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UP Police Act, 1861 MCQs Paper-3
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1. A police officer may be employed:
a. Only in his police station
b. Only in his district headquarters
c. Anywhere in the general police district
d. Anywhere in India
2. Section 22 primarily ensures:
a. Salary protection
b. Continuous accountability of police officers
c. Judicial supervision
d. Promotion opportunities
3. Which of the following is correct?
a. Police officers have fixed territorial limits
b. Police officers cannot be deployed outside their station
c. Police officers can be deployed anywhere in the district
d. Deployment requires court approval
4. The concept underlying Section 22 reflects:
a. Contractual employment
b. Volunteer service
c. Public duty and discipline
d. Temporary appointment
5. Failure of an off-duty officer to act in an emergency may lead to:
a. No consequence
b. Automatic dismissal
c. Possible disciplinary action
d. Criminal liability only
6. Section 22 applies to:
a. Only senior officers
b. Only armed police
c. Every police officer
d. Special police only
7. “General police district” refers to:
a. Entire country
b. Police station area only
c. The district to which the Act applies
d. Municipality limits
8. Section 22 strengthens:
a. Police privileges
b. Administrative control and operational readiness
c. Judicial authority
d. Local self-government
9. Section 23 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Duties of police officers
c. Discipline of police force
d. Powers of Magistrate
10. A police officer must obey orders issued by:
a. Any citizen
b. Political authority only
c. Competent lawful authority
d. Senior police officer only
11. Collection of intelligence under Section 23 relates to:
a. Military operations
b. Public peace
c. Revenue matters
d. Private disputes
12. Police duty includes prevention of:
a. Civil disputes
b. Offences and public nuisances
c. Tax evasion only
d. Administrative irregularities
13. Detecting offenders means:
a. Identifying and investigating criminals
b. Passing judgment
c. Imposing punishment
d. Conducting trial
14. Police may apprehend persons:
a. Only with warrant
b. Only on court order
c. Whom they are legally authorized to arrest
d. Any suspicious person
15. Warrantless entry is permitted into:
a. Private residences generally
b. Any building
c. Drinking shops and gaming houses
d. Government offices only
16. Such warrantless entry is allowed for:
a. Personal inquiry
b. Revenue inspection
c. Purposes mentioned in Section 23
d. Political investigation
17. Places of “loose and disorderly characters” refers to:
a. Educational institutions
b. Places likely to disturb public peace
c. Government offices
d. Religious places
18. Section 23 reflects the concept of:
a. Judicial policing
b. Preventive policing
c. Military policing
d. Private security
19. Section 24 empowers a police officer to:
a. Try criminal cases
b. Lay information before a Magistrate
c. Pass sentences
d. Conduct trials
20. The information under Section 24 is laid before:
a. Sessions Court
b. High Court
c. Magistrate
d. Police Superintendent
21. A police officer may apply for which of the following?
a. Summons
b. Warrant
c. Search warrant
d. All of the above
22. Legal process under this section may be issued against:
a. Any government officer
b. Any witness
c. Any person committing an offence
d. Any complainant
23. The power under Section 24 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Discretionary/enabling
c. Judicial
d. Legislative
24. Who ultimately decides whether to issue the process?
a. Police officer
b. Magistrate
c. State Government
d. District Superintendent
25. Section 24 relates primarily to:
a. Trial procedure
b. Sentencing
c. Initiation of criminal process
d. Police discipline
26. The provision supplements:
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Evidence Act only
c. Criminal Procedure Code
d. Constitution
27. Search warrant mentioned in this section is issued by:
a. Police officer
b. Magistrate
c. Government
d. Court clerk
28. Section 24 highlights the role of police as:
a. Judges
b. Prosecutors
c. Initiators of legal proceedings
d. Legislators
29. Section 25 imposes a duty on police officers regarding:
a. Stolen property only
b. Seized property only
c. Unclaimed property
d. Government property
30. Every police officer must:
a. Ignore unclaimed property
b. Sell it immediately
c. Take charge of it
d. Transfer it to private persons
31. The police must furnish an inventory to:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. Superintendent of Police
32. Disposal of unclaimed property is guided by:
a. Police discretion
b. Orders of Magistrate
c. Orders of SP
d. Orders of State Government only
33. The duty under Section 25 is:
a. Optional
b. Discretionary
c. Mandatory
d. Conditional
34. Inventory refers to:
a. Ownership certificate
b. List and description of property
c. Sale document
d. Police diary entry
35. Police officers may dispose of unclaimed property:
a. At their own will
b. With court permission only
c. According to Magistrate’s orders
d. By auction without permission
36. The purpose of requiring inventory is to ensure:
a. Revenue collection
b. Administrative convenience only
c. Accountability and transparency
d. Faster disposal
37. Authority supervising disposal of such property is:
a. Police Headquarters
b. State Cabinet
c. District Magistrate
d. Sessions Court
38. Section 25 primarily protects:
a. Police officers
b. Government funds
c. Interests of rightful owners and public property
d. Private contractors
39. Power to detain unclaimed property is vested in:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate
c. High Court
d. State Government
40. The Magistrate must issue a proclamation:
a. Privately
b. Only to police
c. Publicly describing the property
d. Only to Government officers
41. A claimant must establish his right within:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
42. The limitation period runs from:
a. Date of seizure
b. Date of detention
c. Date of proclamation
d. Date of inventory
43. Burden of proof of ownership lies on:
a. Police
b. Magistrate
c. Claimant
d. State Government
44. Section 26 ensures:
a. Immediate confiscation
b. Secret disposal
c. Due process before disposal
d. Police autonomy
45. Sub-section (2) applies provisions of:
a. Indian Penal Code (BNS)
b. Evidence Act
c. Criminal Procedure Code provisions
d. Civil Procedure Code
46. Detention of property means:
a. Permanent confiscation
b. Temporary custody
c. Destruction
d. Transfer to police ownership
47. Proclamation must specify:
a. Names of police officers
b. Government policy
c. Articles of which property consists
d. Revenue details
48. Section 26 primarily safeguards:
a. Police interests
b. Rights of potential owners
c. Government revenue
d. Private contractors
49. Section 27 applies when:
a. Property is stolen
b. Owner is unknown and no claim is made
c. Police refuse to take custody
d. Property belongs to Government
50. If no claimant appears within prescribed time, the property:
a. Must be destroyed
b. Must be returned to police
c. May be sold by order of District Magistrate
d. Automatically vests in High Court
51. Authority to order sale of such property is:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. State Government directly
c. District Magistrate
d. Civil Court
52. If property has already been sold earlier:
a. Nothing further happens
b. Sale proceeds are considered
c. Property must be resold
d. Police retain the money
53. Sale proceeds of unclaimed property ultimately go to:
a. District Magistrate
b. Police Department
c. State Government
d. Local Municipality
54. Section 27 represents:
a. Punitive confiscation
b. Administrative disposal due to absence of claim
c. Civil attachment
d. Revenue recovery
55. Before Section 27 applies, opportunity to claim is provided under:
a. Section 22
b. Section 23
c. Section 26
d. Section 30
56. Confiscation under Section 27 occurs because:
a. Property is illegal
b. Owner is convicted
c. No claimant establishes ownership
d. Police require funds
57. The scheme of Sections 25–27 relates to:
a. Criminal punishment
b. Unclaimed property management
c. Police recruitment
d. Maintenance of law and order
58. Disposal by State Government indicates that property:
a. Remains private
b. Becomes State property
c. Goes to courts
d. Is auctioned repeatedly
59. Section 28 applies to a person who:
a. Is newly appointed
b. Is suspended
c. Has ceased to be a Police Officer
d. Is transferred
60. Obligation imposed is to deliver up:
a. Only certificate
b. Only uniform
c. All official items supplied for duty
d. Only weapons
61. Delivery must be made:
a. Within one month
b. Within six months
c. Forthwith (immediately)
d. After notice
62. Authority competent to convict is:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. Sessions Court
c. Magistrate
d. State Government
63. Maximum imprisonment prescribed is:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
64. Imprisonment may be:
a. Only with hard labour
b. Only without hard labour
c. Either with or without hard labour
d. Only simple imprisonment
65. Maximum fine under Section 28 is:
a. ₹50
b. ₹100
c. ₹200
d. ₹500
66. Purpose of this provision is mainly to prevent:
a. Corruption
b. Absenteeism
c. Impersonation of police
d. Promotion disputes
67. Section 28 protects:
a. Police officers’ rights
b. Government property and public safety
c. Judicial independence
d. Election process
68. Failure to surrender uniform after retirement may lead to:
a. Departmental warning only
b. No action
c. Criminal liability under Section 28
d. Civil suit only
69. Section 29 deals with penalties for:
a. Theft of property
b. Neglect or breach of duty by police
c. Public nuisance
d. Illegal assembly
70. Unauthorized withdrawal from duty without permission attracts:
a. Departmental warning only
b. No penalty
c. Liability under Section 29
d. Transfer
71. Failure to report after expiry of leave without reasonable cause is:
a. Not punishable
b. Civil wrong
c. Misconduct punishable under Section 29
d. Only administrative lapse
72. Engaging in other employment without authority is:
a. Allowed
b. Encouraged
c. Punishable misconduct
d. Subject only to tax law
73. Offering unwarranted personal violence to a person in custody refers to:
a. Lawful use of force
b. Self-defence
c. Custodial abuse
d. Riot control
74. Maximum imprisonment prescribed is:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
75. Fine may extend to:
a. ₹200
b. ₹500
c. Three months’ pay
d. No fine allowed
76. Imprisonment may be:
a. Only with hard labour
b. Only without hard labour
c. Either with or without hard labour
d. Only simple imprisonment
77. Trial for offence under Section 29 is before:
a. Sessions Court
b. Police Tribunal
c. Magistrate
d. State Government
78. Cowardice in performance of duty is expressly included as:
a. Civil liability
b. Departmental lapse only
c. Punishable misconduct
d. Non-justiciable issue
79. Section 30 primarily deals with:
a. Police recruitment
b. Public assemblies and processions
c. Criminal trials
d. Custodial procedures
80. Authority to regulate assemblies on public roads is given to:
a. Magistrate only
b. District Superintendent of Police
c. Governor
d. Sessions Judge
81. Police may prescribe:
a. Dress code of participants
b. Route and timing of processions
c. Political agenda
d. Religious practices
82. Licence may be required when the assembly is likely to:
a. Increase traffic
b. Cause inconvenience
c. Cause breach of peace
d. Exceed 100 persons
83. Who forms the opinion regarding likelihood of breach of peace?
a. Governor
b. High Court
c. Magistrate of district or sub-division
d. Police constable
84. Licence issued under this section:
a. Requires payment of prescribed fee
b. Requires security deposit
c. Is free of cost
d. Is issued by court
85. Licence may specify:
a. Names of licensees and conditions
b. Only number of participants
c. Only route
d. Only time
86. Police may regulate music in streets during:
a. Only elections
b. Only emergencies
c. Festivals and ceremonies
d. Court proceedings
87. Section 30 is primarily:
a. Punitive
b. Revenue-generating
c. Preventive and regulatory
d. Judicial provision
88. The power under Section 30 applies to:
a. Private property only
b. Government offices
c. Public roads and streets
d. Military areas
89. Section 30-A deals with:
a. Grant of licence for assemblies
b. Violation of licence conditions
c. Police recruitment
d. Criminal trials
90. Who can stop a procession violating licence conditions?
a. Only Magistrate
b. Only Superintendent of Police
c. Magistrate or specified police officers
d. Court only
91. An Inspector of Police:
a. Cannot act under this section
b. Can stop violating procession
c. Can only report violation
d. Needs court order
92. Officer-in-charge of a police station:
a. Has no authority
b. Can stop and disperse violating assembly
c. Must seek approval from High Court
d. Can only impose fine
93. If assembly refuses to disperse after order:
a. Nothing happens
b. Licence is automatically cancelled
c. It becomes unlawful assembly
d. Only warning is issued
94. Section 30-A operates after:
a. Arrest
b. Conviction
c. Grant of licence under Section 30
d. Filing of FIR
95. Purpose of Section 30-A is:
a. Revenue collection
b. Regulation of police salaries
c. Enforcement of licence conditions
d. Appointment of officers
96. Which of the following may NOT act under Section 30-A?
a. Magistrate
b. Inspector of Police
c. Station House Officer
d. Private citizen
97. Once assembly is deemed unlawful:
a. It gets immunity
b. Police powers increase
c. Licence automatically renews
d. No legal consequence
98. Section 30-A is primarily:
a. Preventive enforcement provision
b. Judicial provision
c. Revenue provision
d. Administrative guideline
99. Section 31 primarily imposes:
a. Criminal liability
b. Administrative procedure
c. Duty on police to maintain order
d. Revenue obligation
100. Which place is NOT covered under Section 31?
a. Public streets
b. Ghats
c. Private residence
d. Landing places
101. Police must prevent obstruction during:
a. Private meetings only
b. Assemblies and processions
c. Court proceedings
d. Legislative sessions
102. Section 31 applies near places of worship:
a. Only at night
b. Only during emergencies
c. During public worship
d. Never
103. The duty applies when a place:
a. Is permanently blocked
b. Is thronged or likely to be obstructed
c. Is privately owned
d. Is deserted
104. The expression “places of public resort” means:
a. Secret government locations
b. Public gathering places
c. Military bases
d. Private clubs only
105. Section 31 authorizes police to act:
a. Only after obstruction occurs
b. Only on court order
c. Preventively before obstruction
d. Only during riots
106. The duty under Section 31 is:
a. Optional
b. Advisory
c. Mandatory
d. Conditional on approval
107. Which activity falls within Section 31?
a. Regulating crowd at festival
b. Conducting criminal trial
c. Issuing passport
d. Levying tax
108. Section 31 mainly aims at:
a. Crime investigation
b. Maintenance of public order and free movement
c. Revenue collection
d. Police recruitment
109. Section 32 provides punishment for disobedience of orders issued under:
a. Criminal Procedure Code
b. Police Act regulatory sections on assemblies
c. Indian Penal Code (BNS) only
d. Municipal laws
110. Liability arises when a person:
a. Only uses force against police
b. Opposes or disobeys orders
c. Commits a serious crime
d. Fails to pay tax
111. Violation of which also attracts punishment?
a. Court decree
b. Licence conditions
c. Private contract
d. Election rules
112. The licence mentioned relates to:
a. Driving vehicles
b. Firearms
c. Music, assemblies, processions
d. Trade activities
113. Who can grant such licence under this section?
a. Civil Judge
b. District Collector
c. Specified police officers
d. Panchayat head
114. Maximum punishment prescribed is:
a. Imprisonment up to six months
b. Fine up to ₹200
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. Community service
115. Penalty can be imposed only after:
a. Police order
b. Administrative approval
c. Conviction before Magistrate
d. Public complaint
116. Section 32 aims primarily to:
a. Investigate crimes
b. Maintain public order compliance
c. Regulate taxation
d. Control police recruitment
117. Which act would attract Section 32?
a. Playing loud music contrary to licence terms
b. Filing a civil suit
c. Paying fine late
d. Registering FIR
118. Section 32 applies to:
a. Police officers only
b. Government servants only
c. Every person
d. Magistrates
119. Section 32-A empowers whom to prohibit mass drill with arms?
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate
c. Sessions Judge
d. Governor
120. Prohibition may be issued for preservation of:
a. Trade interests
b. Public peace and safety
c. Revenue collection
d. Private disputes
121. “Arms” under this section includes:
a. Only firearms
b. Only explosives
c. Offensive weapons like lathi or danda
d. Kitchen utensils
122. Initial prohibition order may remain in force for:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
123. Further extension may be granted by:
a. Police Department
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Central Government
124. Maximum extension period allowed is:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Unlimited
125. District Magistrate may rescind or alter order:
a. Only on court direction
b. Only on complaint
c. Suo motu or on application
d. Never
126. Who may also rescind or alter the order?
a. Municipal authority
b. State Government
c. Parliament
d. Police station officer
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