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Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test-2
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RAJASTHAN MOCK TEST 2
1. The Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, came into force on: —
a. 1st July 1974
b. 21st January 1973
c. 1st April 1974
d. 1st April 1973
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2. Section 25 of the CrPC makes provision for the appointment of
a. Public Prosecutor
b. Assistant Public Prosecutor
c. Public Authority
d. Government representative
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3. In the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provisions for jurisdiction in case of juveniles have been made under Section
a. 25
b. 26
c. 52
d. 27
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4. Under CRPC -An order of life imprisonment may be passed by—
a. Chief Judicial Magistrate
b. Sessions Judge
c. Metropolitan Magistrate
d. Any Magistrate of the First Class
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5. What is the title of Section 1 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Title and Definitions
b. Short Title, Extent and Commencement
c. Commencement and Scope
d. Preliminary Provisions
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6. Executive Magistrates are described in which section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 14
b Section 13
c. Section 15
d. Section 16
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7. The procedure where the person appears to show cause is specified in which section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 156
b. Section 158
c. Section 157
d. Section 159
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8. Which of the following is correctly matched acc to section of the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
a. Section 165: Power to attach subject of dispute
b. Section 165: Power to appoint receiver
c. Section 165: Power to attach subject of dispute and to appoint receiver
d. Section 165: Local inquiry
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9. Period of limitation for suits relating to account is
a. 3 years
b. 7 years
c. 1 year
d. 5 years
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10. The Law of Limitation only bars remedy, but does not extinguish the______.
a. Property
b. Right
c. Debt
d. Recovery
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11. Which of the following may be applied as a test of 'grave art sudden provocation' as envisaged by the exception to Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code?
a. Whether a reasonable man belonging to the same class of society as the accused, placed in the situation in which the accused was placed would be so provoked as to lose his self-control.
b. Whether the accused was placed in a situation where he lost his cognitive faculties which rendered him incapable of understanding consequences of his actions.
c. Whether the victim provoked the accused despite having a prior knowledge that the accused was a short-tempered person.
d. All of the above.
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12. In IPC – If 'A' intentionally fired a shot from his pistol at 'B' but it hit 'C' and 'C' died. The offence committed by 'A' is—
a. Attempt to murder
b. Culpable homicide
c. Murder under Section 300
d. Murder under Section 301
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13. A’ and 'B' were sworn enemies in school. 'A' had pushed 'B' due to which he fell down and his two front teeth were knocked out. 'B' was looking for an opportunity to settle scores and once after school he challenged ‘A’ to a duel and gave him punch on his face with intent to knock out his teeth, but he missed the aim the blow landed on the right eye of ‘A’ due to which he lost his eyesight in the right eye. Here 'B' would be liable for which offence under BNS
a. Voluntarily causing hurt
b. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt
c. No offence as he never intended to inflict the injury in question
d. He would get benefit of free fight
Also Check: IPC/BNS Detailed Notes
14. The offence of grievous hurt has been defined in:
a. Section 320 of IPC
b. Section 321 of IPC
c. Section 322 of IPC
d. Section 336 of IPC
15. A hurt which is not grievous under Section 320, IPC is
a. permanent privation of the sight of an eye
b. privation of a member
c. privation of a joint
d. injury to head
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16. Under BNS -Which of the following is not "Grievous Hurt"?
a. permanent privation of the hearing of either ear
b. dislocation of a tooth
c. Emasculation
d. any hurt which causes the sufferer bodily pain for twenty days
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17. N, a landlord after repeatedly demanding and not getting the rent of his flat from the tenant H, one day locked the flat in order not to allow H to enter it, till he pays the rent to him. Which of the following offences has N committed under the BNS?
a. Wrongful confinement
b. Assault
c. Criminal force
d. Wrongful restraint
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18. ‘A was on his journey by car from Delhi to Agra. 'B' met him in the way and requested for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town, ‘A’ acceded to his request, but on reaching Mathura, did not drop 'B' there in spite of his repeated requests. 'B' was carried over to Agra against his wishes so For which offence under BNS ‘A’ is liable
a. A is not guilty of any offence
b. 'A' is guilty of offence of abduction
c. 'A' is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement
d. ‘A' is guilty of using criminal force
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19. Under Section 57(1) of the Evidence Act, the court shall take judicial notice of-
a. All laws in force in India
b. All laws including foreign laws
c. All Indian and Asian laws
d. All Indian and British laws up to 1950
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20. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 facts of which the court will take judicial notice
a. may be proved
b. must be proved
c. need not be proved
d. none of these
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21. Under IEA- Facts which need not be proved by the parties, include:
a. facts which have been admitted by the parties at or before the hearing
b. statements made on oath
c. any registered document
d. statements made in plaint or in written statement supported by affidavit.
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22. Which one of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act?
a. An inscription on a stone of a building
b. A photograph
c. A printout of a message sent through mobile or computer
d. A knife recovered by police from the possession of an accused and produced in the court
23. Which one among the following statements is not correct according to the provisions of the BSA?
a. Where a document is executed in several parts, each part is primary evidence of the document
b. Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counterpart is primary evidence as against the parties executing it
c. Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counterpart is primary evidence for the parties executing it
d. Where the document itself is produced before the court for its inspection, it is primary evidence of the document
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24. Under BSA -The primary evidence in respect of a document, which is prepared in many original copies, will be:
a. First original copy
b. All original copies
c. All copies are secondary evidence
d. None of the above
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25. Which section OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with Previous judgments relevant to bar a second suit or trial.
a. section 32
b. section 33
c. section 34
d. section 35
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26. Which section OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with Presumption as to collections of laws and reports of decisions.
a. section 89
b. section 84
c. section 83
d. section 80
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27. The Commissioner as appointed Under the provisions of Order XVIII of the Code of Civil Procedure for the purposes of recording of evidence cannot:
a. Re-examine a witness
b. Decide objections raised during the recording of evidence
c. Neither of the above
d. Both (a) and (b)
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28. Which one of the following provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is related to affidavit
a. Order 17
b. Order 19
c. Order 26
d. Order 39
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29. Under CPC- When a court desires that its decree shall be executed by another court, it shall send to the other court
a. a decree and certificate of nonsatisfaction
b. judgment and decree
c. judgment and execution petition
d. execution petition and certificate of non-satisfaction
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30. "A "Garnishee Order" under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to
a. Judgment debtor
b. Judgment debtor's creditor
c. Decree holder
d. Judgment debtor's debtor
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31. Of the following under which provision is the superintendence, direction and control of the electoral roll vested in the Election Commission of India?
a. Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
b. Rule 25 of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960
c. Article 324 of the Constitution of India
d. Para 13(1) of the Handbook of Electoral Registration Officer
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32. Provision for Financial emergency are laid down in Article ………………of the Constitution of India.
a. 352
b. 356
c. 360
d. 368
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33. The President Rule under Article 356 remains valid in a state for the maximum period of:
a. one year
b. two years
c. three years
d. four years
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34. By which amendment to the Constitution, Article 16(4B) was added?
a. The Constitution (Eighty-first Amendment) Act, 2000
b. The Constitution (Eighty-second Amendment) Act, 2000
c. The Constitution (Eighty-fifth Amendment) Act, 2001
d. The Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act, 2003
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35. Where a person transfers property representing that he has a present interest therein, whereas he has, in fact, only a Spes successions, the transferee is entitled to the benefit of section 43, and for consideration as section 42 and section 6 (a) operate on different fields. This principle was laid down in: -
a. Rajesh Kanta Ray V. Shanti Debi
b. Chunchun Jha v. Ebadat Ali
c. Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah
d. Ram Baran Prasad v. Ram Mohit harzra
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36. Under Transfer of Property Act, which one of the following is not transferable
a. Salary of a public officer it has become payable
b. Right to receive offerings
c. Right to receive verified compensation amount
d. Right to repurchase
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37. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Contingent interest - Section 21
b. Direction for condition - Section 17
c. Fulfillment of condition subsequent - Section 30
d. Priority of rights created by transfer - Section 48
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38. Which one of the following contracts is void?
a. ‘A’ and 'B' contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' goes mad
b. 'A' end 'B' contract to marry each other at the early date, 'A' insists on marriage immediately after expiry of One month from the date of the contract
c. ‘A’ and 'B' contract to marry each other, but 'A' can fix the date of marriage only after his return from England where he had gone for business
d. 'A' and 'B' contract to marry each Other, Before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' fall ill and his physician advises 'A' to take rest in bed for one month
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39. A sum fixed beforehand as amount of compensation payable in the event of breach of contract is called
a. liquidated damage
b. Penalty
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
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40. Satyabrat Ghose v. Mangneeram Bangur (1954 SC) is a case on
a. Minor's contract
b. Consideration
c. Frustration
d. Contingent contract
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41. A person who supplies 'Necessaries' to a minor is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of the minor on the basis of a
a. Valid contract
b. Voidable contract
c. Quasi contract
d. Contingent contract
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42. SRA- In which of the following cases would rescission of a contract be adjudged by the Court?
a. Where the plaintiff has ratified the contract
b. The third parties to the contract have acquired the right in good faith
c. Where the contract is voidable by the plaintiff
d. Where the part of the contract sought to be rescinded is not severable from the rest of the contract
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43. Under section 36 of the specific relief Act, 1963 the preventive relief is granted by
a. Declaration
b. Specific performance
c. Injunction
d. None of the above
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44. As per Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, "respondent" means and includes:
a. any person, who is in a domestic relationship with the aggrieved person and against whom the aggrieved person has sought relief under the Act
b. male partner when aggrieved female is living in a relationship with him in the nature of a marriage
c. the female relatives of the husband of the aggrieved wife, seeking their removal from the shared household
d. none of the above
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45. The cognizance of offence under Section 138 of N.I. Act can be taken by the JMFC having territorial jurisdiction at the
a. Place of the issuance of the cheque
b. Place of the delivery of the statutory notice
c. Place when the complainant chooses to present the cheque for encashment by his Bank
d. Place where the cheque is dishonoured by the bank on which it is drawn
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46. Which Section provides that the offences under the Negotiable Instruments Act are compoundable?
a. Section 137
b. Section 141
c. Section 147
d. Section 149
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47. निम्न में से कौनसा 'विलोम युग्म' सही है:-
a. निष्काम-सकाम
b. निकट-सन्निकट
c. नाश-विनाश
d. मितव्ययी अल्पव्ययी
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48. मूल पत्र की प्रतिलिपि किसी विभाग को प्रेषित की जाती है, उसे क्या कहते है: -
a. पृष्ठांकन
b. प्रेस विज्ञप्ति
c. परिपत्र
d. प्रस्ताव
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49. 'घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबर, कहावत का अर्थ है:
a. घर की मुर्गी को दाल के बराबर मूल्यवान समझना
b. घर की मुर्गी को बराबर दाल खिलाना
c. मुर्गी व दाल खाना
d. अपने आदमी को कम महत्व देना
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50. "साध्वाचरण" शब्द का संधि विच्छेद किस क्रम में है
a. साधु + आचरण
b. साधु + आचरण
c. साधव + चरण
d. साधु + चरण
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51. 'नीलोत्पलम्' में समास है
a. तत्पुरुष
b. कर्मधारय
c. बहुव्रीहि
d. अध्ययीभाव
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52. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा शब्द 'विद्युत' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है?
a. तडित
b. चपला
c. कोदंड
d. चंचला
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53. 'जिन ढूँढा तिन पाइयाँ गहरे पानी पैठ' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है: -
a. बिना प्रयास के लाभ होना
b. काम करने में शीघ्रता करना
c. परिश्रम का फल अवश्य मिलता है
d. सांसरिकता में लिप्त रहकर ईश्वर को प्राप्त करना
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54. 'उंगलियों पर नचाना' मुहावरे का अर्थ-बोधक वाक्य है :-
a. शीला अपने पति की उंगलियों पर नाचती है।
b. शीला अपने पति की इच्छा के अनुसार काम करती है।
c. शीला अपने पति से अपनी इच्छा के अनुसार काम करवाती है।
d. शीला का पति अपनी इच्छा से सारे काम करता है।
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55. मुट्ठी गरम करना मुहावरे का अर्थ है: -
a. रिश्वत देना।
b. हाथ सेकना।
c. बुखार चढ़ना
d. सारा शरीर गरम होना
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56. किस युग्म में विलोमता नहीं है ?
a. अभिज्ञ-अनभिज्ञ
b. वियोग संयोग
c. ग्राह्य-त्याज्य
d. हर्ष-विस्मय
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57. किस शब्द की वर्तनी दोषपूर्ण है?
a. अनुगृहीत
b. संग्रहीत
c. उच्छृंखल
d. गण्यमान्य
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58. सत्+जन कडे संधि है :-
a. सजन
b. सज्जन
c. सत्जन
d. राजन
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59. 'जानने की इच्छा रखने वाला के लिये उपयुक्त शब्द है :-
a. विश्वासी
b. सर्वज्ञ
c. जिज्ञासु
d. वाचाल
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60. भीतर से शत्रुता और ऊपर से मीठी बात करने के भाव को व्यक्त करने वाली लोकोक्ति
a. आम के आम्, गुठली के दाम।
b. मुँह में राम, बगल में घुरी।
c. दोनों हाथों में लड्डू।
d. दूर के बोल सुहावने।
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61. ‘जब मैं घर पहुँचा तब तक पिता जी खाना खा चुके थे ' रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद है.
a. सरल वाक्य
b. संयुक्त वाक्य
c. मिश्र वाक्य
d. उप-वाक्य
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62. There is……... fish in ……... bottle.
a. The, the
b. A, the
c. A, a
d. None
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63. They wanted to hear………... end of the story.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No article
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64. NOTE: Select the option that expresses the following sentence in reported (or indirect) speech.
The postmaster said to her, “You can purchase only two stamps at a time.”
a. The postmaster told her that she can purchase only two stamps at a time.
b. The postmaster asked her that she could purchase only two stamps at a time
c. The postmaster asked her that she could purchase only two stamps at a time
d. The postmaster told her that she could purchase only two stamps at a time.
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65. NOTE: select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
She said; “I am preparing for the exam.”
a. She said that she was preparing for the exam.
b. She said that she had been preparing for the exam.in
c. She said that she is preparing for the exam.
d. None of the above
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66. What is the most appropriate antonym of the given word? Regime
a. Anarchy
b. Autocracy
c. Oligarchy
d. Dynasty
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67. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word?
Modest
a. Unhappy
b. Conceited
c. Sullen
d. Glum
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68. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word? Lacuna
a. Hiatus
b. Apathy
c. Misfortune
d. Languor
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69. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word? Avert
a. Face
b. Permit
c. Confront
d. Prevent
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70. Which of the following sentence uses the modal ‘may’ to express a possibility?
a. It may rain today
b. May you be happy
c. May I go there
d. You may use my phone if your is not working
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71. Which of the following sentences has a gerund phrase:
a. She enjoys playing tennis
b. The children come running to meet us
c. We soon got talking
d. None of the above
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72. Direction: choose the option that best fills in to complete the given sentence:
I_________ an exam for two years.
a. Hasn’t made
b. Haven’t taken
c. Hasn’t took
d. None of the above
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73. Fill in the blanks with the correct word in the given sentences:
Mrs. Thomas along with Mrs. Jocab__________ volunteer work
a. Will doing
b. Do
c. Does
d. None of the above
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74. He mailed his application for a new job.
a. The application for a new job is mailed by him.
b. The application for a new job was mailed by him.
c. He is the mailer of the application for a new job.
d. He was the mailer of the application for a new job.
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75. The labourers paved the entire stretch of the road.
a. The entire stretch of the road is paved by the labourers.
b. Paving of the entire stretch of the road was done by the labourers.
c. The entire stretch of the road was paved by the labourers.
d. Paving of the entire stretch of the road is done by the labourers.
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76. The painter painted the entire bungalow.
a. The entire bungalow is painted by the painter.
b. Painting of the entire bungalow was done by the painter.
c. The entire bungalow was painted by the painter.
d. Painting of the entire bungalow is done by the painter.
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77. Rule of ejusdem generis is applicable when__________?
a. Specific word follow general words
b. General word follows specific words
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
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78. What is the purpose of rent control laws in India?
a. To ensure affordable housing for tenants
b. To protect the rights of landlords
c. To encourage real estate development
d. To promote rental market competition
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79. An appeal against the order of the Rent Authority shall lie to the Rent Tribunal within _______ from the date of order.
a. 30 Days
b. 45 Days
c. 60 Days
d. 90 Days
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80. Procedure for reporting of cases under POCSO Act is dealt in
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter V
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter VII
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81. Under Section 20 of POCSO Act information shall be provided to
a. the Special Juvenile Police Unit
b. to the local police
c. Nearest Executive Magistrate
d. Either (a) or (b)
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82. Under which section of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 Classification of offences and designated court.
a. section 86
b. section 87
c. section 88
d. None of the above
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83. What does abandoned child mean as per JJ Act 2015?
I. Abandoned child means a child deserted by his biological or adoptive parents
II. It means a child who has been declared as abandoned by the Committee after due inquiry
a. Only i
b. Only ii
c. Both i and ii
d. None of the above
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84. As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, who is a child?
a. Child is a person below 16 years of age
b. Child is a person below 18 years of age
c. Child is a person below 21 years of age
d. Child is anyone below 12 years of age
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85. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 was enacted on _______.
a. 22nd April, 2013
b. 19th June, 2013
c. 23rd February, 2013
d. 16th May, 2013
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86. How many sections are there in the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
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87. Which of the following is not an essential requisite for creating a partnership as per Section 4 of the Partnership Act?
a. An agreement to carry on a business
b. Sharing of profits
c. Sharing of losses
d. Business to be carried by all or any of them acting for all
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88. Which is incorrect regarding implied authority of a partner
a. he can compromise suits or behalf of firm
b. he can transfer immovable properties of firm
c. he can enter into partnership on behalf of the firm
d. all of the above
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89. Under Section 51 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the goods are in transit so long as they are in:
a. possession of the carrier qua buyer
b. possession of the carrier qua carrier
c. possession of the carrier appointed by the buyer qua the buyer
d. none of the above
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90. Dastane V. Dastane is a case on
a. Adoption
b. Marriage
c. Divorce
d. Guardianship
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91. In which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 'bigamy' is prohibited?
a. Section 20
b. Section 19
c. Section 17
d. Section 18
92. Talak-ul-biddat is—
a. Complete and irrevocable divorce
b. Complete and irrevocable divorce
c. Complete and revocable divorce
d. None of these above
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93. Marriage in Muslim Law
a. A Sacrament
b. A Civil Contract
c. A Sacrament and a Civil Contract both
d. A Social Status
Also Check: Muslim Law Free Notes
94. Which section of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 deals with Procedure in case of offender failing to observe conditions of bond ?
a. Section 6 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
b. Section 8 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
c. Section 9 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
d. Section 2 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
Also Check: Probation of Offenders Act Free One Liner Notes
95. Under section 4 of The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956- The Board shall consist of a Chairman, and not less than three and not more than ------ other members
a. Ten other members
b. six other members
c. Fifteen other members
d. None of the above
Also Check: RJS Land Revenue Code Bare Act
96. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961- Fees on documents inadvertently received.
a. Section 8
b. Section 7
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
Also Check: Rajasthan Court Fees Act One Liner Notes
97. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950- Appointment of Commissioner and Excise Officers.
a. Section 13
b. Section 11
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
Also Check: Rajasthan Excise Act One Liner Notes
98. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908- Effect of non-registration of documents required to be registered.
a. Section 31
b. Section 43
c. Section 49
d. Section 40
Also Check: Registration Act Bare Act
99. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 -Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate.
a. Section 41
b. Section 31
c. Section 38
d. Section 32
Also Check: IT Act One Liner Notes
100. The liability of members in a joint family business is
a. Unlimited
b. Limited to the extent of their interest in the assets of the family
c. Depends
d. None of the above