1. Which of the following is correct? A valid consideration
a. must be adequate
b. may not be adequate
c. may be illusory
d. must lead to satisfaction.
2. In case of non-fulfilment of the contractual obligations, only the parties to the contract can sue each other. This statement may be called as
a. Privity of Consideration
b. Privity of Contract
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
3. An agreement to share the benefits of a public office is: —
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Void
d. none of these
4. Which of the following agreement(s) is/are void?
1. Agreement without consideration.
2. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
3. Agreement affected by fraud.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 3 only
b. 2 only
c.1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
5. A right to sue accrued to X on 1.1.2000 when he was a minor aged 15 years. The period of limitation of 2 years expires on
a. 1.1.2002
b. 1.1.2003
c. 1.1.2005
d. None of the above
6. What is the limitation for filing a suit for recovery of arrears of rent?
a. Three years from the date the arrears become due
b. Three years from the date when the notice is given
c. Three years from the date when the demand for rent is made
d. None of the above
7. The fraud contemplated by Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, is that of:
a. The plaintiff
b. The defendant
c. A third person
d. Both (a) and (c)
8. The term 'equal pay for equal work', is a:
a. Directive Principle of State Policy
b. Statutory provision in Labour Law
c. Fundamental Right
d. Matter of State to pass Bill
9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I List II
A. President is the formal head of government of India 1. U.N. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
B. Actual executive power of the union is with the council 2. Samsher Singh v. state of Punjab of ministers
C. Presidential election disputes are decided by the supreme court 3. Article 79
D. President is a part of parliament 4. Article 71
a. CODE: A B C D - 2 1 4 3
b. CODE: A B C D - 3 4 1 2
c. CODE: A B C D - 2 4 1 3
d. CODE: A B C D - 3 1 4 2
10. Under Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament for the Union consists of
a. The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
b. The Council of States and the House of People
c. President, the Council of States and the House of People
d. President and the Lok Sabha
11. The President of India has no power to call for a joint session of Parliament:
a. if a bill passed by one House has been rejected by the other House
b. if a bill regarding salary of Members of Parliament passed by one House is kept pending in the other House
c. if a bill imposing a tax passed by Lok Sabha has been rejected by Rajya Sabha
d. in case of disagreement of the Houses in passing any bill regarding constitutional amendment of Schedule I.
12. An act done under 'mistake of fact'—
a. is a complete defence in a criminal charge
b. is a complete defence in a criminal charge if done in good faith
c. is no defence at all
d. is a partial defence in a criminal charge
13. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' is incorporated?
a. Section 78
b. Section 76
c. Section 79
d. None of the above
14. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A hangman who hangs the convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of
a. section 20 of BNS
b. section 15 of BNS
c. section 16 of BNS
d. section 22 of BNS
15. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. A has committed:
a. an offence of murder
b. an offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. an offence of death by negligence
d. no offence, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A
16. In which of the following cases necessity, under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be pleaded as a defence?
a. Self-defence and prevention of violence
b. Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
c. Self-preservation is an absolute necessity
d. Choice of evils affecting person other than the accused
17. The expression 'harm' is used in Section 19 of the BNS, 2023 in the sense of
a. Hurt
b. Injury or damage
c. Physical injury
d. Moral wrong or evil
18. In which of the following case the person is not guilty of any offence?
a. An adult man kills another person with a knife.
b. an adult woman kills her new born child.
c. A man of 75 years of age commits rape on woman.
d. A child under the age of 7 years shoots his father with a revolver and the father dies
19. IEA- During investigation by a police officer under directions of the Magistrate on complaint of 'A' alleging criminal misappropriation of his diamond ring by 'B', 'A' produces an invoice evidencing his title to the property. The invoice is found during investigation to be fabricated. On closure report, the Magistrate took cognizance and summoned 'A' to face trial on the charge of fabricating false evidence. The contentions of 'A' are:
a. The document (invoice) was not given in a judicial proceeding.
b. The police officer has not made a complaint. Here:
a. Both (a) and (b) are correct
b. Only (a) is correct.
c. Only (b) is correct
d. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.
20. Reasonable ground exists for believing that A has joined in a conspiracy to wage war against the Government of India but he only knows B who had procured arms and explosives in Pakistan for the purpose of the conspiracy. Which of the following is not relevant to prove A's complicity in it-
a. C collected money in Calcutta for a like object.
b. D persuaded persons to join the conspiracy in Mumbai.
c. A utilized the explosives to blow- up the Parliament House but the attempt proved unsuccessful.
d. After the attempt A wrote a letter to B asking him to supply explosives again.
21. Defence of alibi is governed by
a. Section 15 of the BSA
b. Section 12 of the BSA
c. Section 10 of the BSA
d. Section 9 of the BSA
22. The question is, whether 'A' committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. In answer to this question, which of the following fact is relevant?
a. That 'A' was out that day at Mumbai
b. That 'A' habitually goes to Kolkata
c. That 'A' habitually commits crime
d. None of the above
23. 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of 'B'. The fact of previous publication by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A' towards 'B' is relevant-
a. Because it proves the preparation for harming 'A's' reputation
b. As it is necessary to explain fact in issue
c. As proving intention to harm 'B's' reputation
d. As it is the effect of relevant fact
24. Give the correct answer- "All the admissions are confessions but all the confessions are not admissions."
a. The statement is correct
b. The statement is incorrect
c. The statement is partly correct and partly incorrect
d. All the above statements are incorrect
25. Admission by agents are:
a. Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions
b. Admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
c. Never admissible in criminal proceedings
d. Both (a) and (c)
26. Which one of the following is true about the Sessions Court:—
a. Can take cognizance without committal
b. Can take cognizance only on committal
c. Can take cognizance on the recommendation of District Magistrate
d. Can take cognizance provided the charge sheet is submitted by Superintendent of Police
27. Which 'Section' of the BNSS, 2023 provides for prosecution for offences against marriage?
a. Section 196
b. Section 200
c. Section 219
d. None of the above
28. Which is not content of charge?
a. Description of family background of the accused
b. Specific name of the offence as per the law which provides the offence
c. In case of unspecific name of the offence, definition of the offence
d. Particulars of time and place of the alleged offence
29. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the
a. Language which accused understands
b. Language which witnesses understands
c. Language of the Court
d. Hind language
30. "For every distinct offence of which any person is accused, there shall be a separate charge and every such charge shall be tried separately", is provided in Criminal Procedure Code under:
a. Section 211
b. Section 215
c. Section 218
d. Section 220
31. In which Sections of the BNSS the trial procedure of Warrant cases in given
a. From Section 261 to 273
b. From Section 251 to 259
c. From Section 260 to 265
d. From Section 225 to 237
32. In every criminal trial, when the Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused.
a. Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence can be passed
b. Wrong, it is not required in summons case
c. It is required only before sending the conviction warrant
d. Not required at all in any case
33. The court under Section 89(1) of CPC can refer the dispute for
a. arbitration or conciliation
b. conciliation or mediation
c. mediation or Lok Adalat
d. arbitration or conciliation or Lok Adalat or mediation
34. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 deals with appeal from original decree?
a. Section 90
b. Section 96
c. Section 82
d. Section 98
35. Which of the following Sections of the CPC provide grounds for second appeal?
a. Section 96
b Section 100
c. Section 100A
d. Section 101
36. Which of the following statement is correct?
1. An appeal may lie from an original decree passed exparte
2. No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties
3. No appeal shall lie on a question of law
a. Only (1)
b. Only (2)
c. Only (3)
d. Both (1) and (2)
37. The Law regarding transfer by ostensible owner is laid down in
a. Section 39
b. Section 41
c. Section 45
d. Section 53
38. 'A, a Hindu, who has separated from his father B' sells to 'C three fields X Y and Z' representing that A is authorised to transfer these fields. 'Z does not belong to 'A' but on B's death 'A' as their obtains 'Z. C did not rescind the contract:
a. Contract became infructuous
b. C may require ´A' to deliver Z' to him
c. Contract is void
d. Contract is unenforceable
39. In the case of a breach of contract to sell immovable property the court shall draw a presumption that-
a. Breach of contract cannot be adequately relieved by money compensation
b. That the breach can be compensated by money
c. That the suit cab be decreed
d. That the suit cannot be decreed
40. Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, refers specific performance of contracts connected with:
a. Arbitration
b. Trusts
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
41. Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act has no application when the transfer has been affected in respect of property
a. In which vendor has no title or has an imperfect title
b. In which vendor has title
c. In which vendor has imperfect title
d. None of the above
42. Every trial under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act shall be conducted as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to conclude the trial:
a. within three months from the date of filing of the complaint
b. within one months from the date of fling of the complaint
c. within six months from the date of filing of the complaint
d. within one year from the date of filing of the complaint
43. Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with the offences caused by the:
a. Government Servants
b. Individual and companies both
c. Individual alone
d. Companies
44. Court can take cognizance of any offence punishable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act:
a. suo motu
b. upon a complaint in writing made by the payee
c. upon a police report
d. none of the above
45. Which of the following terms has not been used in the category of various kinds of abuse falling in the definition of domestic violence: -
a. Emotional abuse
b. Verbal abuse
c. Economic abuse
d. Mental abuse
46. Who of the following police officers is empowered to record statement of a child under Section 24 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
a. Constable
b. Any woman police officer
c. Woman police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
d. Woman police officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
47. Under Section 2(12) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, "child" means a person, who has not completed:
a. 21 years of age
b. 18 years of age
c. 14 years of age
d. 16 years of age
48. Who shall review the pendency of cases of Juvenile Justice Board, on quarterly basis?
a. Chief Judicial Magistrate
b. High Level Committee consisting of the Executive Chairperson of the State Legal Services Authority.
c. District Magistrate.
d. Chairperson of Human Rights Commission
49. Who of the following have powers to frame rules under Section 17 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
a. State Government with the approval of Central Government.
b. Central Government with the consent of State Government.
c. High Court
d. All the above
50. The Appellate Court or the High Court in revision shall not inflict a ________ punishment than might have been inflicted by the Court by which the offender was found guilty.
a. Lesser
b. Greater
c. Different
d. Equivalent
51. Provided that for reasons to be recorded in writing, the Special Court under POCSO Act may permit disclosure of identity of the child, if in its opinion such disclosure
a. will help him establish his case
b. is in the interest of the child
c. necessary for national interest
d. all of the above
52. Which of the following is an external aid for interpretation of statute?
a. Parliamentary history
b. Use of foreign decisions
c. Historical background
d. All of above
53. When statute does not profess to make any alteration in the existing law, but merely declare or explain what it is, then such law is known as________?
a. Codifying statute
b. Remedial statute
c. Declaratory statute
d. Consolidating statute
54. Revision on rent is covered under ________ of Rajasthan Rent Control Act.
a. Chapter 2
b. Chapter 3
c. Chapter 4
d. Chapter 5
55. Which section defines “landlord” under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001?
a. Section 2(b)
b. Section 2(d)
c. Section 2(i)
d. None of the above
56. The accounts of the agency referred to in Section 8(2) of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be maintained and audited in such manner as may, in consultation with the _________.
a. Advocate-General of the State
b. Accountant-General of the State
c. Secretary of the State
d. None of the above
57. “Chairperson” under Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013 means?
a. Chairman of Parliamentary Committee on Women
b. Minister of Women and Child Development
c. Chairperson of National Women’s Commission
d. Chairperson of the Local Complaints Committee
58. The protection of women from Domestic violence Act, 2005 is a
a. Social legislation
b. Beneficial legislation
c. Colourable legislation
d. None of the above
59. How many sections are there in the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
60. My mother _______________ up early in the morning.
a. Get
b. Gets
c. will be
d. shall be
61. The children _______________ in the field now.
a. has played
b. are playing
c. Plays
d. will had played
62. I _______________ her for several years.
a. has known
b. have known
c. Knows
d. Knew
63. It ________________ raining since morning.
a. have been
b. has been
c. Is
d. Was
64. He ____________his house seven days ago.
a. Left
b. Leave
c. Leaves
d. is leaving
65. Holi is………. important festival.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
66. You need to buy …………. Dictionary
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
67. Bring………. inkpot for me.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
68. Miss Eliza speaks……… Chinese.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
69. He has read………… Vedas
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
70. This part of the book ___________ boring.
a. Is
b. Are
c. Has
d. Have
71. Either of the two candidates __________ eligible.
a. Is
b. Have
c. Are
d. has been
72. Most of the workers _____________ on the strike.
a. Is
b. Have
c. Has
d. Are
73. My neighborhood ___________ very popular.
a. Are
b. Is
c. Were
d. Has
74. Neither you nor your sister should ___________ to them.
a. Talk
b. Talks
c. Talked
d. Talking
75. ‘बादल’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है-
a. पयोधि
b. नीरज
c. पयोद
d. तोयस
76. ‘नदी’ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है-
a. भागीरथी
b. तरंगिनी
c. तटिनी
d. अपगा
77. किस समूह में सभी शब्द ‘कमल’ के पर्यायवाची हैं?
a. जलज, तोयद, नीरज, पंकज
b. तोयद, नीरज, जलद, वारिज
c. वारिज, पंकज, नीरज, जलज
d. पंकज, तोयद, वारिज, जलधि
78. ‘गणेश’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है-
a. अलकापति
b. उमापति
c. पशुपति
d. गणपति
79. ‘भौंरा’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है-
a. रसाल
b. मधुप
c. सौरभ
d. मकर
80. उसे शिक्षक की नौकरी अवश्य मिल जाएगी, क्योंकि उसने ........... रहे हैं। उपयुक्त मुहावरे से रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।
a. जी तोड़ मेहनत करना
b. बीड़ा उठाना
c. बाएं हाथ का खेल होना
d. पत्थर की लकीर होना
81. आसमान पर चढ़ाना। मुहावरे का अर्थ बताये।
a. बहुत घमंड करना
b. कठिन काम के लिए उकसाना
c. बहुत हल्ला करना
d. अत्यधिक प्रशंसा करना
82. लाल-पीला होना का अर्थ है –
a. मन ही मन प्रशन्न होना
b. क्रोध करना
c. बहुत खुश होना
d. रंग बदलना
83. काम काज में कोरा होना। इस मुहावरे का अर्थ बताये।
a. काम पूरा नहीं करना
b. काम जल्दी ख़त्म करना
c. काम धीरे धीरे करना
d. काम न जानना
84. टस से मस न होना का अर्थ है –
a. कठोर होना
b. अपनी बातो से नहीं हटना
c. जगह बदलना
d. सहन करना
85. समास का शाब्दिक अर्थ क्या होता है
a. संक्षेप
b. विस्तार
c. विग्रह
d. विच्छेद
86. इन में से कौन सा अव्ययीभाव पद है
a. गृहागत
b. आचारकुशल
c. प्रतिदिन
d. कुमारी
87. निम्न में कौन सा कर्मधारय समास है
a. चक्रपाणी
b. चतुर्युगम
c. श्वेतांबर
d. माता – पिता
88. गजानन में कौन सा समास है
a. द्वंद्व
b. बहूव्रीहि
c. तत्पुरुष
d. कर्मधारय
89. देवासुर में कौन सा समास है
a. बहूव्रीहि
b. कर्मधारय
c. तत्पुरुष
d. द्वंद्व
90. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000- Use of electronic records and electronic signatures in Government and its agencies.
a. SECTION 10
b. SECTION 9
c. SECTION 6
d. SECTION 8
91. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908- Documents of which registration is optional
a. Section 21
b. Section 20
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
92. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950- Further power to cancel licences.
a. Section 25
b. Section 21
c. Section 35
d. Section 23
93. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961- Relief when too high a fee has been paid.
a. Section 34
b. Section 21
c. Section 58
d. Section 43
94. Under which section of “The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956- Penalty for injury to, or removal of marks.
a. Section 141
b. Section 120
c. Section 130
d. Section 131
95. Which of the conditions is to be satisfied, to avail the exception under section 16(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
a. The buyer should make known to the seller the particular purpose for which the goods are required
b. The buyer should rely on the seller's skill or judgment
c. The goods must be of a description which the seller supplies in course of his business
d. All of the above
96. Which of the following rights of an unpaid-seller can be' exercised only when the buyer has become insolvent and not otherwise
a. Right of lien
b. Right of Re-sale
c. Right of Stoppage in transit
d. Right to Sue
97. Which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with the 'application of the property of the firm'?
a. Section 15
b. Section 16
c. Section 17
d. Section 18
98. Tenancy rights of a partner in the premises where the business is being carried on
a. Is the property of the firm
b. Is not the property of the firm
c. Depends
d. None of the above
99. Divorce by mutual consent in Muslim law is called
a. Mutah
b. Mehr
c. Hadith
d. Mubarat
100. Muta marriage comes to an end by
a. Talaq
b. Hiba-i-Muddat
c. Talaq-i-Tafweez
d. None of the above