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 UP APO MOCK TEST-1

 

Marks: 150

Time: 2 Hour

 

1. Which article of the constitution deal with Rights of Ministers and Attorney General as respects Houses?

a. Article 91

b. Article 90

c. Article 89

d. Article 88

 

2. Which article deal with Special provisions as to financial Bills?

a. Article 107

b. Article 114

c. Article 117

d. Article 102

 

3. Which article deal with Joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases?

a. Article 102

b. Article 105

c. Article 109

d. Article 108

 

4. What is the nature of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

a. Non-justiciable

b. Partly justiciable

c. Justiciable

d. None of the above

 

5. Article 51A(g) focuses on?

a. Providing education to children

b. Safeguarding public property

c. Protecting and improving the natural environment

d. Developing scientific temper

 

6. Which Article deals with the executive power of the Union?

a. Article 52

b. Article 53

c. Article 54

d. Article 55

 

7. In the impeachment of the President, the charge can be preferred by:

a. A resolution with fourteen days' notice moved by one-fourth of the members of the House present and voting

b. A resolution moved in the Rajya Sabha after at least fourteen days' notice passed by one-third members

c. A resolution moved in either House of Parliament after at least fourteen days' notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of the total membership of the House which is passed by a majority of total membership of the House

d. A resolution passed in each House of the Parliament by a majority of total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that House present and voting

 

8. The maximum time gap between two sessions of Parliament, as per Article 85, is:

a. 3 months

b. 9 months

c. 6 months

d. 12 months

 

9. What happens if the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within the stipulated time period (as per Article 109)?

a. The Bill is considered rejected.

b. The Bill is sent to a joint sitting of both Houses.

c. The Bill is considered passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Lok Sabha.

d. The President has to intervene.

 

10. Article 116 of the Indian Constitution deals with?

a. Vote of Credit

b. Vote on Account

c. Exceptional Grants

d. All of the above

 

11. Which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines the term ““month” and “year”?

a. Section 2(20)

b. Section 2(22)

c. Section 2(23)

d. Section 2(24)

 

12. A and B are joint jailors, and as such have the charge of Z, a prisoner, alternatively for six hours at a time. A and B, intending to cause Z’s death, knowingly cooperate in causing that effect by illegally omitting, each during the time of his attendance, to furnish Z with food supplied to them for that purpose. Z dies of hunger. Who is guilty of the murder of Z?

a. Only A

b. Only B

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

 

13. What is the Act no. of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. NO. 45 OF 2023

b. NO. 46 OF 2023

c. NO. 47 OF 2023

d. NO. 48 OF 2023

 

14. Which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with Right of private defence against deadly assault when there is risk of harm to innocent person.

a. Section 21

b. Section 22

c. Section 43

d. Section 44

 

15. Section 93 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) deals with:

a. Exposure and abandonment of a child under twelve years by a parent or person having care of it.

b. Criminal intimidation.

c. Assault

d. Theft.

 

16. What is the upper age limit of a child as defined in Section 99 of BNS?

a. 16 years

b. 18 years

c. 21 years

d. 25 years

 

17. What is the maximum punishment for dowry death under Section 80 BNS?

a. 10 years imprisonment

b. Life imprisonment

c. 14 years imprisonment

d. 20 years imprisonment

 

18. Which section of BNS provides punishment for “Theft in a dwelling house, or means of transportation or place of worship, etc.”?

a. Section 307

b. Section 304

c. Section 305

d. Section 306

 

19. Which of the following is correctly matched in BNS, 2023?

a. Section 64 – Causing miscarriage.

b. Section 105 – Punishment for murder.

c. Section 109 – Attempt to murder.

d. Section 94 – Causing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicide.

 

20. In Darshan Singh v. State of Punjab (2010), the Supreme Court held that:

a. Right of private defence is available only when grievous hurt is actually caused.

b. Right of private defence cannot be pleaded if there is even a slight delay in apprehension.

c. Right of private defence is a very valuable right, but its exercise must be proportionate.

d. Right of private defence includes a right to retaliate after the danger is over.

 

21. In the context of Section 22, BNS 2023, which test is applied by Indian courts to determine insanity?

a. Irresistible impulse test

b. M’Naghten Rule

c. Durham test (product test)

d. American Model Penal Code test

 

22. Enhanced punishment for certain offences after previous conviction Whoever, having been convicted by a Court in India, of an offence punishable under Chapter?

a. Chapter XII or Chapter XIII of BNS

b. Chapter IX or Chapter XV of BNS

c. Chapter X or Chapter XVII of BNS

d. Chapter XI or Chapter XVI of BNS

 

23. Under Section 330 of BNS, A finds a key lost by Z and uses it to enter Z's house to steal. Is this considered house-breaking?

a. No, because no force was used to enter.

b. No, because A did not make the passage.

c. Yes, because A opened a lock, regardless of how the key was obtained.

d. Yes, because it amounts to theft.

 

24. Which chapter of BNS deal with “OF OFFENCES BY OR RELATING TO PUBLIC SERVANTS”?

a. CHAPTER XVI

b. CHAPTER XV

c. CHAPTER XII

d. CHAPTER XVIII

 

25. Which section of BNS 2023 deal with “Concealing with intent to facilitate design to wage war”?

a. Section 151

b. Section 150

c. Section 157

d. Section 156

 

26. How many total sections are there in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023? 

a. 511

b. 358

c. 300

d. 400

 

27. “Offence" is defined under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Section 2(23)

b. Section 2(24)

c. Section 2(25)

d. Section 2(26)

 

28. As per Section 197 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, publishing imputations that certain groups cannot be loyal to the Constitution is considered prejudicial to:

a. Public order

b. National integration

c. Religious sentiments

d. Individual liberty

 

29. Which section of the BNS deals with the "Punishment for Murder"?

a. Section 302

b. Section 101

c. Section 103

d. Section 300

 

30. For a conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than two years, what is the punishment for that conspiracy?

a. Not exceeding ten months

b. Not exceeding six months

c. In the same manner as if he had abetted such offence

d. None of the above

 

31. The maxim “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” forms the foundation of:

a. Strict liability offences under BNS

b. Vicarious liability in criminal law

c. Double jeopardy

d. General principle of criminal liability

 

32. A, being legally bound to produce a document before a District Court, intentionally omits to produce the same. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Section 209

b. Section 210

c. Section 211

d. Section 212

 

33. “Woman” under section 2(35) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 means a female human being of

a. Any age

b. Eighteen years

c. Sixteen years

d. Twenty one years

 

34. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with abetment in India of offenses committed outside India?

a. Section 45

b. Section 47

c. Section 48

d. Section 49

 

35. What is the primary subject matter of Section 338 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Causing grievous hurt by rash or negligent acts

b. Forgery of valuable security, will, etc.

c. House-trespass after preparation for hurt, assault, or wrongful restraint

d. Criminal breach of trust by a public servant

 

36. According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), an act is done "dishonestly" if the intention is to cause which of the following?

a. Wrongful gain to one person

b. Wrongful loss to another person

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

 

37. Under BNS Section 312, the mandatory minimum imprisonment for attempting to commit robbery or dacoity while armed with a deadly weapon is:

a. Not less than 5 years.

b. Not less than 7 years.

c. A fine, but no imprisonment.

d. Not less than 10 years.

 

38. A finds a blank cheque on a road. He can see the name of the person who drew the cheque, and the cheque's face value. A appropriates the cheque without making any attempt to trace the drawer. He also knows the drawer can identify the payee. Which of the following is true?

a. A has not committed an offence, as the cheque was payable to the bearer and the true owner could not be conjectured.

b. A has committed an offence under Section 314, as he had the means of discovering the owner.

c. A is guilty of criminal breach of trust, not dishonest misappropriation.

d. A can only be prosecuted if he cashes the cheque.

 

39. Which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with General explanations.

a. Section 3

b. Section 4

c. Section 5

d. Section 9

 

40. Which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with Commencement and continuance of right of private defence of property.

a. Section 34

b. Section 43

c. Section 41

d. Section 28

 

41. The principle of Res Gestae (relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction) is incorporated under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

a. Section 3

b. Section 4

c. Section 6

d. Section 8

 

42. Section 25 of the BSA, 2023, deals with:

a. Admissions not conclusive proof, but may estop

b. Oral admissions as to contents of electronic records are relevant

c. Effect of admissions

d. Admissions in civil cases when relevant

 

43. Section 154 of the BSA, 2023, addresses questions in cross-examination that are improper. The exact heading is:

a. Unlawful questions

b. Questions lawful in cross-examination

c. Scandalous and irrelevant questions

d. Exclusion of improper questions

 

44. According to Section 74(1)(a) of the BSA, which of the following documents are classified as public documents?

a. Personal diaries and private letters.

b. Documents forming the acts or records of the acts of the sovereign authority, official bodies/tribunals, or public officers (legislative, judicial, and executive).

c. Business contracts between two private companies.

d. Unsigned email correspondence.

 

45. In the provided illustration, A sells B "my estate at Rampur containing one hundred bighas." A actually owns such an estate. What type of evidence may not be given?

a. Evidence confirming that A owns the estate.

b. Evidence of the fact that the estate meant to be sold was situated at a different place and of a different size.

c. Evidence about the value of the estate at Rampur.

d. Evidence that the deed was properly signed.

 

46. What is the primary purpose of the Judge asking questions under Section 168 of the BSA?

a. To assist one party in winning the case.

b. To discover or obtain proof of relevant facts.

c. To cross-examine the witness on behalf of the adverse party.

d. To delay the court proceedings.

 

47. Which chapter of BSA deals with “OF IMPROPER ADMISSION AND REJECTION OF EVIDENCE”?

a. CHAPTER XI

b. CHAPTER XII

c. CHAPTER X

d. CHAPTER IX

 

48. Which section of the BSA 2023 provides that "Evidence of character to prove conduct imputed, in civil cases, is irrelevant," except in cases where character is a fact in issue?

a. Section 51

b. Section 53

c. Section 46

d. Section 114

 

49. Which court gave the final Judgement in the case of Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor?

a. Madras High Court

b. Supreme Court

c. Privy Council

d. Federal Court

 

50. The case of Sawal Das v. State of Bihar is related to—

a. Plea of Alibi

b. Rule of Res-gestae

c. Rule of Estoppel

d. Rule of Res-judicata

 

51. Which of the following is considered "Secondary Evidence" under Section 58 of the BSA 2023?

a. The original document itself.

b. Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which ensure accuracy.

c. Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.

d. Both b and c.

 

52. Which section of the BSA 2023 explicitly states that electronic or digital records have the same legal effect, validity, and enforceability as paper documents?

a. Section 57

b. Section 61

c. Section 63

d. Section 2

 

53. In civil proceedings, the spouse of a party is a competent witness, meaning they:

a. Must testify if called upon.

b. Are legally allowed to give evidence.

c. Are only allowed to testify for their own spouse.

d. Are immune from testifying entirely.

 

54. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Production of documents?

a. Section 162

b. Section 163

c. Section 164

d. Section 165

 

55. Section 170(2) of BSA, 2023 includes a "Notwithstanding such repeal" clause. This clause serves as a saving provision for which specific scenarios?

a. Only future applications filed after the BSA comes into force.

b. Any pending application, trial, inquiry, investigation, proceeding, or appeal immediately before the BSA came into force.

c. Only trials that have already reached the final judgment stage.

d. New investigations initiated after the BSA's commencement date.

 

56. In State of Maharashtra v. Dr. Praful B. Desai (2003), the Supreme Court held that the term "presence" of a witness (for recording evidence) does not necessarily mean physical presence. This case validated the use of which technology in recording evidence?

a. Audio recording of phone calls

b. Video conferencing

c. DNA analysis reports

d. CCTV footage as the sole evidence

 

57. The principle that "confessions" should be distinguished from "admissions", and that a statement which includes self-exculpatory elements might not amount to a confession, was established in:

a. Nishi Kant Jha v. State of Bihar

b. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab

c. Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar

d. None of the above

 

58. Section 158 of BSA, 2023 deals with:

a. Question by party to his own witness.

b. Impeaching credit of witness.

c. Questions tending to corroborate evidence of relevant fact, admissible.

d. Former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact.

 

59. The term ‘Examination -in-chief” has been defined in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 in -

a. Section 138

b. Section 137

c. Section 139

d. Section 142

 

60. The burden of proof in case of ‘plea of alibi’ is- 

a. On the prosecution 

b. On the accused 

c. Investigation agency 

d. None of these

 

61. According to Section 2(1)(L), "Investigation" includes all proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by:

a. A Police Officer

b. Any person authorized by a Magistrate

c. A Magistrate themselves

d. Both a and b

 

62. A "Bailable Offence" under Section 2(1)(c) means:

a. An offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule

b. An offence which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force

c. Both a and b

d. An offence where the punishment is less than 3 years

 

63. Which provision of BNSS, 2023 deals with “Power to summon persons”?

a. Section 196

b. Section 197

c. Section 198

d. Section 195

 

64. What constitutional principle is codified by Section 337 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?

a. Right to free legal aid

b. Right against double jeopardy

c. Right to a speedy trial

d. Right to remain silent

 

65. Section 10 of the BNSS deals with which of the following?

a. The powers of the High Courts

b. The powers of Executive Magistrates

c. The appointment of Chief Judicial Magistrate

d. The appointment of Special Metropolitan Magistrates

 

66. According to BNSS Section 35, a police officer may arrest any person without a warrant who, in the officer's presence, commits a _________ offence.

a. Bailable

b. Non-cognizable

c. Compoundable

d. Cognizable

 

67. Under BNSS Section 119, the affected person served with a forfeiture notice is given a period to show cause why their property should not be declared proceeds of crime. What is the standard time period provided in the notice?

a. 7 days

b. 15 days

c. 30 days

d. 60 days

 

68. Which section of the BNSS describes the form of a warrant of arrest?

a. Section 61

b. Section 69

c. Section 70

d. Section 72

 

69. Chapter V of the BNSS primarily deals with which aspect of the criminal procedure?

a. Filing appeals in the High Court

b. Arrest of persons

c. Transfer of criminal cases

d. Recording of confessions by magistrates

 

70. Under Section 303 of the BNSS, who can issue a special order to prevent a specific person from being removed from prison?

a. The High Court

b. The State Government or Central Government

c. The Officer in Charge of the prison

d. The District Magistrate

 

71. Which chapter of BNSS, 2023 deals with “PROVISIONS AS TO BAIL AND BONDS”?

a. CHAPTER XXXVI

b. CHAPTER XXXV

c. CHAPTER XXXIV

d. CHAPTER XXXVII

 

72. The procedure for SUMMARY TRIALS provided in the following Sections of the BNSS: —

a. Section 260 to 265

b. Section 274 to 282

c. Section 282 to 287

d. Section 283 to 288

 

73. Which provision of the BNSS deals with the 'withdrawal of complaint'?

a. Section 223

b. Section 254

c. Section 280

d. Section 259

 

74. Under which provision of BNSS, a court may convert summons case into warrant case?

a. Section 282

b. Section 286

c. Section 258

d. All the above

 

75. Under which Section of the BNSS police can arrest a person to prevent the commission of cognizable offence?

a. Section 145

b. Section 133

c. Section 170

d. Section 146

 

76. In every trial before a Court of Session, prosecution shall be conducted by:

a. The Sessions Judge

b. The counsellor of accused

c. A public Prosecutor

d. None of these

 

77. Point out the incorrect response under the BNSS.

a. The Inquiry is conducted by a court

b. Inquiry is conducted after framing the charge

c. Inquiry is conducted prior to framing of charge

d. Inquiry is conducted by a magistrate

 

78. Under which Section of BNSS conditional order for removal of nuisance may be issued?

a. Section 110

b. Section 130

c. Section 152

d. Section 134

 

79. Which section of the BNSS mandates Letter of request to competent authority for investigation in a country or place outside India?

a. Section 101

b. Section 103

c. Section 105

d. Section 112

 

80. The term "tribal areas" in Section 1 of BNSS refers to the territories which, immediately before which date, were included in the tribal areas of Assam?

a. 15th August, 1947

b. 21st January, 1972

c. 26th January, 1950

d. 1st April, 1973

 

81. Which section of BNSS 2023 allows the registration of an e-FIR?

a. Section 154

b. Section 173

c. Section 161

d. Section 200

 

82. Which section mandates audio-video recording of search and seizure operations?

a. Section 105

b. Section 165

c. Section 185

d. Section 91

 

83. Which act does the BNSS 2023 replace?

a. Indian Penal Code

b. Code of Criminal Procedure

c. Indian Evidence Act

d. Police Act

 

84. Which of the following designations was abolished by the BNSS?

a. Chief Judicial Magistrate

b. Judicial Magistrate Second Class

c. Executive Magistrate

d. Metropolitan Magistrate

 

85. On which date did the BNSS, 2023 come into official force?

a. January 26, 2024

b. August 15, 2023

c. July 1, 2024

d. December 25, 2023

 

86. The Police Act, 1861 received the assent of the Governor-General on:

a. 22nd March 1861

b. 1st January 1861

c. 25th December 1860

d. 15th August 1861

 

87. Under Section 3 of Police Act, 1861, the superintendence of the police throughout a general police district is vested in:

a. The Inspector General of Police

b. The District Magistrate

c. The State Government

d. The Director General of Police

 

88. Which section of Police Act, 1861 provides for the 'Certificate of Appointment' to be given to police officers?

a. Section 7

b. Section 8

c. Section 9

d. Section 10

 

89. Which section of Police Act, 1861 mandates the maintenance of a 'General Diary' (Station Diary) at every police station?

a. Section 42

b. Section 43

c. Section 44

d. Section 45

 

90. Section 30 of Police Act, 1861 gives the power to regulate public assemblies and processions to the:

a. District Magistrate

b. Superintendent of Police

c. Local Municipal Board

d. Station House Officer

 

91. The maximum term of imprisonment for 'Neglect of Duty' by a police officer under Section 29 of Police Act, 1861 is:

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. 1 year

 

92. Under Section 25 of Police Act, 1861, it is the duty of every police officer to take charge of:

a. Stolen property

b. Confiscated property

c. Unclaimed property

d. Ancestral property

 

93. Which Chapter of the UP Police Regulations specifically addresses the "Mounted Police"?

a. Chapter 5

b. Chapter 8

c. Chapter 10

d. Chapter 13

 

94. Under Para 116 of the UP Police Regulations, what is the primary purpose of an identification parade?

a. To punish the suspect

b. To ensure witnesses correctly identify suspects without external influence

c. To record a confession

d. To grant bail

 

95. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 deals with the "Interpretation Clause"?

a. Section 1

b. Section 2

c. Section 3

d. Section 4

 

96. Under Para 65, which of the following is NOT a duty of the Armed Police?

a. Suppressing disorder and violence

b. Guarding tahsils and lock-ups

c. Escorting treasure and prisoners

d. Investigating non-cognizable offences

 

97. Which Para of the UP Police Regulations deals with principal duties of circle inspectors?

a. Para 20

b. Para 40

c. Para 60

d. Para 100

 

98. According to Para 101-A, in which type of cases must reports always be sent to the District Magistrate and SP?

a. Non-cognizable cases

b. Trivial disputes

c. Serious crimes/Special reports

d. Civil matters

 

99. Which Chapter of the UP Police Regulations deals with "Promotions"?

a. Chapter XX

b. Chapter XXI

c. Chapter XXX

d. Chapter XXII

 

100. Under the UP Police Regulations, who is responsible for the duties of the Village Chaukidar?

a. Station House Officer

b. District Magistrate

c. Village Panchayat

d. Circle Office

 

101. Which of the following is not a form of calcium carbonate?

a. Lime water

b. Lime stone

c. Chalk

d. Marble

 

102. Which alloy has bronze, lead and tin?

a. German Silver

b. Bell Metal

c. Solder

d. Rose Metal

 

103. The phenomenon responsible for the formation of a rainbow is:

a. Reflection and scattering

b. Refraction, dispersion, and total internal reflection

c. Only total internal reflection

d. Only refraction

 

104. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the __:

a. Pupil

b. Retina

c. Ciliary muscle

d. Iris

 

105. The substrate of photorespiration is _____:

a. Fructose

b. Pyruvic acid

c. Glycolate

d. Glucose

 

106. Which of the following is an anti-oxidant?

a. Vitamin-B

b. Vitamin-C

c. Vitamin-D

d. Vitamin-K

 

107. What causes the mottling of the dental enamel?

a. High levels of chlorine in water

b. High levels of nitrate in the water

c. High levels of fluorides in the water

d. High levels of calcium in the water

 

108. Which of the following is used as a tool to insert genes into bacteria to stimulate the production of therapeutic proteins such as human insulin?

a. Plasmid

b. Nitrogenous base

c. Bacteria

d. RNA

 

109. Who among the following said, “India for the Indians”?

a. Swami Vivekananda

b. Dayananand Sraswati

c. Annie Besant

d. Sarojini Naidu

 

110. When a raid was made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt Depot, Mahatma Gandhi was present at which of the following places?

a. In Yervada Jail

b. In Sabarmati Jail

c. In Agha Khan Palace Poona

d. In Ahmadnagar Fort Jail

 

111. On which date, Purna Swaraj declaration or Declaration of the Independence of India, was promulgated by the Indian National Congress?

a. 31 December 1929

b. 26 January 1930

c. 26 January 1929

d. 15 August 1930

 

112. Who wrote the song ‘Sare Jahan Se Accha Hindoostan Hamara’ ?

a. Ramprasad Bismil

b. Mohammad Iqbal

c. Ashafaqullah Khan

d. Sahir Ludhianvi

 

113. During the early medieval period which Shudra caste was called as the untouchables?

a. Antyajas

b. Vyadha

c. Kola

d. Koncha

 

114. Which Neolithic site is famous for "Pit Dwellings" (houses built into the ground)?

a. Chirand

b. Burzahom

c. Koldihwa

d. Mehrgarh

 

115. In which mudra did Gautam Buddha deliver his first sermon at Sarnath?

a. Dharmachakra Mudra

b. Abhaya Mudra

c. Dhyana Mudra

d. Bhumisparsa Mudra

 

116. Which Neolithic site in North-Eastern India is known for the discovery of polished stone axes and evidence of corn-marked pottery?

a. Chirand

b. Piklihal

c. Daojali Hading

d. Maski

 

117. The 'Dandi March' was launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against which tax?

a. Land Tax

b. Income Tax

c. Salt Tax

d. Cotton Tax

 

118. Who was the President of the Indian National Congress during the Quit India Movement?

a. Jawaharlal Nehru

b. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

c. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

d. J.B. Kripalani

 

119. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which city?

a. Ludhiana

b. Amritsar

c. Jalandhar

d. Lahore

 

120. In which session did the Indian National Congress declare 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) as its goal?

a. 1929 Lahore Session

b. 1920 Nagpur Session

c. 1907 Surat Session

d. 1924 Belgaum Session

 

121. Who gave the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it"?

a. Mahatma Gandhi

b. Lala Lajpat Rai

c. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

d. Subhash Chandra Bose

 

122. Which movement started after the failure of the Cripps Mission?

a. Civil Disobedience Movement

b. Non-Cooperation Movement

c. Quit India Movement

d. Swadeshi Movement

 

123. The partition of Bengal was revoked in which year?

a. 1905

b. 1907

c. 1911

d. 1919

 

124. Who was the founder of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885?

a. Dadabhai Naoroji

b. Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume)

c. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

d. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

 

125. On which date, Supreme Court of India started operations in Independent India?

a. 25 January, 1950

b. 28 January, 1950

c. 4 June, 1951

d. 27 October, 1949

 

126. Who among the following was appointed as the first Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

a. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar

b. G V Mavalankar

c. Vithalbhai J Patel

d. V Narahari Rao

 

127. Right to Privacy comes under which article of constitution:

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 18

 

128. The recently revoked ‘Article 370’ of constitution is associated with which of these states of India?

a. Assam

b. Sikkim

c. Nagaland

d. Kashmir

 

129. Which of these statements is correct with regard to appointment of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?

a. He/She has to be a retired Chief Justice of India

b. He/She has to be a retired Supreme Court Judge

c. He/She has to be a serving/ retired Chief Justice of a High Court

d. He/She should have demonstrated experience as a Human Rights activist

 

130. The first woman Governor of a state in independent India was:

a. Indira Gandhi

b. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

c. Sarojini Naidu

d. Sucheta Kripalani

 

131. The "Directive Principles of State Policy" (DPSPs) were borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

a. USA

b. Ireland

c. Canada

d. Australia

 

132. Which committee is known as the "Twin Sister" of the Estimates Committee?

a. Committee on Public Undertakings

b. Public Accounts Committee

c. Committee on Petitions

d. Ethics Committee

 

133. Which of the following is the longest border between any two countries in the world?

a. Chile and Argentina

b. China and India

c. Canada and the United States

d. Kazakhstan and Russia

 

134. Which of the following is the largest hot desert in the world, covering much of North Africa?

a. Kalahari Desert

b. Namib Desert

c. Sahara Desert

d. Gobi Desert

 

135. The "Doldrums" pressure belt is located between which of the following latitudes?

a. 35° N to 35° S

b. 5° N to 5° S

c. 23.5° N to 23.5° S

d. 66° N to 66° S

 

136. Which country is known as the "Land of the Rising Sun"?

a. Japan

b. China

c. Norway

d. Australia

 

137. Which of the following describes the way people are spread across the earth’s surface?

a. Population Density

b. Population Distribution

c. Population Composition

d. Population Change

 

138. What is the ratio between the total population and total land area called?

a. Growth rate

b. Population density

c. Crude birth rate

d. Physiological density

 

139. Which strait separates the islands of Java and Sumatra?

a. Strait of Malacca

b. Sunda Strait

c. Palk Strait

d. Bering Strait

 

140. The "Ring of Fire," known for its high concentration of active volcanoes, is primarily located in which ocean?

a. Indian Ocean

b. Atlantic Ocean

c. Arctic Ocean

d. Pacific Ocean

 

141. Who was the Chief Guest for India’s 77th Republic Day celebrations on January 26, 2026?

a. Emmanuel Macron

b. Ursula von der Leyen

c. Anthony Albanese

d. Fumio Kishida

 

142. In the Union Budget 2026-27, what is the new fiscal deficit target for the financial year?

a. 5.1%

b. 4.9%

c. 4.3%

d. 3.5%

 

143. Which Indian city hosted the 78th Army Day Parade on January 15, 2026?

a. Bengaluru

b. Lucknow

c. Jaipur, Rajasthan

d. New Delhi

 

144. Which space agency successfully landed the 'Dragonfly' rotorcraft on Saturn's moon Titan in 2026?

a. ESA

b. JAXA

c. NASA

d. Roscosmos

 

145. Which international organization declared 2025 as the "International Year of Quantum Science and Technology"?

a. WHO

b. United Nations

c. World Bank

d. IMF

 

146. In 2025, which Southeast Asian country officially joined the ASEAN as its 11th member?

a. Timor-Leste

b. Papua New Guinea

c. Maldives

d. Sri Lanka

 

147. The 2026 FIFA World Cup will be the first to feature how many teams?

a. 32

b. 40

c. 48

d. 52

 

148. Which country launched the "Artemis III" mission in late 2025 to return humans to the lunar surface?

a. China

b. USA (NASA)

c. India (ISRO)

d. Russia

 

149. What is the theme of the World Economic Forum (WEF) 2026 meeting held in Davos?

a. Cooperation in a Fragmented World

b. Rebuilding Trust

c. A Spirit of Dialogue

d. The Great Reset

 

150. In 2025, which nation officially became the 32nd member of NATO?

a. Finland

b. Sweden

c. Ukraine

d. Austria

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