UP APO MOCK TEST-8
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. The Kakori Train Robbery took place in:
a. 1923
b. 1925
c. 1927
d.1929
2. Who threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929?
a. Bhagat Singh & Batukeshwar Dutt
b. Rajguru & Sukhdev
c. Chandrashekhar Azad
d. Jatin Das
3. The Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) introduced:
a. Dyarchy
b. Separate Electorates
c. Purna Swaraj
d. Local Self Government
4. The 'Lal-Bal-Pal' trio refers to:
a. Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal
b. Lal Bahadur Shastri, Bal Thackeray, Palaniappan
c. Lala Hardayal, Baldev Singh, P.C. Ray
d. None of the above
5. Who founded the 'Servants of India Society'?
a. B.G. Tilak
b. G.K. Gokhale
c. Annie Besant
d. Jyotiba Phule
6. How many delegates attended the first session of INC?
a. 72
b. 100
c. 50
d. 120
7. The 'Safety Valve Theory' is associated with the birth of:
a. Swadeshi Movement
b. INC
c. Ghadar Party
d. Home Rule League
8. Which leader was known as the 'Diamond of India'?
a. G.K. Gokhale
b. B.G. Tilak
c. M.K. Gandhi
d. J.L. Nehru
9. Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?
a. G.V. Mavlankar
b. M.A. Ayyangar
c. Hukam Singh
d. K.S. Hegde
10. Untouchability is abolished under which Article?
a. Article 15
b. Article 16
c. Article 17
d. Article 18
11. Which House is known as the 'Permanent House' of Parliament?
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Vidhan Sabha
d. None
12. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
a. Vice-President
b. Speaker
c. Chief Justice of India
d. PM
13. Who gave the 'Hindu Rate of Growth' concept?
a. Amartya Sen
b. Raj Krishna
c. Manmohan Singh
d. J.N. Bhagwati
14. Human Development Index' (HDI) is published by:
a. World Bank
b. IMF
c. UNDP
d. WTO
15. Which plan is also known as 'Gadgil Yojana'?
a. 2nd Plan
b. 3rd Plan
c. 4th Plan
d. 5th Plan
16. Who signs the 1 Rupee note in India?
a. RBI Governor
b. Finance Secretary
c. PM
d. Finance Minister
17. Which cell organelle is called the "Suicide Bag"?
a. Centrosome
b. Lysosome
c. Ribosome
d. Peroxisome
18. The main protein found in human hair and nails is:
a. Collagen
b. Keratin
c. Elastin
d. Myosin
19. In which stage of Meiosis does "Crossing Over" occur?
a. Prophase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Anaphase II
d. Telophase I
20. The "Doppler Effect" is associated with:
a. Sound
b. Light
c. Both a and b
d. Neither b nor b
21. Which instrument is used to measure very high temperatures (e.g., the Sun)?
a. Pyrometer
b. Bolometer
c. Calorimeter
d. Thermostat
22. The catalyst used in the "Hydrogenation of Vegetable Oils" is:
a. Iron
b. Nickel
c. Platinum
d. Copper
23. Which acid is used in a "Lead Storage Battery"?
a. Nitric Acid
b. Hydrochloric Acid
c. Sulfuric Acid
d. Acetic Acid
24. "Buckyballs" (Fullerenes) are an allotrope of:
a. Silicon
b. Carbon
c. Phosphorus
d. Sulfur
25. Which of the following statements regarding the 2024 Bharat Ratna awards is/are INCORRECT?
1. Karpoori Thakur was posthumously awarded for pioneering the sub-categorisation of OBC reservations, often called the "Karpoori Thakur Formula."
2. Chaudhary Charan Singh and P.V. Narasimha Rao were both honoured posthumously, making 2024 the year with the highest number of posthumous recipients in a single year.
3. M.S. Swaminathan became the first scientist to receive the award posthumously for his role in the Green Revolution.
4. L.K. Advani was the only living recipient among the five individuals selected for the award in 2024.
Options:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. None of the above
26. Which Indian state became the first to map all 584 accident-prone 'black spots' on a navigation system?
a. Haryana
b. Punjab
c. Rajasthan
d. Uttar Pradesh
27. The 'Amrit Bharat Station Scheme' aims to modernize how many railway stations?
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 1309
d. 1500
28. India's first 'Dark Sky Park' is located in which Tiger Reserve?
a. Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve
b. Pench Tiger Reserve
c. Kanha Tiger Reserve
d. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
29. What is the target year set by the Indian Government to achieve 'Viksit Bharat' (Developed India)?
a. 2030
b. 2040
c. 2047
d. 2050
30. Which Indian state has launched the 'Maha Lakshmi' scheme providing free bus travel for women?
a. Karnataka
b. Telangana
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Kerala
31. Who was elected as the President of Argentina on a platform of radical economic reform?
a. Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva
b. Javier Milei
c. Gabriel Boric
d. Gustavo Petro
32. Which country hosted the 'Exercise Steadfast Defender 2024', the largest NATO exercise in decades?
a. Poland
b. Germany
c. USA
d. Multiple European Nations
33. The 19th Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) Summit was held in which city?
a. New Delhi
b. Kampala
c. Baku
d. Jakarta
34. Which country has launched the 'World’s First Methane-Powered Rocket' (Zhuque-2)?
a. USA
b. Russia
c. China
d. India
35. Which was the first site excavated in the Indus Valley Civilization?
a. Mohenjo-daro
b. Harappa
c. Lothal
d. Kalibangan
36. The "Dancing Girl" statue made of bronze was found in:
a. Harappa
b. Lothal
c. Mohenjo-daro
d. Ropa
37. Which Veda is known as the "Veda of Melodies"?
a. Rig Veda
b. Yajur Veda
c. Sama Veda
d. Atharva Veda
38. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held during the reign of:
a. Ashoka
b. Kanishka
c. Ajatashatru
d. Kalasoka
39. Who was the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism?
a. Rishabhanatha
b. Parshvanatha
c. Mahavira
d. Arishtanemi
40. Who was the first Muslim invader of India?
a. Mahmud of Ghazni
b. Muhammad Ghori
c. Muhammad bin Qasim
d. Qutub-ud-din Aibak
41. The First Battle of Tarain (1191) was fought between Muhammad Ghori and:
a. Prithviraj Chauhan
b. Rana Sanga
c. Jai Chand
d. Maharana Pratap
42. Who was the founder of the Slave Dynasty?
a. Iltutmish
b. Razia Sultan
c. Qutub-ud-din Aibak
d. Balban
43. Which is the largest landlocked country in the world?
a. Mongolia
b. Kazakhstan
c. Bolivia
d. Chad
44. The world's largest producer of Coffee is:
a. India
b. Vietnam
c. Brazil
d. Ethiopia
45. Which country is called the "Sugar Bowl of the World"?
a. India
b. Cuba
c. USA
d. Brazil
46. The Alps mountain range is located in:
a. North America
b. South America
c. Europe
d. Africa
47. Which is the smallest country in the world by area?
a. Monaco
b. Vatican City
c. Nauru
d. San Marino
48. Which is the deepest point in the world's oceans?
a. Sunda Trench
b. Mariana Trench
c. Puerto Rico Trench
d. Java Trench
49. The "Ring of Fire" is a characteristic of which ocean?
a. Atlantic
b. Indian
c. Pacific
d. Arctic
50. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the Ozone layer?
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Exosphere
51. Under Section 39(2) of BSA 2023, the opinion of the 'Examiner of Electronic Evidence' is a relevant fact. This section aligns with which of the following?
a. The testimony of a police officer
b. Section 79A of the IT Act, 2000
c. A dying declaration
d. A confession under threat
52. The doctrine of estoppel will NOT operate in which of the following scenarios?
a. When the person making the representation was negligent.
b. When the party to whom the representation was made already knew the true facts.
c. When the representation was made through an omission.
d. When the person who acted on the belief suffered a loss.
53. Match the Impeaching and Corroboration stages:
List I List II
(Action) (Section)
A. Impeaching credit of
witness 1. Section 158
B. Production of
documents. 2. Section 165
C. Hostile Witness
(Cross by own party) 3. Section 157
D. Refreshing memory 4. Section 162
Options:
a. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
b. (A)-1, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4
c. (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-2
d. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
54. Match the Presumptions for Electronic Records:
List I List II
(Presumption) (Section)
A. Electronic Messages 1. Section 90
B. Electronic Records
5 years old 2. Section 93
C. Certified copies of
Foreign records 3. Section 88
D. Presumption as to
Electronic
Signature Certificates 4. Section 87
Options:
a. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
b. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
c. (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
d. (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
55. What are "Dying Declarations"?
a. Statements made by a person who is currently in a critical condition and believes they are about to die.
b. Statements made in a will about property distribution.
c. Statements made by the deceased several months before death occurred.
d. Formal statements made under oath in a courtroom.
56. Opinions of experts on foreign law, science, art, or handwriting are considered:
a. Irrelevant
b. Hearsay
c. Relevant facts
d. Conclusive proof
57. What is the precise marginal heading for Section 73 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Comparison of signatures, etc.
b. Verification of physical and digital signatures
c. Power to the Court to compare documents
d. Proof as to verification of digital signature
58. What is the exact marginal heading for Section 76 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Proof of documents by production of certified copies
b. Right of public to inspect documents
c. Admissibility of certified copies
d. Secondary evidence of public documents
59. Relevancy of entry in public record made in performance of duty is under:
a. Section 35
b. Section 29
c. Section 31
d. Section 33
60. Statements in maps, charts, and plans made under authority of Govt are relevant under:
a. Section 30
b. Section 36
c. Section 32
d. Section 34
61. If a document is executed in several parts, each part is:
a. Secondary Evidence
b. Primary Evidence
c. Hearsay
d. Formal Evidence
62. Where a document is executed in counterpart, the counterpart is primary evidence against:
a. The party who did NOT execute it
b. The party who executed it
c. Both parties
d. Neither party
63. What is the exact marginal heading for Section 100 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Evidence as to application of language to one of two sets of facts, to neither of which the whole correctly applies.
b. Ambiguous documents
c. Evidence as to application of language to existing facts
d. Documents with double meaning
64. In law, a man is presumed to be dead if he is not heard of as alive for:-
a. 4 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
65. The professional communication between an advocate and his client can be disclosed before the court :-
a. With the consent of the client
b. Without the consent of the client if made in furtherance of any illegal purpose
c. Without the consent of the client if the advocate comes to know that any crime or fraud has been committed since the commencement of his employment
d. All of the above
66. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under-
a. Section 122
b. Section 124
c. Section 125
d. Section 127
67. The doctrine of estoppel is a –
a. Substantive law
b. Rule of equity
c. Rule of evidence
d. Law of pleadings
68. Presumption under section 117 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to-
a. Dowry death
b. Custodial death
c. Abetment of suicide by a married woman
d. Absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape
69. Burden of proof under section 104 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:-
a. Never shifts
b. Goes on shifting as the trial proceeds
c. May shift
d. Both (b) and (c)
70. “A Confession is an admission made at any time by a person charged with crime stating or suggesting the inference that he committed that crime” who has given this definition?
a. Stephen
b. Atkin
c. Macaulay
d. Millet.
71. "Medical examination of the victim of rape" is the heading for:
a. Section 183
b. Section 184
c. Section 185
d. Section 186
72. What is the marginal heading of Section 194?
a. Release of accused when evidence deficient
b. Police to enquire and report on suicide, etc.
c. Report of investigation by subordinate police officer
d. Diary of proceedings in investigation
73. The marginal heading of Section 312 is:
a. Power to summon material witness, or examine person present
b. Language of record of evidence
c. State to bear expenses
d. Payment to witnesses
74. What is the marginal heading of Section 329?
a. Record of evidence in absence of accused
b. Deposition of medical witness
c. Reports of certain Government scientific experts
d. Evidence of officers of Mint, etc.
75. "Sessions Judge's powers of revision" is the heading for:
a. Section 395
b. Section 440
c. Section 397
d. Section 401
76. What is the marginal heading of Section 413?
a. Appeals from convictions
b. No appeal in certain cases when accused pleads guilty
c. Appeal from orders requiring security or refusal to accept surety
d. No appeal to lie unless otherwise provided
77. Scenario: A 70-year-old man is accused of a crime punishable with 2 years of imprisonment. He has no prior criminal record. Under Section 35(7) of BNSS, what protection is he afforded regarding arrest?
a. He cannot be arrested without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP.
b. He is immune to arrest for all non-cognizable offences.
c. He cannot be arrested at all for crimes punishable with less than 3 years.
d. He must be released on a personal bond immediately upon arrest.
78. Which section of the BNSS mandates that "No arrest shall be made except in accordance with the provisions of this Sanhita or any other law for the time being in force"?
a. Section 35
b. Section 58
c. Section 62
d. Section 187
79. Scenario: Police arrest an individual for a cyber-fraud case punishable with 5 years of imprisonment. They believe the individual might commit another offence if released but do not have a warrant. According to Section 35(1) of BNSS, what is the mandatory requirement for this arrest?
a. Prior permission from the Superintendent of Police.
b. Immediate forensic team visit to the arrest site.
c. Recording in writing the satisfaction that the arrest is necessary.
d. Arresting in the presence of at least two Gazetted Officers.
80. When a Magistrate takes cognizance under Section 210 and the accused is "not present," what is the NEW mandatory step before proceeding?
a. Issue an immediate non-bailable warrant.
b. Give the accused an opportunity to be heard on the point of cognizance.
c. Supply the copies of the complaint and evidence to the accused.
d. There is no change from CrPC; notice is not required.
81. What is the marginal heading of Section 100?
a. Search for persons wrongfully confined.
b. Disposal of property
c. Search-warrant
d. Seizure of offensive weapons
82. Under Section 144, who can claim maintenance if they are unable to maintain themselves?
a. Wife
b. Minor legitimate or illegitimate child
c. Father or Mother
d. All of the above
83. What is the definition of a "minor" for the purpose of maintenance under Section 144?
a. A person under 15 years
b. A person who has not attained the age of 18 years
c. A person who has not attained the age of 21 years
d. Any child who is still studying
84. Under BNSS, an application for interim maintenance must be disposed of within how many days from the date of service of notice?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
85. If a civil court passes a decree that makes a maintenance order under BNSS unsustainable, the Magistrate shall:
a. Ignore the civil court decree
b. Cancel or vary the maintenance order accordingly
c. Refer the matter to the High Court
d. Stay the civil court proceedings
86. A daughter can be ordered to maintain her father or mother under Section 144 if:
a. She is unmarried
b. She is married but has independent means
c. The parents are unable to maintain themselves
d. Both b and c
87. If a person against whom a maintenance order is sought is "wilfully avoiding service," the Magistrate may:
a. Dismiss the case
b. Proceed to hear and determine the case ex parte
c. Issue a non-bailable warrant immediately
d. Transfer the case to a Civil Court
88. What is the maximum monthly allowance for maintenance prescribed in the BNSS?
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹50,000
c. As per the minimum wage of the State
d. No limit; as the Magistrate thinks fit
89. A "Summons-case" is defined under Section 2(1)(X) as a case relating to an offence that is not a:
a. Bailable case
b. Warrant-case
c. Non-cognizable case
d. Petty case
90. Under Section 2(1)(a), the term "Audio-video electronic means" specifically includes which of the following for the purpose of recording?
a. Video conferencing only
b. Facial recognition and biometrics
c. Only CCTV footage
d. Use of any device capable of recording and transmitting images or sound
91. If a person in lawful custody escapes, where in India can the person from whose custody he escaped pursue and arrest him?
a. Only within the jurisdiction of the same police station
b. Only within the same state
c. In any place in India
d. Only with a fresh warrant from a Magistrate
92. A person arrested by a police officer can be discharged ONLY under which of the following conditions?
a. On his own bond or bail bond
b. Under a special order of a Magistrate
c. At the sole discretion of the Investigating Officer
d. Both a and b
93. Section 43(3) allows the use of handcuffs during arrest for specific crimes. Which of the following is NOT a ground for using handcuffs?
a. Organized crime
b. Terrorist acts
c. Offence against the State
d. Simple theft
94. Under Section 59, to whom must the Officer-in-charge of a police station report the cases of all persons arrested without a warrant?
a. The Superintendent of Police
b. The District Magistrate (or Sub-divisional Magistrate if directed)
c. The High Court Registrar
d. The State Home Secretary
95. Under Section 12 of BNSS, who determines the local limits of the jurisdiction of the "Judicial Magistrates"?
a. The State Government
b. The High Court
c. The Chief Judicial Magistrate (subject to the High Court)
d. The District Sessions Judge
96. "Punishment for murder by life-convict" is now:
a. Section 104
b. Section 105
c. Section 102
d. Section 106
97. "Selling child for purposes of prostitution, etc." is the heading for:
a. Section 95
b. Section 98
c. Section 17
d. Section 108
98. Section 94 of the BNS deals with "Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body." This offence is applicable even if:
a. The child died before birth.
b. The child died during birth.
c. The child died after birth.
d. All of the above
99. "A", a child of 6 years, fires a loaded pistol at his father and kills him. "A" is:
a. Guilty of Murder
b. Sent to a Juvenile Home for 10 years
c. Not guilty due to "Doli Incapax"
d. Guilty of Culpable Homicide
100. Which of the following is an exception to the offence mentioned in Section 91 (Preventing live birth)?
a. If the child is born in a public hospital.
b. If the act is done in good faith to save the mother's life.
c. If the act is done by a registered medical practitioner.
d. There are no exceptions.
101. Section 93 of BNS deals with "Abandonment of child." Which case is a landmark for child rights and safety in India?
a. MC Mehta v. State of TN
b. Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
c. Lakshmi v. Union of India
d. Vishal Jeet v. Union of India
102. For "Gang Rape" (Section 70), the minimum punishment has been increased to:
a. 10 years
b. 20 years or Life Imprisonment
c. 7 years
d. 14 years
103. Which case dealt with "Attempt to Commit Suicide" and the "Right to Die"?
a. P. Rathinam v. Union of India
b. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
c. Common Cause v. Union of India (Euthanasia)
d. All of the above
104. The "Necessity" defense was established in which famous English case?
a. R v. Prince
b. R v. Tolson
c. R v. Dudley and Stephens
d. R v. Govinda
105. "Breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person" is under which section of BNS:
a. Section 357
b. Section 358
c. Section 355
d. Section 322
106. "Making atmosphere noxious to health" is:
a. Section 278
b. Section 279
c. Section 280
d. Section 281
107. "Keeping a lottery office" is the heading for:
a. Section 295
b. Section 296
c. Section 297
d. Section 298
108. The marginal heading " Uttering words, etc., with deliberate intent to wound religious feelings of any person" is now:
a. Section 120A
b. Section 302
c. Section 55
d. Section 111
109. "Punishment for attempt to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment" is:
a. Section 62
b. Section 511
c. Section 100
d. Section 45
110. "Robbery, or dacoity, with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt" is the heading for:
a. Section 311
b. Section 312
c. Section 313
d. Section 314
111. "Criminal misappropriation of property" is:
a. Section 314
b. Section 315
c. Section 316
d. Section 318
112. "Criminal trespass" is the heading for:
a. Section 327
b. Section 329
c. Section 331
d. Section 333
113. "House-trespass" is under which section of BNS:
a. Section 329
b. Section 330
c. Section 331
d. Section 332
114. As per Explanation 2 to Section 63 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, "consent" is defined as an unequivocal voluntary agreement. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding the nature of this consent?
a. Consent must be communicated through words or gestures.
b. Consent must be communicated through any form of verbal or non-verbal communication.
c. A woman's lack of physical resistance to the act of penetration can be regarded as consent.
d. The communication must convey a willingness to participate in the specific sexual act.
115. What is the primary purpose of Section 224 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. To punish public servants for non-performance of duty.
b. To penalize corruption among government officials.
c. To regulate the official conduct of public servants.
d. To protect public servants from threats and intimidation while performing their duties.
116. X abets Y to abet Z to commit an offence. Z does not commit the offence, but Y has abetted Z. Can X be held liable under Section 46, of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Yes, because abetment of abetment itself is an offence
b. No, because the principal offence was not committed
c. Yes, but only if the act is done by Z
d. No, unless Y is convicted first
117. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his killing of Z would be only culpable homicide not amounting to murder. B, having ill-will towards Z and intending to kill him, and not having been subject to the provocation, assists A in killing Z. Here, though A and B are both engaged in causing Z’s death
a. B is guilty of no offence, and A is guilty only of culpable homicide.
b. A is guilty of murder, and B is guilty only of culpable homicide.
c. A is guilty of no offence, and B is guilty only of culpable homicide.
d. B is guilty of murder, and A is guilty only of culpable homicide.
118. A, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, wilfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 209
b. Section 212
c. Section 211
d. Section 213
119. What is the minimum number of persons required to constitute an "unlawful assembly" under Section 189 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Two
b. Five
c. Ten
d. Twenty
120. B intentionally unfastens Z's boat from its mooring, causing it to drift down the river. Z is sitting in the boat. B does this to cause Z annoyance. B has used criminal force against Z because:
a. B intentionally caused Z to move.
b. B used force indirectly by causing the boat to move.
c. B acted without Z's consent.
d. All of the above.
121. What legal doctrine is codified under Section 102 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Res ipsa loquitur
b. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
c. Transferred malice
d. Strict liability
122. Which clause of sec 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death?
a. Sec 101(a)
b. Sec 101(b)
c. Sec 101(c)
d. Sec 101(d)
123. Z dictates his will to A. A intentionally writes down a different legatee from the legatee named by Z, and by representing to Z that he has prepared the will according to his instructions, induces Z to sign the will. A has committed forgery and is said to make a false document under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 337
b. Section 332
c. Section 334
d. Section 335
124. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 addresses Kidnapping or maiming a child for purposes of begging?
a. Section 148
b. Section 135
c. Section 137
d. Section 139
125. In which of the following cases, the offence of 'house-breaking' is committed?
a. A commits house-trespass by entering Z's house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door.
b. A finds the key of Z's house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z's house through that key.
c. Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y's doorway. A commits house- trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him.
d. All of the above
126. 'Original Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court is under:
a. Article 131
b. Article 132
c. Article 136
d. Article 143
127. 'Advisory Jurisdiction' (President seeking SC advice) is:
a. Article 131
b. Article 141
c. Article 143
d. Article 147
128. The Governor is appointed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Chief Justice of India
c. The President
d. Parliament
129. Minimum age to be a Governor:
a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 21 years
130. The guidelines for imposing President's Rule (Article 356) were laid down in:
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
c. Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India
d. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
131. The power of the SC to punish for its contempt is derived from:
a. Article 124
b. Article 129
c. Article 131
d. Article 142
132. Under the 7th Schedule, 'Education' is a subject in the:
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. Residuary List
133. The 'Curative Petition' in India was introduced by the SC in which case?
a. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
b. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
c. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
d. Puttaswamy Case
134. A Judge of a High Court can be removed from office only on the grounds of:
a. Violation of Constitution
b. Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
c. Insolvency
d. Discretion of the President
135. Special powers of Rajya Sabha under Article 249 relate to:
a. Creation of All India Services
b. Legislating on subjects in the State List in national interest
c. Impeachment of the President
d. Removal of the Speaker
136. The definition of "Cattle" in Section 1 includes:
a. Only Cows
b. Only Buffaloes
c. Elephants, Camels, Horses, and Pigs
d. Only domestic pets
137. The "Police Force" throughout a General Police District is deemed to be "one police force" for the purpose of:
a. Voting
b. Uniformity of discipline and administration
c. Central taxation
d. Military service
138. A person arrested under Section 34 can be taken into custody:
a. Only with a warrant
b. Without a warrant by a police officer who witnessed the offence
c. Only by an officer above the rank of Sub-Inspector
d. Only during the night
139. Recovery of penalties under Section 37 applies to which type of conviction?
a. Conviction by a Private Person
b. Conviction by a Magistrate
c. Conviction by High Court
d. None of the above
140. If a suit is brought against a police officer for an act done under a warrant, and the warrant is found to be "jurisdictionally defective," the officer is:
a. Liable for damages.
b. Not liable, provided they acted in obedience to the warrant (Section 43).
c. Subject to immediate suspension.
d. Required to pay a fine to the State Government.
141. According to Paragraph 43, the officer-in-charge of a police station is typically a:
a. Inspector
b. Sub-Inspector
c. Head Constable
d. Circle Officer
142. Under Paragraph 56, what is the primary duty of other literate police officers attached to a station regarding the station writer?
a. To supervise the station writer's investigative work
b. To act as the second-in-command of the station
c. To provide assistance in the discharge of duties as directed by the officer-in-charge
d. To independently maintain the General Diary
143. Which chapter of the Police Regulations bears the heading "PATROLS AND PICKETS"?
a. Chapter XV
b. Chapter XVI
c. Chapter XVII
d. Chapter XVIII
144. Paragraph 192's marginal heading focuses on providing information regarding the theft of which specific material?
a. Railway track equipment
b. Irrigation pump sets
c. Copper telegraph wire
d. Cattle from grazing lands
145. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 195?
a. Stationing of sentries at night
b. Surveillance of registered bad characters
c. Pickets in town and rural areas
d. Deployment of Armed Police in fairs
146. Which chapter of the Police Regulations deals with the subject of "REPORTS MADE AT POLICE STATIONS"?
a. Chapter V
b. Chapter VIII
c. Chapter X
d. Chapter XII
147. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 97?
a. Process for information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence
b. Recording of Oral Information in FIR
c. Registration of Heinous Crimes
d. Duty of the Station Writer in Cognizable Cases
148. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 98, entries of crimes in which two documents should be "clear"?
a. Case Diary and Conviction Register
b. Registers and diaries
c. FIR and Charge Sheet
d. Beat Book and Village Crime Note-Book
149. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 99 regarding the General Diary?
a. Maintenance of GD at night
b. Signature of Informant in GD
c. Substance of F.I.R. in G.D.
d. Hourly updates of crime in GD
150. According to Paragraph 101A, to which two officials must a copy of Special Reports be sent?
a. DIG and IG
b. Circle Officer and SDM
c. DM and SP
d. Public Prosecutor and CJM
