to repat at once
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40. Under section 21 of the Specific Relief Act: The court
a. Shall not award a compensation to the plaintiff
b. Shall as of rule award compensation in each and every suit
c. Shall not award compensation to the plaintiff even if it is not claimed by him
d. May award compensation to the plaintiff even if it is not clamed by him
41. Under Section 138 of the Act, Complaint may be made from the date on which complaint the cause of action arises:
a. 15 days
b. One month
c. 45 days
d. Two months
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42. Which one of the following Sections of the Negotiable Instruments Act empowers to the Judicial Magistrate of the First Class or Metropolitan Magistrate to try the offence relating to dishonour of cheque for insufficiency etc.?
a. Section 143(1)
b. Section 143(2)
c. Section 143(3)
d. Section 143(4)
43. Protection order in favour of the aggrieved person under section 18 of the domestic Violence act may be passed:-
a. By the Protection officer
b. By the Service Provider
c. By the Magistrate
d. By a civil court
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44. Whether a juvenile in conflict with law can be tried with another person, who is not a juvenile if both have together committed the same offence?
a. Yes
b. No
c. May be
d. Yes, with permission of the High Court
Also Check: Juvenile Justice Act Bare Act
45. The upper age limit upto which a child having committed offence is considered to be a juvenile is:
a. 16 years
b. 18 years
c. 15 years
d. None of the above
46. According to Section 25 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, statement of a child under Section 164 of the code of Criminal Procedure to be recorded by the Magistrate—
a. shall be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
b. shall not be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
c. shall be recorded in presence of the Investigation Officer
d. shall be recorded in presence of woman Police Officer
Also Check: POCSO Act One Liner Notes
47. Every probation officer and every other officer appointed in pursuance of the Probation of Offenders Act shall be deemed to be public servants within the meaning of _________.
a. Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code
b. Section 2(17) of the Civil Procedure Code
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Also Check: Probation of Offenders Act Bare Act
48. According to the _________the words are to be understood in their natural, ordinary or popular and grammatical meaning, unless such a construction Leads to an absurdity or contents or object of the statute suggests a different meaning?
a. Literal construction
b. Mischief rule
c. Strict rule of interpretation
d. None of above
49. Ut Res Magis Valeat Quam Pareatis also known as______?
a. Rule of harmonious construction
b. Rule of reasonable construction
c. Rule of ejusdem generis
d. All of above
50. Section 3 of POCSO Act states
a. Penetrative sexual assault
b. Sexual assault
c. Sexual harassment
d. Only (b) and not (a) and (c)
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51. Under Section 20 of POCSO Act information shall be provided to
a. the Special Juvenile Police Unit
b. to the local police
c. Nearest Executive Magistrate
d. Either (a) or (b)
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52. Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, the petition for eviction of tenant shall be disposed of within a period of ______ from the date of service of notice on the tenant.
a. 120 days
b. 150 days
c. 180 days
d. 240 days
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53. Who shall authorize the Presiding Officer of one Rent Tribunal to discharge the functions of the Presiding Officer of another Rent Tribunal also?
a. District Magistrate
b. District Judge
c. High Court
d. State Government
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Bare Act
54. The leave granted during pendency of inquiry to the aggrieved woman under Section 12(1) of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be _________ to the leave she would be otherwise entitled.
a. Concurrent
b. Subsequent
c. In addition
d. Any of the above
Also Check: Sexual Harassment Act Free One Line Notes
55. How many chapters and sections are there in Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013?
a. 8 Chapters, 30 Sections
b. 9 Chapters, 37 Sections
c. 11 Chapters, 51 Sections
d. 5 Chapters, 20 Sections
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56. section 12 of The Domestic Violence Act, 2005 deals with_______?
a. Application of Magistrate
b. Protection of orders
c. Jurisdiction
d. Duties of shelter home
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57. Under Section 5 of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986-
a. any Gazetted Officer authorised by the State Government may enter and search any place in which he has reason to believe that an offence under this Act has been committed
b. Penalty for person who contravenes the provisions of Section 3 or Section 4 is provided
c. Central Government may make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act
d. None of the above
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58. I ___________a letter when he came to my house.
a. am writing
b. was writing
c. will write
d. Wrote
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59. The train _______________ before he reached the station
a. has left
b. was left
c. had left
d. is left
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60. It ______________ raining since morning when you rang me up
a. had been
b. has been
c. have been
d. Was
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61. If he works hard he ______________ pass.
a. Will
b. Shall
c. will be
d. shall be
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62. The cook _______________ cooking food at this time tomorrow
a. shall be
b. will be
c. Shall
d. Will
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63. Have you seen ………… Taj Mahal
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
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64. Please give me …... cake that is on the table.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
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65. He has come without…. Umbrella
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
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66. …………Ganga is sacred……… river.
a. A, an
b. An, the
c. The, a
d. No Article
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67. She is……. most beautiful girl
a. An
b. A
c. The
d. No article required
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68. Twenty years _________ the minimum age to fill this form.
a. Are
b. Is
c. Has
d. Have
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69. The teacher and the students __________ just arrived
a. Has
b. Have
c. Will
d. Are
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70. Everyone ____________ been informed about the incident
a. Have
b. Are
c. Were
d. Has
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71. Neither the principal nor the teachers ___________ convinced
a. Has
b. Were
c. Was
d. Have
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72. According to the news, the shower __________ to take place.
a. Are
b. Is
c. Were
d. Has
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73. केशरी’ पर्यायवाची है-
a. घोड़े का
b. हाथी का
c. सियार का
d. सिंह का
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74. निम्न में से ‘सागर’ का पर्याय नहीं है-
a. जलधि
b. सरोवर
c. समुद्र
d. नीरधि
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75. ‘सूर्य’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है-
a. मार्तण्ड
b. भास्कर
c. निशाचर
d. दिनकर
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76. ‘निर्वाण’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है–
a. निर्माण
b. भवन
c. मोती
d. मोक्ष
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77. किस समूह में सभी शब्द ‘पर्वत’ के पर्यायवाची हैं?
a. अद्रि, अचल, गिरि, प्रस्तर
b. नग, अश्म, भूधर, अचल
c. धराधर, अद्रि, अचल, नग
d. गिरि, अचल, अश्म, भूधर
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78. टांग अड़ाना का अर्थ है –
a. बदनाम करना
b. बिना कारण लड़ना
c. टांगो से लड़ना
d. रुकावट पैदा करना
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79. बुरी तरह हारना के लिए सही मुहावरा है –
a. मुंह खून से भर जाना
b. मुंह ताकते रहना
c. मुंह की खाना
d. मुंह उतरना
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80. अग्नि परीक्षा देना का अर्थ है –
a. बहुत परिश्रम करना
b. धैर्य दिखाना
c. आग में कूद जाना
d. कठिन परिस्थिति में पड़ना
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81. छाती पर मूंग दलना का अर्थ है –
a. मेहनत का काम करना
b. बात-बात पर लड़ाई करना
c. मुंग की दाल बनाना
d. पास रहकर दुःख देना
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82. तीर मारना का अर्थ है –
a. युद्ध-कला में अच्छा होना
b. शिकार करना
c. बड़ा काम करना
d. बहुत पैसे कमाना
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83. वनगमन में कौन सा समास है
a. बहूव्रीहि
b. द्विगु
c. तत्पुरुष
d. कर्मधारय
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84. पंचतंत्र में कौन सा समास है
a. कर्मधारय
b. बहूव्रीहि
c. द्विगु
d. द्वंद्व
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85. देशभक्ति कौन सा समास है
a. द्विगु
b. तत्पुरुष
c. द्वंद्व
d. बहूव्रीहि
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86. कौन सा बहूब्रिही समास का उदाहरण है
a. निशिदिन
b. त्रिभुवन
c. नीलकंठ
d. पुरुषसिंह
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87. त्रिलोचन में कौन सा समास है
a. अव्ययीभाव
b. कर्मधारय
c. बहूव्रीहि
d. इनमे से कोई नहीं
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88. Under section 48 of “The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956- No person shall be eligible for appointment as a village servant, who
a. has not attained the age of majority, or
b. is not physically or mentally capable of discharging the duties of his office, or
c. does not reside in the area for which he is appointed
d. All of those
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89. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961-Relinquishment of portion of claim.
a. Section 12
b. Section 15
c. Section 13
d. Section 14
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90. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950- Grant of passes for import, export and transport.
a. Section 11
b. Section 12
c. Section 15
d. Section 14
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91. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908- Officer or Court to issue and cause service of summons.
a. Section 12
b. Section 23
c. Section 37
d. Section 34
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92. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000- Representations upon issuance of Digital Signature Certificate deals with
a. Section 43
b. Section 41
c. Section 36
d. Section 34
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93. Under section 11 of the Indian Partnership Act, the rights and duties of partners are determined by the contract between the partners
a. Notwithstanding anything con-tained in the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
b. Subject to the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
c. Depends
d. None of the above
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94. The term 'goodwill' is defined in section .......................... of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. Not defined
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95. The rule in the Latin maxim nemo dat quod non habet under the Sale of Goods Act is contained in
a. Section 27
b. Section 29
c. Section 26
d. Section 28
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96. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 the delivery can be:
a. Symbolic only
b. Actual only
c. Constructive only
d. All the above
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97. Khula under Muslim law refers to:
a. Divorce by mutual consent
b. Divorce initiated by wife and accepted by husband
c. A temporary marriage
d. An irregular marriage
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98. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage
a. One male and two females
b. Two males
c. No witness is required
d. Both (1) and (2)
99. Which Section of Hindu Succession Act deals with the concept of "Escheat'?
a. Section 30
b. Section 25
c. Section 29
d. Section 28
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100. Which Section of BNSS,2023 deals with the provision that the Court should be open?
a. Section 364
b. Section 365
c. Section 366
d. None of the above
