UP APO MOCK TEST-7
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. Which leader died during the protest against the Simon Commission?
a. Lala Lajpat Rai
b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Bipin Chandra Pal
d. C.R. Das
2. The Chauri-Chaura incident occurred in which year?
a. 1920
b. 1921
c. 1922
d. 1923
3. The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn due to:
a. Jallianwala Bagh
b. Chauri-Chaura Incident
c. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
d. Poona Pact
4. The Khilafat Movement was started to support the Sultan of:
a. Turkey
b. Iran
c. Iraq
d. Egypt
5. The Rowlatt Act (1919) was known as the:
a. Black Act
b. White Act
c. Liberty Act
d. Peace Act
6. Who returned his knighthood in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
a. Rabindranath Tagore
b. M.K. Gandhi
c. S.P. Sinha
d. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
7. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre happened on:
a. April 13, 1919
b. April 15, 1919
c. May 10, 1919
d. March 13, 1919
8. Who founded the Abhinav Bharat Society?
a. V.D. Savarkar
b. Bhagat Singh
c. Barindra Ghosh
d. Pulin Das
9. Which Article deals with the formation of new States?
a. Article 2
b. Article 3
c. Article 4
d. Article 5
10. Who is the legal advisor to the Government of India?
a. Chief Justice
b. Attorney General
c. Solicitor General
d. Law Minister
11. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is appointed for a term of:
a. 5 years
b. 6 years
c. 4 years
d. Until age 62
12. The 'Quorum' to constitute a sitting of either House is:
a. 1/10th
b. 1/5th
c. 1/4th
d. 1/3rd
13. Who regulates the Capital Market in India?
a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. IRDAI
d. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
14. Which is a 'Direct Tax'?
a. GST
b. Excise Duty
c. Income Tax
d. Custom Duty
15. India's economy is a:
a. Capitalist
b. Socialist
c. Mixed
d. Traditional
16. The term 'Bull and Bear' is associated with:
a. Banking
b. Stock Market
c. Agriculture
d. Foreign Trade
17. Which cranial nerve is the longest and supplies the heart and lungs?
a. Optic nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Olfactory nerve
18. Yellowing of plants due to lack of chlorophyll is called:
a. Necrosis
b. Chlorosis
c. Photolysis
d. Plasmolysis
19. The "Pace-maker" of the heart is the:
a. AV Node
b. A Node
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Bundle of His
20. "Bernoulli’s Principle" is based on the conservation of:
a. Mass
b. Momentum
c. Energy
d. Charge
21. What happens to the level of water in a beaker when an ice cube floating in it melts?
a. Rises
b. Falls
c. Remains the same
d. First rises then falls
22. Which gas is produced when "Calcium Carbide" reacts with water?
a. Methane
b. Ethane
c. Acetylene
d. Ethylene
23. The major component of "Honey" is:
a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Fructose
d. Maltose
24. Which chemical is used for "Cloud Seeding" (Artificial Rain)?
a. Silver Iodide
b. Potassium Chloride
c. Sodium Oxide
d. Silver Nitrate
25. India’s 85th Chess Grandmaster is:
a. R. Praggnanandhaa
b. P. Shyaamnikhil
c. Gukesh D.
d. Vidit Gujrathi
26. Which island nation recently switched diplomatic recognition from Taiwan to China?
a. Tuvalu
b. Nauru
c. Palau
d. Marshall Islands
27. What is the name of the first-ever joint military exercise between India and UAE held in Rajasthan in 2024?
a. Desert Cyclone
b. Desert Knight
c. Al-Mohed Al-Hindi
d. Zayed Talwar
28. Which country is the first to approve the 'Oxford Malaria Vaccine' (R21/Matrix-M) for children?
a. Nigeria
b. Ghana
c. Kenya
d. India
29. The 'Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework' aims to protect what percentage of the planet's land and oceans by 2030?
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%
30. Regarding the IMF's 'World Economic Outlook' (January 2026 Update), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It projects a "soft landing" with global growth accelerating significantly to 4.5% by 2027.
2. It identifies AI-driven technology investment as a primary tailwind offsetting trade fragmentation.
3. It forecasts that India's contribution to global real GDP growth will surpass that of the United States in 2026.
4. The report is published annually in coordination with the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Options:
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3 only
d. All of the above
31. Which country has become the first in the world to make 'Bitcoin' a legal tender?
a. Panama
b. El Salvador
c. Central African Republic
d. Venezuela
32. Which project aims to connect the islands of Lakshadweep with high-speed internet?
a. KLI-SOFC Project
b. BharatNet 3.0
c. SagarLink
d. Deep Ocean Mission
33. What is the theme of the 'Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2024'?
a. Gateway to the Future
b. Sustainable Growth for All
c. New India, New Gujarat
d. Global Business Hub
34. Which Indian Navy ship was recently decommissioned after 36 years of service (involved in Op Pawan)?
a. INS Magar
b. INS Vikramaditya
c. INS Khukri
d. INS Kumbhi
35. The Greek ambassador Megasthenes visited the court of:
a. Ashoka
b. Chandragupta Maurya
c. Bindusara
d. Harsha
36. Which Mauryan Emperor is known for the Kalinga War?
a. Chandragupta Maurya
b. Bindusara
c. Ashoka
d. Dasaratha
37. The 'Prayag Prashasti' inscription is associated with:
a. Chandragupta
b. Samudragupta
c. Skandagupta
d. Vikramaditya
38. Who founded the Gupta Empire?
a. Chandragupta
b. Sri Gupta
c. Samudragupta
d. Kumaragupta
39. The famous Chinese traveller Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of:
a. Chandragupta II
b. Harshavardhana
c. Pulakeshin II
d. Ashoka
40. Which Sultan introduced the 'Market Control Policy'?
a. Iltutmish
b. Alauddin Khalji
c. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
d. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
41. The famous traveler Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of:
a. Alauddin Khalji
b. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
c. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
d. Ibrahim Lodi
42. Who founded the Vijayanagara Empire?
a. Harihara and Bukka
b. Krishnadevaraya
c. Deva Raya I
d. Rama Raya
43. The world population reached 8 billion in which year?
a. 2020
b. 2021
c. 2022
d. 2023
44. "Zero Population Growth" is achieved when:
a. Birth rate = Death rate
b. Death rate > Birth rate
c. Migration is zero
d. Birth rate is zero
45. Which continent has the highest population?
a. Africa
b. Europe
c. Asia
d. North America
46. The term "Demographic Dividend" refers to:
a. High birth rate
b. Rise in working-age population
c. High literacy rate
d. Migration
47. Which is the smallest country in the world by area?
a. Monaco
b. Vatican City
c. Nauru
d. San Marino
48. The river Danube flows into which sea?
a. Black Sea
b. Caspian Sea
c. Baltic Sea
d. North Sea
49. Which city is known as the "City of Seven Hills"?
a. Paris
b. Rome
c. Athens
d. London
50. The Victoria Falls is located on which river?
a. Nile
b. Zambezi
c. Congo
d. Niger
51. Opinion as to handwriting and signature is relevant under which section of BSA, 2023:
a. Section 41
b. Section 47A
c. Section 44
d. Section 46
52. Opinion as to existence of right or custom is relevant under:
a. Section 42
b. Section 48
c. Section 45
d. Section 49
53. confession made by an accused is irrelevant if it appears to have been caused by:
a. Inducement, threat, or promise
b. Good advice from a friend
c. Spiritual exhortation
d. Pure guilt
54. Section 84 mandates that the Court "shall presume" the genuineness of a document purporting to be which of the following?
a. A personal diary entry.
b. a power-of-attorney
c. An unsigned email correspondence.
d. A private business contract.
55. What is the primary effect of Section 170(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. It amends certain sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
b. It extends the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to new territories.
c. It hereby repeals the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
d. It confirms that both Acts operate simultaneously
56. "Judge to decide as to admissibility of evidence" is the marginal heading for which section of the BSA 2023?
a. Section 140
b. Section 141
c. Section 142
d. Section 143
57. Under Section 135, a witness who is not a party to the suit cannot be compelled to produce his title-deeds to any property unless:
a. The Court orders it for public interest.
b. He has agreed in writing to produce them with the person seeking production.
c. The property value is less than ₹50,000.
d. He is a relative of the plaintiff.
58. Under Section 11(b), which types of particular instances are relevant to prove a right or custom?
a. Instances where the right was exercised or claimed.
b. Instances where the exercise of the right was disputed or departed from.
c. Instances where the right was recognized.
d. All of the above.
59. Section 122 of BSA 2023 states that no tenant of immovable property shall be permitted to deny that the landlord had a title to such property at the beginning of the tenancy. This is known as:
a. Estoppel of a Bailee
b. Estoppel of a Tenant
c. Estoppel by Deed
d. Equitable Estoppel
60. Which section of BSA 2023 provides for the presumption as to "Gazettes, newspapers, and other documents" (including electronic forms)?
a. Section 81
b. Section 84
c. Section 80
d. Section 90
61. Section 85 of BSA 2023 deals with the presumption as to "Electronic Agreements." The Court shall presume that every electronic record purporting to be an agreement containing the digital signatures of the parties:
a. Was concluded by the parties
b. Is a forged document
c. Is only a draft
d. Must be verified by a physical witness
62. What is the legal effect (the "presumption") when all conditions of Section 115(1) are met?
a. The accused person is immediately found guilty.
b. It shall be presumed, unless the contrary is shown, that such person had committed such offense.
c. The accused person is immediately released due to lack of evidence.
d. The judge has complete discretion to ignore the facts presented.
63. A agrees to sell to B "my house in Calcutta." It turns out A has no house in Calcutta, but has a house in Howrah, of which B had been in possession since the agreement. Under Section 98:
a. Evidence cannot be given because the document mentions Calcutta.
b. The agreement is void for uncertainty under Section 97.
c. Evidence may be given to show the house in Howrah was intended.
d. Oral evidence is only allowed if the value of both houses is equal.
64. If no attesting witness can be found (under Section 68), what must be proved to admit the document?
a. Only the signature of the person executing the document.
b. That the attestation of at least one witness is in their handwriting AND the signature of the executor is in their handwriting.
c. That the document was found in a government locker.
d. Only that the witnesses are deceased or untraceable.
65. Match List I (BSA 2023 Section) with List II (Legal Subject Matter):
List I List II
(Section) (Subject)
A. Section 4 1. Admissibility of electronic
records
B. Section 23 2. Res Gestae
C. Section 63 3. Burden of Proof
D. Section 104 4. Confession to police officer.
Options:
a. (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
b. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
c. (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
d. (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
66. According to Section 67, what is the minimum requirement to use a document required by law to be attested as evidence?
a. All attesting witnesses must be called.
b. At least two attesting witnesses must be called.
c. At least one attesting witness must be called.
d. No witness is required if the document is notarized.
67. In a trial for murder, a witness says, "I heard the victim scream 'A is killing me!' just as I reached the door." This statement is relevant because:
a. It is a Dying Declaration under Section 26.
b. It forms part of the same transaction (Res Gestae) under Section 4.
c. It is an Admission by the victim under Section 15.
d. Both a and b.
68. Consider the following statements regarding the applicability of BSA, 2023:
I. It applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any Court.
II. It applies to affidavits presented to any Court or Officer.
a. Only I is correct
b. Only II is correct
c. Both I and II are correct
d. Neither I nor II is correct
69. Under the BSA, what is the required number of witnesses to prove any fact?
a. No particular number of witnesses is required.
b. At least one eye witness.
c. Two witnesses are mandatory for all cases.
d. Three witnesses for serious criminal cases.
70. A "presumption" under the BSA means the court:
a. Is strictly forbidden from drawing conclusions.
b. Must always ask the police for confirmation.
c. May assume a certain fact is true until disproved.
d. Can only decide based on physical evidence.
71. Under BNSS, a "Victim" is entitled to file an appeal against an order of acquittal under which section?
a. Section 372
b. Section 413
c. Section 415
d. Section 397
72. "Compensation for accusation without reasonable cause" is the heading for:
a. Section 279
b. Section 273
c. Section 281
d. Section 282
73. What is the marginal heading of Section 291?
a. Mutually satisfactory disposition
b. Report of the Court on mutually satisfactory disposition
c. Guidelines for mutually satisfactory disposition
d. Finality of the judgment
74. The marginal heading of Section 175 is:
a. Information in non-cognizable cases
b. Police officer’s power to investigate cognizable case
c. Information to police and their powers to investigate
d. Procedure for investigation
75. What is the marginal heading of Section 182?
a. Statements to police not to be signed: Use of statements in evidence
b. No inducement to be offered
c. Recording of confessions and statements
d. Examination of witnesses by police
76. The marginal heading of Section 94 is:
a. Summons to produce document or other thing
b. Search-warrant
c. Procedure as to letters and telegrams
d. Power to compel production
77. What is the marginal heading of Section 107?
a. Power of police officer to seize certain property
b. Attachment, forfeiture or restoration of property
c. Search of place suspected to contain stolen property
d. Disposal of property
78. The marginal heading of Section 210 is:
a. Cognizance of offences by Magistrates
b. Transfer of cases on application of the accused
c. Making over of cases to Magistrates
d. Jurisdiction in the case of juveniles
79. What is the marginal heading of Section 218?
a. Prosecution for contempt of lawful authority of public servants
b. Prosecution for offences against public justice
c. Prosecution for offences against the State
d. Prosecution of Judges and public servants
80. Who is responsible for issuing the warrant to carry out a death sentence once it has been confirmed by the High Court?
a. The High Court Registrar
b. The Supreme Court
c. The Court of Session
d. The State Home Department
81. What happens if the High Court judges hearing a death sentence confirmation are equally divided in opinion?
a. The sentence is automatically commuted to life imprisonment
b. The case is referred to a third judge under Section 433
c. The opinion of the senior-most judge prevails
d. A retrial is ordered in the Court of Session
82. Scenario: An investigator conducts a raid on a warehouse suspected of storing stolen electronics. He brings two independent witnesses but does not have a video camera. Under Section 105 of BNSS, is the search legally valid?
a. Yes, if witnesses are present, recording is optional.
b. No, the search and seizure must be recorded through audio-video electronic means.
c. Yes, if the officer records a manual diary entry.
d. No, unless the Warehouse Manager signs a digital waiver.
83. Under Section 230, if the Magistrate finds the documents (Police Report, FIR, etc.) are voluminous, what is the permissible alternative to providing physical copies to the accused?
a. Providing a digital copy only.
b. Directing the accused to inspect the documents in Court/Police Station.
c. Providing only the relevant extracts.
d. Both a and b.
84. The "First Schedule" marginal heading is:
a. Forms
b. Classification of offences
c. List of bailable offences
d. List of cognizable offences
85. According to Section 407(2) of the BNSS, what must the Court do with the convicted person after passing a death sentence?
a. Release them on bail pending confirmation
b. Commit them to jail custody under a warrant
c. Execute the sentence immediately if the crime is heinous
d. Transfer them to a mental health facility
86. "Power to commute sentences" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 473
b. Section 474
c. Section 475
d. Section 476
87. What is the marginal heading of Section 291?
a. Guidelines for mutually satisfactory disposition
b. Language of Courts
c. Record in summons-cases and inquiries
d. Record in warrant-cases
88. "Power of Magistrate to order person to give specimen signatures or handwriting, etc." is the heading for:
a. Section 348
b. Section 349
c. Section 350
d. Section 351
89. What is the marginal heading of Section 254?
a. Evidence for prosecution
b. Opening case for prosecution
c. Discharge
d. Framing of charge
90. "Absence of complainant" is the heading for:
a. Section 270
b. Section 272
c. Section 273
d. Section 281
91. What is the marginal heading of Section 161?
a. Duty of police to keep diary
b. Preventive action of the police
c. Information of design to commit cognizable offences
d. Injunction pending inquiry.
92. "Inquiry by Magistrate into cause of death" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 194
b. Section 195
c. Section 196
d. Section 197
93. What is the marginal heading of Section 127?
a. Security for keeping the peace in other cases
b. Security for good behaviour from persons disseminating seditious matters
c. Security for good behaviour from suspected persons
d. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders
94. The marginal heading of Section 148 is:
a. Dispersal of assembly by use of civil force
b. Procedure where dispute concerning land or water is likely to cause breach of peace
c. Power to prohibit repetition or continuance of public nuisance
d. Local inquiry
95. "Attachment of property of person absconding" is the marginal heading for which section of BNSS 2023:
a. Section 82
b. Section 85
c. Section 86
d. Section 88
96. A receives a parcel of electronics from an e-commerce site that was actually meant for his neighbour B. A knows it belongs to B but opens it and starts using the gadgets. A is guilty of:
a. Theft
b. Cheating
c. Dishonest Misappropriation of Property
d. Criminal Breach of Trust
97. "Falsification of accounts" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 345
b. Section 344
c. Section 347
d. Section 348
98. "Unlawful compulsory labour" is the heading for:
a. Section 146
b. Section 134
c. Section 145
d. Section 350
99. "A" knowingly hides "B," who is a proclaimed "terrorist" wanted for waging war against the Government of India. "A" has committed:
a. No offence, as he is just a friend.
b. Harbouring an offender
c. Abetment of war.
d. Criminal Conspiracy.
100. "A" is a carrier entrusted with property to be delivered to "Z." "A" dishonestly loots the property for himself. "A" has committed:
a. Theft
b. Criminal Breach of Trust
c. Dishonest Misappropriation
d. Robbery
101. "Transgender" is now included in the definition of "Gender" (Section 2(10) BNS). Which case mandated this recognition?
a. NALSA v. Union of India
b. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
c. Laxmi v. Union of India
d. None of the above
102. "Petty Organized Crime" like pocket-picking or card-skimming is covered under:
a. Section 111
b. Section 112
c. Section 113
d. Section 115
103. Which case stated that "Privacy is a fundamental right," influencing the "Voyeurism" provisions in BNS?
a. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
b. Kharak Singh v. State of UP
c. Govind v. State of MP
d. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
104. Which case established that "Mere membership" of a banned organization isn't a crime unless there is violence (Relevant to Section 113)?
a. Arup Bhuyan v. State of Assam (2023 Review)
b. Binayak Sen v. State of Chhattisgarh
c. Jyoti Chorge v. State of Maharashtra
d. None of the above
105. Under Section 116(h) of BNS, a hurt is "grievous" if it causes severe bodily pain or inability to follow ordinary pursuits for a period of at least:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
106. "Omission to assist public servant when bound by law to give assistance." is:
a. Section 224
b. Section 220
c. Section 221
d. Section 222
107. "Punishment for criminal breach of trust" is:
a. Section 316(2)
b. Section 316(3)
c. Section 317
d. Section 318
108. Which section has the marginal heading "Punishments"?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 7
d. Section 9
109. "Commutation of sentence" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
110. "Solitary confinement" is the marginal heading for which section?
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 12
d. Section 13
111. "Accident in doing a lawful act" is the heading for:
a. Section 20
b. Section 22
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
112. "Theft in a dwelling house, or means of transportation or place of worship, etc." is the heading for:
a. Section 305
b. Section 306
c. Section 318
d. Section 319
113. "Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by deceased person at the time of his death" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 317
b. Section 315
c. Section 319
d. Section 320
114. Section 19 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with
a. Act likely to cause harm, but done without criminal intent, and to prevent other harm.
b. Accident in doing a lawful act.
c. Act done pursuant to judgment or order of Court
d. None of the above
115. What is the maximum punishment for intentional insult with intent to provoke a breach of peace under Section 352 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Imprisonment for up to one year
b. Imprisonment for up to two years
c. A fine of up to ₹5,000
d. Community service only
116. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “Property mark”?
a. Section 346
b. Section 341
c. Section 348
d. Section 345
117. Who can be held liable for the offence of falsification of accounts under Section 344 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Only the managing director of a company
b. Any person who is a clerk, officer, or servant acting with fraudulent intent
c. Only the owner of the company
d. Any person, regardless of their employment status
118. A, a police officer, whose duty it is to prevent robbery, abets the commission of robbery. Here, though the robbery be not committed, A is liable to
a. One-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
b. One-fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
c. One-sixth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, and also to fine.
d. None of the above
119. If a person, A, is carefully chopping wood and the hatchet head detaches and fatally injures a bystander, A's action is considered:
a. Murder.
b. Culpable homicide.
c. Excusable and not an offence.
d. Causing death by negligence.
120. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with the term “harbour”?
a. Section 2(13)
b. Section 2(14)
c. Section 2(15)
d. Section 2(11)
121. A, being legally bound to produce a document before a District Court, intentionally omits to produce the same. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 209
b. Section 210
c. Section 211
d. Section 212
122. Under Section 310(3) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a murder is committed during a dacoity by any one of the dacoits, what is the maximum punishment that can be imposed on all members of the group?
a. Rigorous imprisonment for a term of ten years.
b. Imprisonment for life.
c. Death penalty.
d. Any of the above, along with a fine.
123. Opinion expressed in good faith about the merits of a decided case or conduct of parties/witnesses is protected under:
a. Exception 5 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
b. Exception 6 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. Exception 7 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. Exception 9 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
124. A mother, having the care of her 10-year-old child, leaves the child at a bus stop with the intention of abandoning her. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is most applicable in this situation?
a. Section 92
b. Section 93
c. Section 94
d. Section 96
125. Which of the following punishment cannot be awarded under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Rigorous imprisonment
c. Transportation for life
d. Death
126. 'Judicial Activism' in India is linked to:
a. Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
b. Presidential Rule
c. Ordinance Power
d. Parliamentary Sovereignty
127. The first woman judge of the Supreme Court was:
a. Leila Seth
b. M. Fathima Beevi
c. Ruma Pal
d. Indu Malhotra
128. Who has the right to speak in both Houses without being a member?
a. Solicitor General
b. Attorney General
c. Chief Justice
d. CAG
129. Which case led to the expansion of Article 21 to include the "Right to Travel Abroad"?
a. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
b. Kharak Singh v. State of UP
c. Satwant Singh v. Assistant Passport Officer
d. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary
130. Which Article provides for the 'Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities'?
a. Article 350
b. Article 350B
c. Article 351
d. Article 347
131. Which Constitutional Amendment Act added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
a. 42nd Amendment Act
b. 44th Amendment Act
c. 52nd Amendment Act
d. 61st Amendment Act
132. Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect States against:
a. Financial Crisis
b. External aggression and internal disturbance
c. Epidemics
d. Corruption
133. The 'Zonal Councils' are:
a. Constitutional Bodies
b. Statutory Bodies
c. Private Bodies
d. Judicial Bodies
134. The 'Doctrine of Pith and Substance' is used to determine:
a. The validity of a Fundamental Right
b. The legislative competence of Parliament or State Legislature
c. The basic structure of the Constitution
d. The legality of an Ordinance
135. The 'Doctrine of Eclipse' applies primarily to:
a. Post-Constitutional Laws
b. Pre-Constitutional Laws
c. Constitutional Amendments
d. Administrative Orders
136. Chapter XXXI, titled "REWARDS," primarily encompasses which set of paragraphs in the Police Regulations?
a. Paragraphs 428 to 463-A
b. Paragraphs 464 to 476
c. Paragraphs 477 to 507-A
d. Paragraphs 508 to 519-A
137. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 351?
a. Public Nuisance and Gaming
b. Permission to play games in public
c. Prohibitions under Municipal Laws
d. Licensing of Public Resorts
138. Additional police can be employed at the cost of individuals under:
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 17
d. Section 19
139. Special Police Officers are appointed under Section 17 by:
a. The Inspector-General
b. A Magistrate, upon application of a police officer (not below Inspector)
c. The Governor
d. The Superintendent of Police
140. Under Paragraph 370, the employment of private sweepers is prohibited for police lines or stations if scavenging has been undertaken by a municipality under which Act?
a. The U.P. Police Act, 1861
b. The U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947
c. Section 196(a) of the U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916
d. The U.P. Urban Planning Act, 1973
141. Under Paragraph 199, police may be supplied for private entertainments, provided they are paid for at the rates specified in:
a. Chapter XIV of the Police Regulations
b. Section 13 of the Police Act
c. Paragraph 158 of the Office Manual
d. The District Magistrate's Fee Schedule
142. What is the specific marginal heading for Chapter XX of the Uttar Pradesh Police Regulations?
a. Identification and Tracking of History-Sheeters
b. Maintenance of the Village Crime Note-Book
c. REGISTRATION AND SURVEILLANCE OF BAD CHARACTERS
d. Prevention of Crime and Surveillance Protocols
143. Which section empowers higher officers to dismiss or suspend lower-ranking officers?
a. Section 5
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 11
144. A certificate of appointment under Section 8 is surrendered when:
a. The officer is promoted
b. The officer ceases to be a police officer
c. The officer goes on long leave
d. Every 5 years
145. Under Section 23, a police officer must execute all "Warrants and Orders" issued by:
a. Any senior citizen
b. Any competent authority
c. Only the High Court
d. Only the IGP
146. Which Section was repealed by the Police Act (Amendment) Act, 1895?
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 11
d. Section 38
147. In any action under Section 42, the "Defendant" (Police Officer) may give what evidence under the plea of "General Issue"?
a. Only character evidence.
b. Any special matter (defense) as if it had been specially pleaded.
c. Only evidence approved by the District Magistrate.
d. No evidence is allowed if a notice was not served
148. According to Paragraph 51, what is the rank of the Second Officer at a police station?
a. Inspector
b. Sub-Inspector
c. Head Constable
d. Assistant Sub-Inspector
149. Under Paragraph 19, the Reserve Inspector is responsible for the safe custody of which of the following?
a. Only arms and ammunition
b. Station General Diaries and Case Diaries
c. Clothing, accoutrements, arms, ammunition, tents, and stores
d. Personal property of the Superintendent of Police
150. According to Paragraph 21, how often must the Reserve Inspector hold a kit inspection?
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Fortnightly
d. Monthly
