Free MCQs
UP Police Act, 1861 MCQs Paper-2
14 min read
Download UP Police Act MCQs PDF
Download UP Police Act One Liner Notes
Download UP Police Act All MCQs + One Liner Notes
Also Explore:
UP Police Act Video Lecture Playlist
There are 4 Sets of MCQs available for UP Police Act, 1861 , you are advised to explore all the sets:
1. A police officer cannot withdraw from duties without:
a. Court order
b. Public notice
c. Express permission of competent authority
d. Approval of Governor
2. Permission to withdraw may be granted by:
a. High Court
b. District Superintendent of Police
c. Village head
d. Any citizen
3. Resignation without leave requires written notice of at least:
a. 15 days
b. 1 month
c. 2 months
d. 6 months
4. The notice must be given to:
a. Any police station
b. District Magistrate
c. Superior officer
d. Court clerk
5. The provision primarily ensures:
a. Higher salaries
b. Public safety through continuity of service
c. Promotion opportunities
d. Judicial independence
6. Leaving duty without permission may lead to:
a. Automatic retirement
b. No consequence
c. Disciplinary action
d. Transfer to another State
7. Police service is treated as:
a. Purely private employment
b. Temporary contract work
c. Essential public service with discipline
d. Volunteer service
8. The authority empowered to grant permission may also be:
a. Any elected representative
b. Officer authorized by the District Superintendent
c. Journalist
d. Private employer
9. The section reflects the principle that police officers:
a. May leave service at will
b. Must maintain continuity of duty
c. Are not government servants
d. Serve only during emergencies
10. Section 10 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with:
a. Appointment of officers
b. Discipline during suspension
c. Prohibition on other employment
d. Transfer of officers
11. A police officer may engage in other employment only if:
a. Approved by court
b. Permitted orally by superior
c. Permitted in writing by competent authority
d. Approved by public notice
12. Permission must be granted by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General
d. Chief Secretary
13. The phrase “any employment or office whatever” indicates:
a. Limited prohibition
b. Broad and comprehensive prohibition
c. Only government jobs are prohibited
d. Only private jobs are prohibited
14. The main purpose of the section is to ensure:
a. Higher income for officers
b. Full-time devotion to police duties
c. Political neutrality
d. Judicial independence
15. Outside employment without permission may result in:
a. Promotion
b. No consequence
c. Disciplinary action
d. Automatic retirement
16. The provision helps prevent:
a. Transfer disputes
b. Conflict of interest
c. Pension delays
d. Training requirements
17. The rule applies to:
a. Only constables
b. Only senior officers
c. All police officers
d. Only temporary staff
18. Written permission is necessary because:
a. Oral orders are invalid for such matters
b. Courts demand it
c. Public approval is required
d. It reduces paperwork
19. Police service under this provision is treated as:
a. Part-time occupation
b. Casual employment
c. Exclusive public service
d. Volunteer work
20. Section 12 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Rule-making power of the Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police
c. Public assemblies
d. Special police officers
21. Rules under Section 12 are framed by:
a. District Magistrate
b. State Legislature
c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police
d. High Court
22. The rule-making power under Section 12 is exercised:
a. Independently without approval
b. Subject to approval of the State Government
c. Only with court permission
d. By Parliament
23. Section 12 allows rules regarding:
a. Judicial procedures
b. Organisation and distribution of police force
c. Taxation powers
d. Election duties only
24. The provision authorizes rules about:
a. Supply of arms and equipment
b. Military deployment
c. Revenue collection
d. Civil administration
25. Intelligence gathering by police is covered under:
a. Section 9
b. Section 12
c. Section 23 only
d. Not covered in the Act
26. One purpose of rules under Section 12 is to:
a. Reduce police powers
b. Prevent abuse or neglect of duty
c. Abolish discipline
d. Transfer judicial authority
27. Section 12 primarily ensures:
a. External control by judiciary
b. Internal administrative regulation of police
c. Military supervision
d. Public participation
28. The places where police personnel shall reside may be determined by:
a. Local bodies
b. State Government alone
c. Rules framed under Section 12
d. Judicial orders
29. Section 12 ultimately aims at making the police force:
a. Independent of government
b. Efficient in discharge of duties
c. Judicial in character
d. Temporary in nature
30. Additional police under Section 13 may be deputed:
a. Only during riots declared by Government
b. On application of any person showing necessity
c. Only by court order
d. Only for government institutions
31. The cost of additional police deployed under Section 13 is borne by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Local Municipality
d. Person making the application
32. The deputed police force under Section 13 is under whose command?
a. Applicant
b. District Magistrate
c. District Superintendent of Police
d. State Government
33. Deployment of additional police under Section 13 is subject to the general direction of:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. Central Government
34. The applicant may require withdrawal of the additional police force by giving:
a. Immediate oral notice
b. Seven days’ notice
c. One month’s written notice
d. Three months’ notice
35. Section 13 primarily relates to:
a. Punishment of police officers
b. Recruitment of police
c. Private employment of additional police at cost of individuals
d. Powers of arrest
36. Section 14 applies to additional police deployment near:
a. Residential colonies
b. Courts
c. Railways, canals, factories or commercial concerns
d. Schools
37. Additional force under Section 14 may be deployed when:
a. Elections are due
b. Court orders are issued
c. Behaviour or apprehended behaviour of workers requires it
d. Media demands security
38. Who forms the opinion regarding necessity of additional force?
a. District Magistrate
b. State Legislature
c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police
d. Chief Justice
39. Consent of which authority is required for deputation of such force?
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. District Panchayat
40. Cost of additional police force under Section 14 is borne by:
a. State Treasury
b. Local Municipality
c. Persons in control of funds of the work or concern
d. General public
41. Duration of deployment of such force:
a. Fixed one year
b. Till completion of project
c. As long as necessity continues
d. Permanent
42. Section 14 is primarily:
a. Punitive
b. Preventive and protective
c. Judicial
d. Revenue-related
43. The purpose of this provision is to protect:
a. Private disputes
b. Infrastructure and public order
c. Political interests
d. Tax collection
44. Section 15 deals with:
a. Recruitment of police
b. Quartering of additional police in disturbed areas
c. Promotion of officers
d. Police discipline
45. Declaration of a disturbed area is made by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. State Government by proclamation
d. Central Government
46. Proclamation must be notified in:
a. District records
b. Police station diary
c. Official Gazette
d. Court register
47. Additional police deployed under this section is:
a. Within ordinary strength
b. Temporary volunteers
c. In addition to ordinary fixed complement
d. From armed forces
48. Deployment is made by:
a. District Magistrate
b. DGP/IG or authorised officer with Government sanction
c. High Court
d. Central Government
49. Cost of additional force is borne by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Local municipality
d. Inhabitants of the area
50. Apportionment of cost is done by:
a. State Government
b. Police Department
c. District Magistrate
d. Revenue Board
51. Basis of apportionment is:
a. Equal share
b. Population
c. Magistrate’s judgment of respective means
d. Property value only
52. The State Government may:
a. Not alter liability
b. Only increase cost
c. Exempt any class of inhabitants
d. Transfer liability to police
53. Proclamation under Section 15:
a. Is permanent
b. Has no time limit
c. Must state period of operation
d. Requires court approval
54. “Inhabitants” includes:
a. Only residents
b. Only landowners living there
c. Property holders and absentee landlords collecting rent
d. Government servants only
55. Purpose of Section 15 is primarily:
a. Punishment of offenders
b. Revenue generation
c. Maintenance of public order through additional police deployment
d. Recruitment procedure
56. Section 15-A provides for:
a. Recruitment of police
b. Compensation for misconduct of inhabitants
c. Punishment of offenders
d. Transfer of officers
57. Compensation may be claimed when injury is caused by:
a. Natural disaster
b. Police action
c. Misconduct of inhabitants
d. Court order
58. Application for compensation is made to:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate
c. High Court
d. Central Government
59. Limitation period for application is generally:
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
60. Compensation can be awarded only if injury arose from:
a. Theft
b. Accident
c. Riot or unlawful assembly
d. Negligence of police
61. Before awarding compensation, Magistrate must be satisfied that:
a. Police failed to act
b. Victim was free from blame
c. Government approved beforehand
d. Offender was identified
62. Liability to pay compensation falls on:
a. State Government
b. Police Department
c. Inhabitants of the area
d. Courts
63. State Government may:
a. Increase compensation only
b. Exempt any class of inhabitants
c. Cancel the claim automatically
d. Transfer liability to Centre
64. Orders under this section are:
a. Appealable to High Court only
b. Subject to revision by Commissioner/State Government
c. Reviewable by police
d. Temporary only
65. Civil suit regarding same injury:
a. Always maintainable
b. Allowed after revision
c. Barred if compensation awarded
d. Allowed only with permission
66. Section 16 deals with:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Recovery of moneys under Sections 13–15A
c. Discipline of police
d. Recruitment procedure
67. Moneys under Sections 13–15A are recoverable by:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. Civil Court only
68. Recovery may be made in the manner of:
a. Tax recovery
b. Recovery of fines under CrPC (BNSS)
c. Land revenue recovery only
d. Arbitration proceedings
69. Alternatively, recovery may also be made by:
a. Executive order only
b. Police action
c. Suit in a competent Court
d. High Court writ only
70. Money recovered under Section 15-A is payable to:
a. State treasury
b. Police welfare fund
c. Victims entitled to compensation
d. District Magistrate
71. Distribution of recovered compensation shall be:
a. Equal among inhabitants
b. At Magistrate’s discretion later
c. As determined under Section 15-A
d. Fixed by State Government only
72. Sub-section (2) of Section 16 is:
a. Amended
b. Replaced
c. Omitted
d. Repealed
73. Section 16 primarily ensures:
a. Investigation of offences
b. Enforcement of financial liability
c. Appointment of additional police
d. Judicial review
74. Section 16 applies to money payable under how many sections?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
75. Section 17 deals with:
a. Appointment of regular police
b. Special Police Officers
c. Recruitment rules
d. Police discipline
76. Special Police Officers may be appointed when:
a. Crime rate increases generally
b. Riot or disturbance has occurred or is apprehended
c. Elections are held
d. Police strike occurs
77. A request for appointment may be made by a police officer not below the rank of:
a. Sub-Inspector
b. Inspector
c. Superintendent
d. Constable
78. The request must be made to:
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate only
c. Nearest Magistrate
d. Sessions Judge
79. Persons appointed as Special Police Officers are:
a. Government servants permanently
b. Residents of the neighbourhood
c. Military personnel
d. Private security staff
80. The appointment is:
a. Permanent
b. For fixed 5 years
c. Temporary and situation-based
d. For life
81. The Magistrate shall comply with the request:
a. Always
b. Only with State Government approval
c. Unless he sees cause to the contrary
d. Only during riots already in progress
82. The purpose of appointment is to:
a. Conduct investigations
b. Assist in maintaining peace and security
c. Collect taxes
d. Perform judicial duties
83. Section 17 can be invoked even when disturbance is:
a. Imaginary
b. Already resolved
c. Reasonably apprehended
d. Minor civil dispute
84. The Special Police Officers act within:
a. Entire State
b. Any district
c. Such limits as deemed necessary
d. Only police station limits
85. Section 18 deals with:
a. Recruitment of police
b. Powers of Special Police Officers
c. Discipline of police force
d. Pay structure
86. A Special Police Officer has powers:
a. Limited powers only
b. Advisory powers
c. Same powers as ordinary police officer
d. Only preventive powers
87. Special Police Officers enjoy:
a. No legal protection
b. Partial protection
c. Same privileges and protection as police
d. Protection only from State Government
88. In respect of duties, a Special Police Officer:
a. Performs minor tasks only
b. Performs duties equal to police officers
c. Has no duties
d. Acts only as witness
89. Special Police Officers are liable to:
a. No penalties
b. Same penalties as ordinary police officers
c. Only civil penalties
d. Administrative warnings only
90. Special Police Officers are subordinate to:
a. Only Magistrate
b. State Government directly
c. Same authorities as ordinary police
d. No authority
91. Section 18 ensures that Special Police Officers are:
a. Volunteers without authority
b. Auxiliary staff without responsibility
c. Fully empowered temporary police officers
d. Private security agents
92. Legal accountability of Special Police Officers is:
a. Lesser than regular police
b. Greater than regular police
c. Equal to regular police
d. Non-existent
93. Protection given under this section applies:
a. Only during training
b. Only after confirmation
c. During their appointment as Special Police Officers
d. Never
94. The objective of Section 18 is to:
a. Restrict powers of special officers
b. Clarify their full legal equivalence to regular police
c. Reduce administrative burden
d. Provide honorary status
95. Section 19 deals with:
a. Appointment of Special Police Officers
b. Powers of Special Police Officers
c. Refusal to serve as Special Police Officer
d. Dismissal of police officers
96. Liability under this section arises when a person:
a. Refuses appointment
b. Refuses after lawful appointment
c. Fails to apply for appointment
d. Resigns from police service
97. The refusal must be:
a. With excuse
b. Without sufficient excuse
c. Approved by police
d. Supported by public opinion
98. Disobedience of which orders attracts liability?
a. Any order
b. Private orders
c. Lawful orders or directions
d. Verbal requests only
99. Punishment under Section 19 is:
a. Imprisonment
b. Fine only
c. Dismissal from service
d. Community service
100. Maximum fine prescribed is:
a. ₹10
b. ₹25
c. ₹50
d. ₹100
101. The fine may be imposed:
a. By Police Officer
b. By District Magistrate directly
c. Upon conviction before a Magistrate
d. By State Government
102. Liability applies for:
a. Each act of neglect/refusal/disobedience
b. Only first offence
c. Only repeated offences
d. Only written refusal
103. Section 19 ensures:
a. Voluntary service
b. Legal enforceability of appointment
c. Promotion of police officers
d. Compensation to citizens
104. Sections 17–19 together regulate:
a. Recruitment of IPS officers
b. Temporary policing during disturbances
c. Criminal trials
d. Prison administration
105. Section 20 deals with:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Powers of Magistrates
c. Authority to be exercised by Police Officers
d. Suspension of officers
106. Police Officers enrolled under this Act may exercise authority:
a. As they deem necessary
b. Only with public approval
c. Only as provided by law
d. Without restriction
107. Authority under this section includes powers under:
a. Any personal judgment
b. Only Police Manual
c. Criminal procedure laws
d. Local customs
108. Police authority is:
a. Inherent
b. Unlimited
c. Statutory
d. Customary
109. Exercise of power beyond statutory limits would be:
a. Valid if urgent
b. Administrative discretion
c. Ultra vires
d. Automatically legal
110. The section prevents:
a. Appointment of civilians
b. Abuse of police powers
c. Judicial interference
d. Legislative control
111. The phrase “any Act regulating criminal procedure” refers to:
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Police Manual
c. Criminal Procedure Code
d. Evidence Act
112. Police authority flows primarily from:
a. Public support
b. Executive instructions alone
c. Statutory law
d. Judicial orders only
113. Section 20 embodies which constitutional principle?
a. Separation of powers
b. Rule of law
c. Federalism
d. Natural justice
114. If police exercise authority not conferred by law, such action is:
a. Valid if done in good faith
b. Valid during emergencies
c. Illegal
d. Subject only to departmental action
115. Section 21 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of district police
b. Village Police Officers
c. Special Police Officers
d. Police pensions
116. The Police Act does not affect hereditary village police officers unless:
a. They retire
b. They commit misconduct
c. They are enrolled under the Act
d. They are transferred
117. After enrollment under the Act, village police officers become bound by:
a. Section 15
b. Section 18
c. Section 20
d. Section 25
118. Enrollment of a hereditary village police officer requires:
a. Only government approval
b. Consent of the officer alone
c. Consent of nominating authority alone
d. Consent of officer and nominating authority
119. The term “right of nomination” refers to:
a. Election by villagers
b. Government appointment
c. Authority entitled to nominate the officer
d. Judicial selection
120. Police chaukidars mentioned in this section relate to:
a. Madras Presidency
b. Bombay Presidency
c. Fort William (Bengal)
d. Punjab Province
121. If a chaukidar is employed outside his district:
a. He receives double salary
b. He is unpaid
c. He cannot be paid from that district’s rates
d. He must resign
122. Section 21 reflects respect for:
a. Judicial independence
b. Federal structure
c. Traditional local institutions
d. Military authority
123. Village police officers become statutory police officers:
a. Automatically
b. By election
c. By enrollment under the Act
d. By court order
124. Consent requirement ensures:
a. Administrative convenience
b. Voluntary integration into police force
c. Judicial oversight
d. Financial control
125. Under Section 22, a police officer is considered:
a. On duty only during office hours
b. On duty only when in uniform
c. Always on duty
d. On duty only within police station limits
126. The expression “always on duty” applies:
a. Only during emergencies
b. Only while carrying arms
c. For all purposes of the Act
d. Only when ordered by Magistrate
Download UP Police Act MCQs PDF