1. The principle that accused cannot at the stage of framing charge invoke Section 91 was laid down in—
a. State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi
b. Satish Mehra v. Delhi Administration
c. K.M. Mathew v. K.A. Abraham-
d. Adalat Prasad v. Rooplal Jindal
2. Which of the following courts, can under Section 106 Cr.P.C. release a convict on security for keeping the peace and good behaviour?
a. Sessions Courts
b. Magistrate 1st Class
c. Appellate or Revisional Court
d. All the above
3. Security for good behaviour from persons disseminating seditions matter is taken by a Magistrate under: —
a. Section 171 BNSS
b. Section 152 BNSS
c. Section 142 BNSS
d. Section 127 BNSS
4. Which one of the following Magistrate is authorised under section 110 Cr.P.C. to require security for good behaviour from habitual offenders within his local jurisdiction;
a. Judicial Magistrate First Class
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. District Magistrate
d. Executive Magistrate
5. Which one of the following sections of the BNSS, 2023 provides as to security for good behaviour from habitual offenders?
a. Section 129
b. Section 109
c. Section 108
d. None of the above
6. In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr.P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the Constitution of India
a. Ram Charan v. State
b. Shiv Narain v. Ban Mali
c. Madhu Limaye v. S.D.M., Moncghyr
d. Ram Prasad v. Emperor
7. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. Security for peace on conviction-- 1.Section-110
b. Security for good behaviour from
suspected person --2. Section-107
c. Security for good behaviour From
habitual offender --3. Section-106
d. Security of peace in other cases --4. Section-109
a. Code: A B C D - 2 3 1 4
b. Code: A B C D - 3 4 1 2
c. Code: A B C D - 1 2 3 4
d. Code: A B C D - 4 1 2 3
8. In which case the Supreme Court held that Section 125 Cr.P.C. is applicable to all, irrespective of their religion?
a. Mohd. Umer Khan v. Gulson Begam
b. Zohara Khatoon v. Mohd. Ibrahim
c. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Sahbano Begam
d. Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mohd. Quasim
9. Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the easement rights over the property belonging to the Government are acquired by continuous and uninterrupted user:
a. For 12 Years
b. For 20 Years
c. For 30 Years
d. For 60 Years
10. Provision for suits etc. for which the prescribed period is shorter than the period prescribed by the Indian Limitation Act,1908 is contained in :
a. Section 28
b. Section 29
c. Section 30
d. Section 31
11. A, a magistrate is making report to superior officer about B's character imputation made in good faith and for public good. A commit:
a. Offence under section 500, IPC
b. Offence under section 501, IPC
c. No offence as it is within exception under section 499
d. Under section 504, IPC
12. Section 62 of the BNS, 2023 does not apply in case of
a. attempt of affray
b. attempt of riot
c. attempt of murder
d. attempt of theft
13. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
a. Reg v. Govinda. 1. Insanity
b. State of Maharashtra
v. M.N. George 2. Common Intention
c. Mehboob Shah v. Emperor. 3. Murder
d. McNaughten Case. 4. Mens rea
a. CODE: A B C D
2 1 3 4
b. CODE: A B C D
4 3 1 2
c. CODE: A B C D
3 4 2 1
d. CODE: A B C D
1 2 3 4
14. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?
List-I List-II
K.M. Nanawati
v. State of Maharashtra 1. Grave and sudden provocation
State of Himachal Pradesh
v. Asha Ram 2. Rape
Karan Singh v. State of
Uttar Pradesh 3. Right of Private Defence
Harjit Singh v. State of
Punjab 4. Dowry death
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
15. "Ignorantia facti excusat" maxim means:
a. Mistake of law is excused
b. Ignorance of facts is an excuse
c. Ignorance of law is not an excuse
d. None of these
16. In which of the following mens rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence?
a. Shrinivasmal Barolia v. Emperor
b. R. v. Tolson
c. Nathulal v. State of Madhya Pradesh
d. In all of the above
17. In which one of the following case the supreme Court of India has held that wife cannot be charged for harbouring her husband?
a. State V. Ratan Singh
b. State of Tamil Nadu V. Nalini
c. Jai Narain Mishra V. State
d. Sardara Singh V. State
18. "An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice." Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act enunciates the aforesaid principle?
a. Section 131
b. Section 132
c. Section 133
d. Section 134
19. Which of the following statements is/ are not true?
1.An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person.
2.Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice is legal.
3.Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice is legal only if it is corroborated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
20. Re-examination of a witness
a. shall be by the party calling the witness
b. shall be by the adverse party.
c. both (a) & (b)
d. either (a) or (b)
21. In which of the following sections of the BSA, 2023 provision as to refresh memory has been given
a. Section 141
b. Section 149
c. Section 162
d. Section 158
22. "A fact in personal knowledge of the judge cannot be taken in evidence". In which case this had been held?
a. Har Prasad v. Shiva Dayal, (1876) 31A 259
b. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P., 1952 ACR 536
c. Virendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor, ILR (1910) 37 Cal 474
d. Pushpa Devi Ramjatia v. M.L. Wadhwa, AIR 1987 SC 1748
23. The material facts on which a party relies are called
a. facta probantia
b. fact probanda
c. Falsa demonstration on nocet
d. fences terraria
24. Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed—
a. appeal can be filed against the order
b. no appeal lies
c. with the permission of Court, appeal can be filed against the order
d. none of them
25. By which judgment, the Hon'ble Apex Court upheld the constitutional validity of amendments made in the Code of Civil Procedure vide amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002:
a. Salem Advocates Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India
b. Civil Court Bar Association v. Union of India
c. Indian Courts Bar Association v. Union of India
d. West Bengal High Court Bar Association v. Union of India
26. Consider the following statements:
1. Where the High Court calls for the record of any case in its revisional jurisdiction, it operates as a stay of such case before the subordinate court.
2. No second appeal shall lie in money suits where the value of the subject matter does not exceed Rs. 25,000.
3. A plaintiff cannot be allowed by the court to sue afterwards for any relief omitted by him in the suit.
4. A plaintiff may relinquish any portion of his claim in order to bring the suit within the jurisdiction of any court. Of the above statements:
a. 1, 2; and 3 are incorrect
b. 2 and 3 are incorrect
c. 1 and 3 are incorrect
d. 1 and 4 are incorrect
27. A decree becomes final when
a. it conclusively determined the right of the parties
b. no appeal has been preferred against the decree.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
28. What is the correct chronological order in which the following provisions were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments?
1. Directive Principles on Free Legal Aid
2. Proviso to Article 335
3. Twelfth Schedule
4. Article 51A(k)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1,3, 2, 4
b. 2, 1, 4, 3
c. 2, 3, 4, 1
d. 4, 2, 1, 3
29. In Indian Constitution, the idea of "A Union of States in the Indian Constitution" has been derived from
a. Constitution of Belgium
b. The Australian Constitution
c. Constitution of Colombia
d. Constitution of Bhutan
30. Assertion (A): The doctrine of res judicata does not apply to writs.
Reason (R): If a writ of habeas corpus is rejected by the Supreme Court, the same writ can be file a fresh before the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution.
a. Codes- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Codes:-Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. Codes:-A is true but R is false
d. Codes:-A is false but R is true
31. Which of the following is contained in the concurrent list?
a. Agriculture
b. Education
c. Fisheries
d. Police
32. Which one of the following sections of the transfer of property act defines charge?
a. Section 100
b. Section 95
c. Section 105
d. Section 92
33. A mortgage a certain plot of building land to B and afterwards erects a house on the plot. For the purposes of his security, B is entitled to:
a. The house as well as the plot
b. Only the house
c. Only the plot
d. Neither the plot nor the house
34. Which of the following cases is related to the right of redemption
a. Stanley v. Wilde
b. Noakes v. Rice
c. Kreglinger v. New pentagonia Meat and Cold Storage Co. Ltd.
d. All the above cases
35. Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when the lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing found amount to—
a. One-fourth
b. Half
c. One-third
d. Two-thirds of its value.
36. Section 170 of Indian Contract Act deals with:
a. General lien
b. Particular lien
c. Wharfinger lien
d. Broker's lien
37. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to sub-agent?
a. He is employed by the principal in the business of the agency
b. He is employed by the original agent in the business of the agency
c. He acts under the control of the principal
d. The agent is not responsible to the principal for acts of the sub-agent
38. X entrust Y with negotiable instruments endorsed in blank. Ysells them to Z is violation of private orders from X. The sale is—
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Voidable at the option of Y
d. Voidable at the option of Z
39. A claim for damages in a suit for injunction can be laid down
a. under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act
b. under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act
c. under Section 40 of the Specific Relief Act
d. under Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act
40. An injunction cannot be granted:
a. When the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter
b. To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced
c. To prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced
d. All of the above
41. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 was passed on:-
a. 8/12/05
b. 13/9/2005
c. 7/12/05
d. 5/12/05
42. Under Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, an instrument in writing containing an unconditional under taking, signed by the maker, to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of, a certain person, or to the bearer of the instrument is a
a. Promissory Note
b. Bill of Exchange
c. Currency Note
d. Truncated Cheque
43. A bill of lading is:
a. A negotiable instrument like a bill of exchange
b. A negotiable instrument like promissory note
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
44. मृदुल का विलोम शब्द है
a. कठिन
b. खराब
c. रुक्ष
d. कठोर
45. ऋणात्मक का विलोम शब्द है
a. धनात्मक
b. रिणात्मक
c. मानात्मक
d. अनात्मक
46. कलुष का विलोम शब्द है
a. पापशून्य
b. निष्पाप
c. निष्कलुष
d. निष्करुण
47. सन्यासी का विलोम शब्द है
a. राजा
b. भोगी
c. गृहस्थ
d. इसमें से कोई नहीं
48. स्वकीय का विलोम शब्द है
a. स्वीकृत
b. अस्वीकृत
c. नारकीय
d. परकीय
49. किस तिथि को हिन्दी को राजभाषा बनाने का निर्णय लिया गया ?
a. 26 जनवरी, 1950 ई
b. 14 सितम्बर, 1949 ई०
c. 14 सितम्बर, 1950 ई०
d. 15 अगस्त, 1947 ई०
50. निम्नलिखित में देशज शब्द है-
a. चूल्हा
b. कड़ाह
c. आग
d. ठेठ
51. हिन्दी भाषा के विकास का सही अनुक्रम कौन-सा है ?
a. प्राकृत-अपभ्रंश-हिन्दी-पालि
b. अपभ्रंश-पालि-प्राकृत-हिन्दी
c. हिन्दी-पालि-अपभ्रंश-प्राकृत
d. पालि-प्राकृत-अपभ्रंश -हिन्दी
52. निम्न से में 'अल्पप्राण वर्ण कौन -से हैं ?
a. क, ग
b. थ, ध
c. फ, भ
d. अ, आ
53. 'छ' ध्वनि का उच्चारण स्थान हैः
a. ओष्ठ्य
b. तालव्य
c. दंत्य
d. इनमे से कोई नहीं
54. एकाधिकार का विलोम शब्द है
a. अनेकाधिकार
b. सर्वाधिकार
c. पराधिकार
d. परमाधिकार
55. श्रीगणेश का विलोम शब्द है
a. श्रीराधा
b. विनाश
c. इतिश्री
d. इनमे से कोई नहीं
56. युधिस्तिर सबसे बड़े पांडव थे ?
a. युधिष्ठिर
b. युधिशिठर
c. युधिस्थिर
d. युधषठिर
57. पति-पत्नी के जोड़े को दमपति कहते है
a. दम्पति
b. दमपती
c. दम्पत्ति
d. दम्पती
58. विक्रमी संवत ईसवी सं से 57 वर्ष आगे रहता है
a. संवत
b. सम्वत
c. समवत
d. संवत्
59. Why are Ram and Sita considered as……………… best couple
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
60. I saw………… good deal of him during………… war
a. No article, a
b. The, the
c. A, a
d. A, The
61. NOTE: Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
She said, “She must leave all the bad habits.”
a. She said she has to leave all the bad habits.
b. She said that she must have leave all the bad habits.
c. Sha said that she had to leave all the bad habits.
d. She said that she could leave all the bad habits.
62. NOTE: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Ajay says, “There is going to be a snowfall.”
a. Ajay said that there is going to be a snowfall.
b. Ajay said that there was going to be a snowfall.
c. Ajay says that there was going to be a snowfall.
d. Ajay says that there is going to be a snowfall.
63. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?
Praise
a. Celebrate
b. Condemn
c. Hail
d. Secure
64. Select the most appropriate ANOTOYM of the given word?
PLUNGE
a. Dive
b. Duck
c. Rise
d. Fall
65. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word?
Taciturn
a. Noisy
b. Lively
c. Verbose
d. Reserved
66. Select the most appropriate synonym of the most given word?
Solemn
a. Excited
b. Frivolous
c. Trivial
d. Dignified
67. Which is the following is not a verb?
a. Convey
b. Purpose
c. Regard
d. None of the above
68. Which of the following is a form of the verb ‘be’?
a. May
b. Am
c. Can
d. None of the above
69. Direction: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
Children__________ online for more than a year now
a. Study
b. Are studying
c. Have been studying
d. Studied
70. Choose the correct form the verb to fill in blank:
They_________ the bridge for several months.
a. Have been building
b. Are building
c. Will be building
d. Has been building
71. Surely the lost child must have been found by now.
a. Surely must have found the lost child by now
b. Surely someone must have found the lost child by now.
c. Surely now must have found the lost child
d. Now must have found the lost child surely
72. They have made a film based on this novel.
a. A film was based on this novel and made
b. A film have been made based on, this novel
c. A film, based on this novel, has been made
d. A film has been based and made on this novel
73. The invigilator was advising the students not to carry any digital device into the examination hall
a. The students were advised not to carry digital device into the examination hall by the invigilator
b. The students have been advised not to carry any digital device into the examination hall
c. The students were being advised by the invigilator not to carry any digital device into the examination hall
d. The invigilator was seen advising the students not to carry any digital device into the examination hall
74. Heydon's case deals with_____________?
a. Mischief rule
b. Rule of reasonable construction
c. Noscitur a sociis
d. Golden rule
75. Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, a landlord may let out the premises for residential purposes for a limited period not exceeding _________.
a. one year
b. Two year
c. three year
d. five year
76. Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, the petition for eviction of tenant shall be disposed of within a period of ________ from the date of service of notice on the tenant.
a. 90 days
b. 150 days
c. 180 days
d. 240 days
77. Procedure in case of offender failing to observe conditions of bond is dealt under ________ of the Probation of Offenders Act
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
78. Which Section of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 deals with 'Observation homes..'
a. Section 47
b. Section 49
c. Section 50
d. Section 48
79. Section 21 OF The POCSO Act, 2012 deals with punishment for
a. false complaint or false information
b. failure to record or report a case
c. Trials when not conducted in camera
d. None of the above
80. When a child in conflict with law is in custody while undergoing trial, is declared adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act upon crossing the age of 18 years during the course of trial. Which of the following option is available to the trial court in such a situation?
a. To allow the child to go home after advise or admonition
b. To drop the proceedings and release the child from custody forthwith
c. To direct the child to be released or probation of good conduct
d. Send the child to a place of safety
81. The member appointed from amongst the non-governmental organisations or associations shall be paid such fees or allowances for holding the proceedings of the Internal Committee, by the _________.
a. Aggrieved Woman
b. Presiding Officer
c. Employer
d. Fund allocated for Internal Complaint Committee
82. Which section of the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 defines the term “indecent representation of women”?
a. Section 2(a)
b. Section 2(b)
c. Section 2(c)
d. Section 3
83. Which section of The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956- Inherent powers of Courts and officers.
a. Section 10
b. Section12
c. Section 27
d. Section 23
84. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961- ‘Set off or counter claim’ deals with
a. Section 11
b. Section 10
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
85. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950- "Denatured" is defined
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 3(4)
c. Section 3(3)
d. Section 3(2)
86. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908-Inspector-General of Registration
a. Section 2
b. Section 1
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
87. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000- Authentication of electronic records deals with
a. Section 8
b. Section 6
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
88. Abbott v Abbott is a leading English case relating to
a. Sharing of profit
b. Partnership at will
c. Particular partnership
d. None of the above
89. General duties of partners' are enumerated in section ......................... of the Indian Partnership Act. 1932.
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
90. Which of the following is provided under Section 9 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
a. Ascertainment of price
b. Conditions and warranties
c. Agreement to sell
d. All of the above
91. A stipulation essential to main purpose of contract, the breach of which gives an aggrieved party right to repudiate the contract is known as:
a. Warranty
b. Implied warranty
c. Condition
d. Contingent contract
92. Whether the consummation of marriage before the age of puberty deprives a Muslim wife of her option of puberty under Section 2(vii) of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939?
a. Always deprive
b. Deprive but only under certain circumstances
c. Does not deprive
d. Either (1) or (2)
93. 'Mubaarat' under the classical Muslim law refers to—
a. bettle expenses fixed for a married woman
b. maintenance obligations of the husband
c. divorce initiated by wife
d. divorce by mutual consent
94. According to the doctrine of pious obligation:
a. The wife has to obey the husband
b. The husband has to maintain the wife
c. Son is liable for father's debts
d. Father is liable for son's debts
95. Which among the following is not specifically included for maintenance under Section 20 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?
a. Illegitimate child
b. Infirm parent
c. Step father
d. Step mother
96. Workplace is defined in which provision of the sexual harassment of women at workplace act
a. Section 2 (m)
b. Section 2 (p)
c. Section 2 (o)
d. Section 2 (e)
97. Which of the following is not a partnership?
a. The entrustment of `stridhan' property by the wife to her hus-band and the husband doing a business
b. A society for religious purpose
c. A club
d. All of the above are not part-nerships
98. Which of the following Section deal with an implied warranty in every contract of sale
a. 14(a)
b. 14(b)
c. 15
d. 16(2)
99. The meaning of the term 'caveat emptor' is
a. goods should be free from defect
b. ownership of goods passes after sale
c. let the buyer be aware
d. none of the above
100. Which of the following is absolute incapacity for marriage?
a. Consanguinity
b. Affinity
c. Fosterage
d. All of the above