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Rajasthan Judiciary Mock Test-10
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RAJASTHAN MOCK TEST 10
1. A right to sue on "Quantum Merit" arises:
a. When a party has fully performed the contract
b. When a party partly performed the contract and is discharged by the other party
c. When a contract is discharged by impossibility of performance
d. When a contract becomes illegal
Also Check: Contract Act Free Classes
2. 'A' contract to sing for 'B' at a concert for Rs. 1,000 which are paid in advance. 'A' is too ill to sing. Then:
a. 'A' must refund to 'B' Rs. 1,000 paid in advance
b. 'A' must not refund to 'B' Rs. 1,000 paid in advance
c. ‘B’ can receive compensation from 'A'
d. None of the above
Also Check: Contract-I Free One Liner Notes
3. 'A' owes 'B' Rs. 5,000. 'A' pays to 'B' Rs. 2,000 and 'B' accepts it in satisfaction of whole claim on 'A', here
a. whole debt is discharged
b. no debt is discharged
c. a part of debt is discharged
d. none of the above
Also Check: Contract-II Free One Liner Notes
4. Novation of a contract under Indian Contract Act, means:
a. cancellation of contract
b. alteration of the contract
c. the renewal of original contract
d. substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
Also Check: Contract Bare Act
5. Which of the following is correct with regard to acknowledgement of liability under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963?
a. Acknowledgement cannot be undated.
b. Acknowledgement can be made to a person other than the person entitled to the property.
c. Acknowledgement need not be in writing.'
d. Acknowledgement can be made after the expiry of the period of limitation.
Also Check: Limitation Act Free Classes
6. Computation of limitation time, for date used in an instrument, will be calculated according to which Calendar?
a. Hindu Calendar
b. Islamic Calendar
c. English Calendar
d. Gregorian Calendar
Also Check: Limitation Act Free One Liner Notes
7. Part VI, Chapter VI of the Indian Constitution dealing with subordinate courts are:—
a. Articles 232-238
b. Articles 233-237
c. Articles 233-238
d. Articles 231-237
Also Check: Constitution Free Classes
8. In which one of the following cases was it laid down that presidential proclamation dissolving a State Legislative Assembly is subject to judicial review?
a. Arun v. Union of India
b. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
c. A.K. Roy v. Union of India
d. State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
Also Check: Constitution Free One Liner Notes
9. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to transfer of cases from the High Courts?
a. Cases involving same or substantially same question of law should be pending before Supreme Court and one or more High Courts
b. Application requesting for transfer should be filled by Attorney General or any party to the case
c. Transfer is possible when the Supreme Court on its own is satisfied that such question is of general importance
d. Transfer of cases from one High Court to another is not permissible in any circumstance
Also Check: Constitution Free Detailed Notes
10. According to Article 233 of the Constitution, a District Judge is appointed by the
a. Chief Justice of the State High Court
b. Governor of the State
c. Chief Minister of the State
d. None of the above
Also Check: Constitution Bare Act
11. In criminal trials, whenever an accused pleads that his case is covered under any of the general exceptions laid down under CHAPTER III of BNS, the burden of proof lies on
a. The prosecution always
b. The accused, and he had to prove his innocence beyond reasonable doubt
c. The accused, and he has to prove his innocence on a preponderance of probabilities
d. State and it is to be discharged by the prosecutor
Also Check: IPC/BNS Free Classes
12. The offence of 'abetment' is constituted by.
a. Aiding
b. Conspiring
c. Instigating
d. All the above
Also Check: IPC/BNS Bare Act
13. Abetment by aid requires:
a. Active aiding
b. Passive aiding
c. Intentional aiding
d. None of above
Also Check: IPC/BNS Detailed Notes
14. Abetment of an offence is
a. always an offence
b. never an offence
c. may be an offence depending upon the circumstances but not always
d. may not be an offence depending upon the circumstances of the case
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
15. For an offence of Criminal Conspiracy under Section 120A of IPC, the parties involved should agree to do or cause to be done an act:
a. the ultimate object of which is illegal
b. which is not illegal, but by illegal means
c. which is illegal but by legal means
d. (a) and (b)
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
16. The definition of criminal conspiracy in Section 120A, IPC has been taken from that given in
a. Mulchay v. Queen
b. Quinn v. Leatham
c. Abdul Rehman v. Emperor
d. R v. Vincent
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
17. Minimum number of persons required for affray under Section 194(1) of the BNS is
a. Five
b. Two
c. Four
d. Seven
18. Which One of the following cases is not related to principle of joint liability based on common intention?
a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
b. Mahboob Shah v. Emperor
c. J.M. Desai v. State of Bombay
d. Reg v. Govinda
19. Extra-judicial confession means confession made-
a. Before the Magistrate in the court
b. To the police officer
c. To the doctor
d. None of the above
Also Check: Evidence/BSA Free One Liner Notes
20. Under Section 27 of the Evidence Act the 'Fact discovered' means........
a. The object produced only
b. The place from where the object is produced only
c. The knowledge of the accused as to the object and the place
d. None of these
Also Check: Evidence/BSA Free Classes
21. The principle on which a dying declaration is admissible under Section 26 of BSA,2023 is indicated in the legal maxim.
a. Actori incumbit onus probandi
b. nemo moriturus praesumitur mentiri
c. Dormiunt leges aliquando, munquam moriuntur
d. Fatetur facinus qui judicium fugit
Also Check: BSA Bare Act
22. The case of Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor relates to-
a. Doctrine of estoppel
b. Accomplice
c. Dying declaration
d. Cross examination
23. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A "Dying Declaration" made under section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is subject to the control of
a. Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973
b. Section 161 and 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Section 52 and 54 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Section 158 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A dying declaration recorded by a Magistrate not empowered under section 164 Cr.PC cannot be proved by the oral evidence of the Magistrate
b. The credit of the declarant cannot be impeached
c. A dying declaration is substantive evidence
d. If the declarant is not examined although alive, his declaration is admissible
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
25. Under which section of BSA,2023 –‘Oral evidence to be direct’ is given
a. Section 55
b. Section 25
c. Section 32
d. Section 38
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
26. Kaushal Rao v. State of Bombay, AIR 1958 SC 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence?
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Dying declaration
d. Estoppel
27. In which case, the presence of accused may be dispensed with at the time of delivering the judgement?
a. When the personal attendance of the accused has already been dispensed with
b. When the judgement is that of acquittal
c. In both (a) and (b) above
d. None of the above
Also Check: CRPC/BNSS Free Classes
28. Which one of the following Sections of BNSS,2023 deals with the language and contents of judgement?
a. Section 353
b. Section 393
c. Section 355
d. Section 356
Also Check: BNSS Bare Act
29. Under Cr.P.C., for which offence it is mandatory for all Government and private hospitals to provide first aid to the victim and inform the police of such incident—
a. Section 326A IPC
b. Section 376A IPC
c. Section 376C IPC
d. All of them
Also Check: BNSS Free One Liner Notes
30. A sentence of death by a lower court
a. must be confirmed by High Court
b. must be confirmed by Supreme Court
c. must be confirmed by President
d. is operational if no appeal is made to High Courts
Also Check: BNSS Free Detailed Notes
31. Assertion (A) : The provision for reviewing the decision of a criminal court are essential for the due protection of life and liberty.
Reason (R): They are based on the notion that Judges and Magistrates are not infallible
a. Code: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Code: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. Code: A is true but R is false
d. Code: A is false but R is true
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
32. Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides for grant of bail to an accused pending trial if:
a. he has undergone detention for one-fourth period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
b. he has undergone detention for one-third period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
c. he has undergone for one-half period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
d. a and (b) above
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
33. "Anticipatory bail" implies:
a. That the accused gives an undertaking to the Police Officer that he will be available for investigations provided he is not arrested
b. The direction by the Magistrate to the Police Officer not to arrest the accused
c. The direction by the Sessions Court or the High Court to the Police Officer to release on bail an accused alleged to have committed the non- " cognizable offence(s) in the event of his arrest on the terms and conditions which the Court considers proper in the case
d. The Direction by the High Court to the Sessions Court to release the accused immediately after arrest in a non-bailable offence
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
34. When will proceedings be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so?
a. To issue a search warrant under Section 94 of Cr.P.C.
b. To hold on inquest under Section 176 of Cr.P.C.
c. Tries an offender summarily
d. To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
35. Under Order VI, Rule 17 of C.P.C., an application for amendment of pleadings can be allowed
a. Before the commencement of trial
b. After the commencement of trial
c. Either before or after the commencement of trial
d. None of the above
Also Check: CPC Free Classes
36. A defendant should present written statement of his defence within thirty days from the service of summons on him. The said period can be extended upto:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 100 days
Also Check: CPC Free One Liner Notes
37. A sues B on a bill of exchange for Rs. 500. B holds a judgment against A for Rs. 1000. The two claims being both definite pecuniary demands may be set off. The illustration is given in:
a. Order VIII, Rule 5 of Code of Civil Procedure
b. Order VIII, Rule 6 of Code of Civil Procedure
c. Order VIII, Rule 7 of Code of Civil Procedure
d. Order VIII, Rule 9 of Code of Civil Procedure
Also Check: CPC Free Detailed Notes
38. Among the following which are suits of a Civil nature–
a. Suit relating to rights to worship
b. Suit relating to right to shares in offerings
c. Suits for upholding mere dignity or honour
d. Both (A) & (B)
Also Check: CPC Bare Act
39. If the suit is filed in a court having no jurisdiction __________.
a. it shall be dismissed
b. it may be dismissed
c. it shall be returned
d. it shall be sent to record room
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
40. The doctrine of Lis Pendense applies where:
a. The suit is collusive
b. The transfer is made after the decree of the trial court but before the filling on an appeal
c. Right to movable property is in question
d. Property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the court
Also Check: TPA Free Classes
41. Which of the following is a leading case on the doctrine of part performance?
a. Shantabai v. State of Maharashtra
b. Shanti Devi v. Rajesh Kant Roy
c. Mohammad Musa v. Ashok Kumar Ganguli
d. Cooper v. Cooper
Also Check: TPA Free One Liner Notes
42. Which section of the Specific Relief Act,1963 deals with the bar of the suit for compensation for breach after dismissal of suit for specific performance?
a. Section 12
b. Section 24
c. Section 15
d. Section 30
Also Check: SRA Free One Liner Notes
43. In case of specific performance of contract, the rights of the parties are governed by the principles of:
a. Equity
b. Law
c. Equity & Law
d. Only equity and not law
Also Check: SRA Bare Act
44. Which one of the following Sections of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, deals with offence committed by a company under Section 138?
a. Section 139
b. Section 140
c. Section 141
d. Section 142
Also Check: NIA Bare Act
45. Under Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 -“banker” includes:
a. Any person acting as an employee of any bank and any post office saving bank.
b. Any person acting as a banker and any post office saving bank
c. Any person acting as an agent of any bank and any post office saving bank.
d. Any person acting as a Managing Director of any bank and any post office saving bank
46. Which is NOT correct about the “Promissory Note”
a. It contains a conditional undertaking.
b. It contains the amount mentioned on it.
c. It is an instrument in writing.
d. It is signed by the maker
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
47. Which of the following conditions, as per provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, has to be adhered to while examining or recording statement of the child—
a. the statement of child shall be recorded at the residence of child or the place where he usually resides or the place of his choice
b. as far as practicable the statement should be recorded by woman police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector, who shall not be in uniform
c. the Investigating Officer shall ensure that at no point of time the child comes in contact in any way with the accused
d. all the above
Also Check: POCSO Act One Liner Notes
48. What is minimum punishment for penetration sexual assault under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012.
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 7 years
d. 20 years
Also Check: POCSO Act Free Classes
49. Simultaneous direction for releasing the offender and directing him to pay compensation and cost is dealt in _________section of Probation of Offender Act, 1958
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
Also Check: Probation of Offenders Act Bare Act
50. In which of the following leading cases, Hon’ble the Supreme Courts held that benefit of Section 3 or Section 4 of the Probation of Offender Act, 1958 is subject to the limitations laid down in these provisions and the words ‘may direct’ in Section 4 does not mean ‘must direct’
a. State of Gujarat v. V.A. Chouhan AIR 1983 SC 359
b. Phul Singh v. State of Haryana AIR 1980 SC 249
c. Ram Prakash v. State of Himachal Pradesh AIR 1973 SC 780
d. Smt. Devki v. State of Haryana AIR 1979 SC 1948
51. Orphan means under JJ ACT 2015.
a.A child who is without legal biological parents
b. Child who is without legal Guardian
c. A child who is without adoption parents
d. All of the above
Also Check: Juvenile Justice Act Bare Act
52. Serious offences include the offences for which the punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force is minimum imprisonment for a term:
a. more than three years and not exceeding seven years
b. 5 years or more
c. not less than 3 years
d. between three to seven year/more than three year and less than seven years
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
53. Illustration: Hindustan Lever Emplills Company Limited (TOMCO) and Hindustan Lever Limited were in dispute. The employees of both Hindustan Lever Limited and TOMCO were concerned about the amalgamation. One of the grounds of attack against the scheme was the absence of approval of the central government as required under S.23 of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969. That, however, was deleted in 1991. The Supreme Court stated that it is significant to take into account the mischief that was sought to be cured through the amendment of the statute. Accordingly, the court held that once the said section has been deleted from the statute book, the requirement of prior approval of the Central Government cannot be brought back through the backdoor. The Supreme Court was applying what rule of interpretation?
a. Mischief Rule
b. Literal Rule
c. Ejusdem Generis
d. both (a) and (d)
54. Delegatus non potest delegare means
a. Debtor follows the person of the debtor
b. An action does not arise from a bare promise
c. A delegated power cannot be further delegated
d. The law does not concern itself with trifling matters
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
55. Tenancy agreements shall be executed within a period of ________ from the date of commencement of Rajasthan Rent Control (Amendment) Act, 2017.
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Free One Liner Notes
56. Landlord may increase the rent of the premises by an amount as agreed between the landlord and the tenant prior to the commencement of the work and such increase in rent shall become effective from _______ after the completion of work.
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
Also Check: RJS Rent Control Act Bare Act
57. A temporary injunction can be granted to a party establishing –
a. A prima facie case in his favour
b. Balance of convenience in his favour
c. Irreparable injury to him in the event of non grant of injunction
d. All the of the above
Also Check: CPC Free Classes
58. How many chapters and sections are there in Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013?
a. 8 Chapters, 30 Sections
b. 9 Chapters, 37 Sections
c. 11 Chapters, 51 Sections
d. 5 Chapters, 20 Sections
Also Check: Sexual Harassment Act Free One Line Notes
59. In this protection of women from Domestic violence Act, 2005 domestic violence include: -
a. Economic abuse
b. Sexual abuse
c. A and B
d. None of these
Also Check: DV Act Free One Liner Notes
60. Which of the following not relevant as far as the protection of women from domestic violence Act is concerned
a. Workplace
b. Monetary relief
c. Protection order
d. Physical abuse
Also Check: DV Act Free Classes
61. You ____________ got ready before we visit your house.
a. will have
b. shall have
c. Are
d. Were
Also Check: Free Judiciary English Language Classes
62. By next Monday he ______________ staying at my uncle’s house for three weeks.
a. will have
b. shall have
c. will have been
d. shall have been
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
63. This road _____________ to the post office.
a. is leading
b. Leads
c. has lead
d. Lead
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
64. He ________________ very hard these days.
a. had been working
b. is working
c. have been working
d. have worked
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
65. Gambling __________ ruined many careers
a. Is
b. Was
c. Has
d. Have
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
66. You are……... fool to say that
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
67. What______ beautiful scene this is!
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
68. She was killed in ______ accident.
a. A
b. An
c. The
d. No Article
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
69. …...pen is mightier than …………… sword.
a. A, an
b. An, the
c. No Article
d. The, the
e. No Article
Also Check: Bare Acts
70. Get me…... kilo of rice from ……...nearest grocer
a. a, the
b. the, a
c. the, the
d. No Article
Also Check: Free Judiciary English Language Classes
71. A number of cases __________ reported in the area.
a. Is
b. have been
c. Was
d. Has
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
72. Politics ___________ been one of the debatable topics.
a. Is
b. Are
c. Have
d. Has
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
73. These ___________ religious rituals.
a. Are
b. Is
c. Have
d. Has
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
74. Deepak with his friends ____________ signed the petition.
a. Has
b. have been
c. Are
d. Is
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
75. The panel of judges ___________ sentenced him to death.
a. Have
b. Were
c. Has
d. Is
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
76. शैलजा’ किसका पर्यायवाची है?
a. लक्ष्मी का
b. पार्वती का
c. शची का
d. हिमालय का
Also Check: Free Judiciary Hindi Language Classes
77. जंगल का पर्यायवाची है-
a. द्रुम
b. विटप
c. शून्य
d. कान्तार
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
78. चन्द्रमा का पर्यायवाची नहीं है-.
a. राकेश
b. शशि
c. देवापगा
d. मयंक
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
79. ‘रसना’ किसका पर्यायवाची है?
a. आभूषण का
b. जीभ का
c. स्वाद का
d. दाँत का
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
80. निम्न में से कौन-सा शब्द ‘यमुना’ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है?
a. कालिन्दी
b. अर्कजा
c. भागीरथी
d. रविसुता
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
81. रमेश सरकारी नौकरी के लिए इधर उधर..................... रहा हैं। उपयुक्त मुहावरे से रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।
a. हवा खाना
b. खाक छानना
c. मेहनत करना
d. दादागिरी करना
Also Check: Judiciary Syllabus
82. 'नमक-मिर्च लगाना' का अर्थ है-
a. खाने में नमक और मिर्च डालना
b. दुख को बढ़ावा देना
c. घुमा फिर कर कहना
d. बढ़ा-चढ़ा कर कहना
Also Check: Free Judiciary Mock Tests
83. मेरे पिताजी ने यह कार अपनी............ से लिया है। रिक्त स्थान पर सही मुहावरा भरे
a. खेती करके
b. सूझ-बुझ
c. गाढ़ी कमाई
d. परिश्रम
Also Check: Free Judiciary MCQs
84. खरी खोटी सुनना का अर्थ है
a. जोर से बोलना
b. भला बुरा कहना
c. अच्छी बताना
d. निचा दिखाना
Also Check: Bare Acts
85. “आँखों का काजल चुराना” इस मुहावरे का अर्थ है?
a. सफाई से चोरी करना
b. काजल की चोरी करना
c. आँखों को नुकसान पहुँचाना
d. प्यार का इज़हार करना
Also Check: Free Judiciary Hindi Language Classes
86. चौराहा में कौन सा समास है
a. बहूव्रीहि
b. तत्पुरुष
c. अव्ययीभाव
d. द्विगु
Also Check: Free Judiciary Classes
87. दशमुख में कौन सा समास है
a. कर्मधारय
b. बहूव्रीहि
c. तत्पुरुष
d. द्विगु
Also Check: Free One Liner Notes
88. महादेव में कौन सा समास है
a. तत्पुरुष
b. अव्ययीभाव
c. कर्मधारय
d. द्वंद्व
Also Check: Free Judiciary Notes
89. विशेषण और विशेष्य के योग से कौन सा समास बनता है
a. द्विगु
b. द्वंद्व
c. कर्मधारय
d. तत्पुरुष
Also Check: Judiciary PYQs
90. किस शब्द में द्विगु समास है
a. आजीवन
b. भूदान
c. सप्ताह
d. पुरुषसिंह
Also Check: Bare Acts
91. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000-Compensation for failure to protect data.
a. Section 42
b. Section 31
c. Section 43A
d. Section 44
Also Check: IT Act One Liner Notes
92. Under which section of Registration Act, 1908- Registering officer not liable for thing bona fide done or refused in his official capacity.
a. Section 81
b. Section 45
c. Section 86
d. Section 31
Also Check: Registration Act Bare Act
93. Under which section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950- Recovery by grantee of exclusive privilege of sums due to him
a. Section 21
b. Section 23
c. Section 27
d. Section 43
Also Check: Rajasthan Excise Act One Liner Notes
94. Under which section of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961.- Application for probate or letters of administration.
a. Section 21
b. Section 45
c. Section 50
d. Section 31
Also Check: Rajasthan Court Fees Act One Liner Notes
95. Under which section of “The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956”- Appointment of Patwaris deals with
a. Section 20
b. Section 21
c. Section 31
d. Section 41
Also Check: Free RJS Land Revenue Act One Liner Notes
96. A Muslim woman need to observe iddat in which of the following?
a. Muta marriage
b. Irregular marriage
c. Valid marriage
d. All of the above
97.In partnership the liability of partners is
a. Joint
b. Several
c. Joint and several
d. None of the above
Also Check: Partnership Act Free One Liner Notes
98. SOGA- Goods are said to be in a 'deliverable state' where
a. they are in good condition
b. they are in reasonable condition
c. they have been delivered' on time
d. the buyer is bound to take their delivery under contract
Also Check: SOGA Free One Liner Notes
99. In case of Hindu male dying intestate:
a. Mother is Class II heir
b. Father is Class I heir
c. Mother is Class I heir and father is Class II heir
d. Both mother and father are Class I heirs
100. Which among the following is not included in the term 'Hindu' used in Hindu Marriage Act, 1995?
a. Sikhs
b. Jains
c. Parsis
d. Budhists