UP APO MOCK TEST-3
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. The 'Deepavali Declaration' (1929) was made by:
a. Lord Irwin
b. Lord Linlithgow
c. Lord Reading
d. Lord Willingdon
2. Which movement was started to protest against the Rowlatt Act?
a. Non-Cooperation
b. Anti-Rowlatt Satyagraha
c. Civil Disobedience
d. Quit India
3. Who was called the 'Father of Indian Unrest' by Valentine Chirol?
a. B.G. Tilak
b. Lala Lajpat Rai
c. Bhagat Singh
d. M.K. Gandhi
4. Who founded the 'Theosophical Society' in India?
a. Annie Besant
b. H.P. Blavatsky
c. Colonel Olcott
d. Both b & c
5. Who was the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament?
a. Dadabhai Naoroji
b. W.C. Bonnerjee
c. G.K. Gokhale
d. Pherozeshah Mehta
6. The 'August Kranti' is another name for:
a. Non-Cooperation Movement
b. Quit India Movement
c. Salt Satyagraha
d. Swadeshi Movement
7. Who wrote 'Why I am an Atheist'?
a. Bhagat Singh
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. J.L. Nehru
d. Periyar
8. Who was the last Governor-General of Free India?
a. Lord Mountbatten
b. Rajendra Prasad
c. Rajagopalachari
d. J.L. Nehru
9. The first municipal corporation in India was set up in:
a. Bombay
b. Calcutta
c. Madras
d. Delhi
10. Which body appoints the Prime Minister?
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. President
d. Citizenry
11. Which Article relates to the Uniform Civil Code?
a. Article 40
b. Article 44
c. Article 48
d. Article 50
12. The 'Idea of Justice' in the Preamble is taken from:
a. French Revolution
b. Russian Revolution
c. American War
d. UK
13. GST (Goods and Services Tax) was implemented from:
a. 1 April 2017
b. 1 July 2017
c. 1 Jan 2018
d. 15 Aug 2016
14. Which is the oldest stock exchange in Asia?
a. NSE
b. BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange)
c. Tokyo SE
d. Shanghai SE
15. The 'Monetary Policy Committee' is headed by:
a. Finance Minister
b. Governor of RBI
c. PM
d. NITI Aayog CEO
16. Which curve shows the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue?
a. Phillips Curve
b. Laffer Curve
c. Lorenz Curve
d. Engel Curve
17. Which part of the human brain is responsible for the regulation of posture and equilibrium?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Medulla Oblongata
d. Pons
18. In DNA fingerprinting, which of the following is used for DNA amplification?
a. Southern Blotting
b. Northern Blotting
c. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
d. Electrophoresis
19. Which hormone is known as the "Emergency Hormone" but also acts as a neurotransmitter?
a. Thyroxine
b. Insulin
c. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
d. Estrogen
20. The working principle of a washing machine is:
a. Centrifugation
b. Dialysis
c. Reverse Osmosis
d. Diffusion
21. A "Black Hole" is an object whose gravitational pull is so strong that:
a. Only light can escape
b. Even light cannot escape
c. It reflects all light
d. It has zero mass
22. Atomic number is equal to the number of:
a. Neutrons
b. Electrons + Neutrons
c. Protons
d. Mass number
23. Which non-metal conducts electricity?
a. Diamond
b. Sulfur
c. Graphite
d. Iodine
24. Modern Periodic Law was given by:
a. Mendeleev
b. Moseley
c. Dobereiner
d. Newlands
25. Which Indian state's transformation into one of the top three renewable energy hubs by 2026 was recently detailed in a NITI Aayog draft blueprint?
a. Gujarat
b. Rajasthan
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Maharashtra
26. In February 2026, the Election Commission of India hosted a significant National Conference of the State Election Commissioners. Where was this event held?
a. Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
b. Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
c. India Expo Mart, Greater Noida
d. Yashobhoomi, Dwarka
27. What is the name of India's first manned submersible, scheduled for launch in 2026 under the Deep Ocean Mission?
a. Jalveer 5500
b. Samudrayaan 1
c. Matsya 6000
d. DeepOcean 2026
28. During India Energy Week 2026, India signed a joint statement to expand cooperation in conventional and clean energy with which country?
a. United States
b. Canada
c. Australia
d. France
29. Which country successfully launched "LignoSat," the world's first wooden satellite, in late 2025/early 2026?
a. USA
b. China
c. Japan
d. India
30. Who was named the winner of the 2025 Pritzker Architecture Prize?
a. Balkrishna Doshi
b. Liu Jiakun
c. David Chipperfield
d. Anne Lacaton
31. Which country won the 2025 ICC Men's Champions Trophy?
a. Australia
b. India
c. Pakistan
d. South Africa
32. Which organization released the "Global Risks Report 2025"?
a. World Bank
b. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c. World Economic Forum (WEF)
d. World Health Organization (WHO)
33. The 'Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana' aims to provide free electricity to how many households?
a. 50 Lakh
b. 1 Crore
c. 2 Crore
d. 5 Crore
34. In February 2026, which city hosted the 'National Conference on Digital Governance'?
a. Bengaluru
b. Hyderabad
c. Pune
d. New Delhi
35. The Silver coin 'Rupia' was first issued by:
a. Akbar
b. Sher Shah Suri
c. Alauddin Khalji
d. Humayun
36. The 'Ibadat Khana' (House of Worship) was built by Akbar at:
a. Agra
b. Delhi
c. Fatehpur Sikri
d. Lahore
37. The temple of Angkor Wat in Cambodia depicts scenes from:
a. Ramayana and Mahabharata
b. Jataka Tales
c. Life of Confucius
d. Shintoism
38. The 'Sudarsana Lake' was repaired during the reign of which Shaka ruler?
a. Nahapana
b. Rudradaman
c. Gondophernes
d. Maues
39. The ‘Comilla Incident’ (1931) of the Indian National Movement is significant because:
a. It was the first time women (Santi and Suniti) assassinated a British District Magistrate
b. It marked the beginning of the Tebhaga Movement
c. It was the site of the first parallel government during Quit India
d. It was the first peasant strike against Indigo planters
40. Which revolutionary organization was responsible for the 'Chittagong Armoury Raid' under the leadership of Surya Sen?
a. Anushilan Samiti
b. Jugantar
c. Indian Republican Army (IRA)
d. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA)
41. The 'Deepavali Declaration' (1929) issued by Lord Irwin was related to:
a. Granting communal electorates to Depressed Classes
b. The promise of 'Dominion Status' for India in an unspecified future
c. The announcement of the Second Round Table Conference
d. The withdrawal of the Salt Tax
42. In the context of the 1857 Revolt, who among the following was known as ‘Danka Shah’ (the Maulvi with the Drum)?
a. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
b. Shah Mal
c. Kunwar Singh
d. Bakht Khan
43. Demographic transition theory was first proposed by:
a. Malthus
b. Warren Thompson
c. Ricardo
d. Darwin
44. A person who leaves their own country to settle in another is an:
a. Immigrant
b. Emigrant
c. Refugee
d. Nomad
45. Which continent is the least populated (excluding Antarctica)?
a. South America
b. Australia (Oceania)
c. Europe
d. North America
46. What is "Crude Birth Rate"?
a. Births per 100
b. Births per 1000
c. Total births in a country
d. None
47. The Lake Baikal, the deepest freshwater lake, is in:
a. USA
b. Russia
c. Canada
d. China
48. Mount Everest is known as "Sagarmatha" in which country?
a. China
b. Nepal
c. Bhutan
d. India
49. Which country is known as the "Land of the Midnight Sun"?
a. Finland
b. Norway
c. Iceland
d. Sweden
50. Which sea has the highest salinity?
a. Red Sea
b. Caspian Sea
c. Dead Sea
d. Mediterranean Sea
51. Which Para of UP POLICE REGULATION deals with 'entries in the gang register’?
a. Para 240
b. Para 251
c. Para 260
d. Para 253
52. General Diary is maintained under which Para?
a. Para 290
b. Para 291
c. Para 300
d. Para 250
53. Who can order the removal of a name from the Surveillance Register?
a. Superintendent of Police
b. SHO
c. DM
d. DIG
54. According to Para 218 of the UP Police Regulations, in which form must the register for absconded offenders be maintained at every police station?
a. Form No. 161
b. Form No. 200
c. Form No. 214
d. Form No. 253
55. Which para deals with ‘list of Bad Characters’ and history sheeters?
a. Para 250
b. Para 251
c. Para 249
d. Para 230
56. The Police Act, 1861 consists of how many total sections?
a. 45
b. 47
c. 50
d. 55
57. The form or format of the General Diary under Section 44 is prescribed by:
a. Central Government
b. Director General of Police
c. State Government
d. District Magistrate
58. It is the duty of every police officer to collect and communicate intelligence affecting:
a. Personal lives of citizens
b. The public peace
c. Political parties
d. None of the above
59. Under the Act, the "Magistrate" means:
a. Only Judicial Magistrate
b. Only Executive Magistrate
c. Any person exercising the powers of a Magistrate
d. Only High Court Judge
60. The cost of the additional police force in a disturbed area is borne by:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The inhabitants of the area
d. The Police Department
61. Under Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861, who is responsible for maintaining the General Diary at a police station?
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Officer in Charge of the Police Station
d. Sub-Inspector
62. Rules made under this section 46 by the State Government are published in:
a. Local newspapers
b. Police Stations
c. Official Gazette
d. Court notice board
63. Under Section 6 of the BSA, which of the following facts are relevant?
a. Motive or preparation
b. Subsequent conduct
c. Previous or subsequent conduct of parties
d. All of the above
64. The BSA 2023 is considered a:
a. Lex Loci
b. Lex Fori
c. Lex Tallionis
d. Lex Mercatoria
65. A confession made in police custody is generally:
a. Admissible if signed
b. Admissible if recorded on video
c. Inadmissible unless made before a Magistrate
d. Always admissible
66. Section 117 of BSA 2023 deals with the presumption of abetment of suicide by:
a. An employee
b. A child
c. A married woman within 7 years of marriage
d. A business partner
67. How many Chapters and Sections are there in BSA 2023?
a. 11 Chapters, 167 Sections
b. 12 Chapters, 170 Sections
c. 15 Chapters, 180 Sections
d. 10 Chapters, 150 Sections
68. Which of the following is considered 'Evidence' under Section 2(e)?
a. Oral statements made before the Court
b. Documents including electronic records
c. Both a and b
d. Only Police Reports
69. Which section of BSA states that facts discovered because of information from the accused may be proved?
a. Section 23
b. Section 27
c. Section 25
d. Section 30
70. A dying declaration is relevant under which section of BSA?
a. Section 32
b. Section 26
c. Section 50
d. Section 10
71. Who is a 'Competent Witness' under BSA?
a. Only adults
b. Only people with high education
c. All persons unless the Court considers them unable to understand questions
d. Only eye-witnesses
72. Is an inscription on a stone considered a "Document" under BSA?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if photographed
d. Only if in a museum
73. What does "Conclusive Proof" mean under BSA?
a. Court may allow evidence to disprove it
b. Court shall not allow evidence to disprove it
c. It is only a suggestion
d. It requires a police report
74. Conspiracy statements are relevant under which section?
a. Section 8
b. Section 12
c. Section 10
d. Section 20
75. When is a "Plea of Alibi" relevant?
a. Section 11
b. Section 9
c. Section 15
d. Section 5
76. Presumption of dowry death is under Section:
a. 113B
b. 118
c. 105
d. 120
77. Who is an Accomplice?
a. A victim
b. A person associated with the crime
c. A judge
d. A police officer
78. Which Section declares oral evidence must be direct?
a. Section 55
b. Section 60
c. Section 64
d. Section 90
79. Electronic records are now considered "Primary Evidence" under:
a. Section 65B
b. Section 57
c. Section 63
d. Section 165
80. Secondary evidence may be given when:
a. Original is with the opponent
b. Original is destroyed
c. Original is a public document
d. All of the above
81. What is the age of a "Public Document" to be presumed genuine?
a. 30 years
b. 20 years
c. 15 years
d. 10 years
82. The BSA, 2023 applies to:
a. All judicial proceedings in Courts
b. Court-martials (except those under specific Acts)
c. Proceedings before Arbitrators
d. Both a and b
83. Which section of the BNSS, 2023, deals with the power of the police to arrest without a warrant?
a. Section 31
b. Section 35
c. Section 41
d. Section 48
84. Under which clause of Section 2 of BNSS is a "Bailable Offence" defined?
a. Section 2(a)
b. Section 2(b)
c. Section 2(c)
d. Section 2(d)
85. As per Section 258, a judgment of acquittal or conviction must be delivered after arguments within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 day
86. Who is defined as a "victim" under Section 2 of the BNSS?
a. Only the person directly harmed.
b. Only the complainant.
c. Any person who has suffered loss or harm, including their legal heirs.
d. Only eyewitnesses.
87. A private person can arrest another person if they commit:
a. Any crime
b. A non-cognizable offence
c. A non-bailable and cognizable offence in their presence
d. A traffic violation
88. Forensic investigation is mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment of:
a. 3 years or more
b. 5 years or more
c. 7 years or more
d. Life imprisonment only
89. What is mandatory during a search of a place?
a. Only two witnesses
b. Audio-video recording through electronic device
c. Presence of a Lawyer
d. Permission from the High Court
90. In the case of a "proclaimed offender" who has absconded, the Court may proceed with the trial and pronounce judgment in their absence under which section?
a. Section 355
b. Section 356
c. Section 299
d. Section 82
91. What is the maximum period of police custody allowed under Section 187?
a. 15 days total
b. 15 days, which can be taken in phases within the first 40 or 60 days
c. 30 days total
d. 90 days total
92. An anticipatory bail application is filed under which section of BNSS?
a. Section 438
b. Section 482
c. Section 484
d. Section 437
93. Which section deals with the "Security for keeping the peace on conviction"?
a. Section 125
b. Section 126
c. Section 130
d. Section 150
94. If an accused has undergone ____ of the maximum imprisonment for an offence (not punishable by death), they shall be released on personal bond.
a. One-fourth
b. One-third
c. One-half
d. Two-thirds
95. Which authority can cancel a bail bond under Section 492 of BNSS?
a. Only the High Court
b. Only the Court of Session
c. The Court which released the person on bail
d. The Police Officer who took the bond
96. Under the landmark principles reaffirmed in Imran Pratapgarhi v. State of Gujarat, a preliminary inquiry under Section 173(3) of BNSS is permitted only when:
a. The police want to verify the accused's background
b. The information received does not clearly disclose a cognizable offence
c. The offence involves a public servant
d. The victim requests a delay in FIR registration
97. According to Section 1(2) of the BNSS, the provisions of the Sanhita (other than Chapters IX, XI, and XII) shall not apply to which of the following areas?
a. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
b. All metropolitan areas in India
c. The State of Nagaland and tribal areas
d. Only the tribal areas of Assam
98. Match the Term with its Section in BNSS:
Term Section
1. Complaint i. Section 2(o)
2. Non-cognizable Offence ii. Section 2(q)
3. Officer in charge of PS iii. Section 2(h)
4. Offence iv. Section 2(r)
Options:
a. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
b. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
c. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
d. 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
99. Which section deals with the "Service of summons on a witness by electronic communication"?
a. Section 64
b. Section 71
c. Section 94
d. Section 120
100. If a person is arrested in one state and is to be produced before a Magistrate in another state, the travel time is:
a. Included in the 24-hour limit
b. Excluded from the 24-hour limit
c. Restricted to 12 hours
d. Only allowed by flight
101. Under Section 506 of the Code, if a Magistrate not empowered by law takes cognizance of an offence or issues a search-warrant erroneously in good faith, what is the legal status of those proceedings?
a. The proceedings are automatically void and must be set aside immediately.
b. The proceedings shall not be set aside merely on the ground of the Magistrate not being so empowered.
c. The Magistrate must be suspended for exceeding their legal jurisdiction.
d. The proceedings are only valid if the High Court provides written retrospective approval.
102. "Pardon to accomplice" (Section 343) is granted on the condition that the person makes a:
a. Partial disclosure
b. Full and true disclosure of all circumstances
c. Written apology
d. Financial deposit
103. If an accused is not represented by an advocate and has no means to engage one, the Court shall assign one at the expense of:
a. The Accused
b. The State
c. The Bar Council
d. The Complainant
104. At what stage can the Court to which a case has been committed tender a pardon under Section 344 of the BNSS?
a. Only during the investigation stage
b. At any time after commitment but before judgment is passed
c. Only after the prosecution has finished its evidence
d. Only after the final arguments are completed
105. The "Executive Magistrate" is appointed by which authority?
a. The High Court
b. The State Government
c. The Central Government
d. The Sessions Judge
106. According to Section 35(7) of the BNSS, no person shall be arrested for an offence punishable with less than 3 years imprisonment if they are over the age of:
a. 60 years
b. 65 years
c. 70 years
d. 75 years
107. Which section of BNSS provides the power to the High Court to make rules for its own procedure?
a. Section 482
b. Section 523
c. Section 530
d. Section 531
108. Match the following regarding "Crimes against Women":
Column A Column B
(Section) (Subject)
I. Section 64 A. Punishment for Rape
II. Section 69 B. Sexual intercourse by
deceitful means
III. Section 72 C. Disclosure of identity of victim
IV. Section 78 D. Stalking
Options:
a. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
b. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
c. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
d. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
109. "A", a warehouse-keeper, is entrusted with furniture belonging to "B" for safekeeping. "A", needing money to pay off a personal debt, sells the furniture and uses the proceeds. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, "A" has committed:
a. Theft
b. Criminal Misappropriation of Property
c. Criminal Breach of Trust
d. Cheating
110. A threatens B that he will publish a defamatory private video of B’s daughter unless B pays him ₹5 Lakhs. B, out of fear, transfers the money. A has committed:
a. Cheating
b. Robbery
c. Extortion
d. Criminal Intimidation only
111. BNS 2023 preserves the classical maxim Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea. In which landmark case was the necessity of Mens Rea for social-welfare legislation discussed?
a. State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George
b. KM Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
c. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar
d. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
112. Section 103 of BNS prescribes the punishment for Murder. What is the penalty?
a. Death penalty only
b. Life imprisonment only
c. Death or Life Imprisonment, and fine
d. 10 years rigorous imprisonment
113. Under Section 22 of the BNS, a person is NOT guilty of an offence if, at the time of the act, they were unable to understand that their action was wrong due to:
a. Being in a very angry mood
b. Extreme poverty
c. Unsoundness of mind
d. Voluntarily drinking alcohol
114. "Wrongful confinement" is:
a. Section 125
b. Section 127
c. Section 128
d. Section 130
115. "Assault or criminal force in attempt to commit theft of property carried by a person." is:
a. Section 75
b. Section 134
c. Section 135
d. Section 140
116. "Trafficking of person" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 134
b. Section 140
c. Section 142
d. Section 143
117. Which section has the marginal heading "Forgery"?
a. Section 334
b. Section 336
c. Section 338
d. Section 340
118. "A", a surgeon, performs an operation in good faith on "Z" to save his life. "Z" dies under the knife. "A" is:
a. Guilty of Murder
b. Guilty of Negligence
c. Protected under Section 26
d. Liable for Civil Damages
119. Under BNS, the right of private defence of the body commences:
a. Only after the first blow is struck
b. As soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger arises
c. When the police refuse to help
d. Only if the assailant has a weapon
120. "A" and "B" are fighting in a public market, causing a disturbance to the public peace. They have committed:
a. Rioting
b. Unlawful Assembly
c. Affray
d. Public Nuisance
121. "A" threatens to send a gang to burn "Z’s" house unless "Z" signs a promissory note. "Z" signs it. "A" is guilty of:
a. Robbery
b. Extortion
c. Criminal Trespass
d. Arson
122. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (Sexual Harassment) now informs the provisions of which BNS section?
a. Section 74
b. Section 75
c. Section 77
d. Section 78
123. The "Right of Private Defence" (Sections 96–106 IPC) is now contained in which range of BNS sections?
a. Sections 34 to 44
b. Sections 96 to 106
c. Sections 10 to 20
d. Sections 115 to 125
124. The "Rarest of Rare" doctrine (Bachan Singh Case) for punishment of Murder falls under:
a. Section 101
b. Section 103(1)
c. Section 107
d. Section 113
125. "Common Intention," found in which section of BNS 2023?
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 3(5)
c. Section 61
d. Section 2(1)
126. Section 2(6) of BNS defines "Death." It aligns with the "Brain Stem Death" standards set in:
a. Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India
b. Common Cause v. Union of India
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
127. Under Section 48 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which of the following scenarios constitutes the offence of abetment?
a. A person in India instigates a foreigner in London to commit a murder in London.
b. A person in Dubai instigates another person in Mumbai to commit a theft in Mumbai.
c. A person in India aids another person in India to commit a robbery in Delhi.
d. A person in New York instigates a person in Paris to commit a crime in Tokyo.
128. Section 111 of BNS defines "Organized Crime." Which landmark case originally defined "Continuing Unlawful Activity" (the basis for Section 111)?
a. State of Maharashtra v. Jethmal
b. Zameer Ahmed Latifur Rehman v. State of Maharashtra
c. Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab
d. Hitendra Vishnu Thakur v. State of Maharashtra
129. Which case distinguished between "Culpable Homicide" and "Murder" (Sections 100 & 101 of BNS)?
a. Reg v. Govinda
b. Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab
c. State of AP v. R. Punnayya
d. All of the above
130. Which section of BNS has the marginal heading "Defamation"?
a. Section 354
b. Section 355
c. Section 356
d. Section 358
131. "Definitions" under BNS are consolidated in:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
132. "Public Servant" is defined in which Section of BNS:
a. 2(25)
b. 2(26)
c. 2(28)
d. 2(30)
133. "Document" includes electronic records under section:
a. 2(1)
b. 2(8)
c. 2(10)
d. 2(12)
134. "Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body" is:
a. Section 94
b. Section 95
c. Section 96
d. Section 97
135. "Voluntarily causing hurt on provocation" is:
a. Section 121
b. Section 122
c. Section 123
d. Section 124
136. "Act endangering life or personal safety of others" is:
a. Section 125
b. Section 126
c. Section 127
d. Section 128
137. "Kidnapping for ransom, etc." is:
a. Section 138
b. Section 140
c. Section 142
d. Section 144
138. Who was the Permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Ans)
c. Sachchidananda Sinha
d. Jawaharlal Nehru
139. The 'Objective Resolution' was moved by:
a. B.N. Rau
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d. Mahatma Gandhi
140. Which word was NOT originally in the Preamble?
a. Sovereign
b. Democratic
c. Secular
d. Republic
141. 'Lame Duck Session' refers to:
a. First session of the year
b. Last session of existing Lok Sabha (Ans)
c. Emergency session
d. Budget session
142. Who describes the Indian Constitution as 'Quasi-federal'?
a. Granville Austin
b. K.C. Wheare
c. Ivor Jennings
d. Morris Jones
143. The 100th Amendment Act deals with:
a. GST
b. Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh (Ans)
c. EWS Reservation
d. National Commission for OBCs
144. 103rd Amendment Act provides 10% reservation for:
a. OBCs
b. SCs/STs
c. Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) (Ans)
d. Women
145. In which case did the Supreme Court propound the "Doctrine of Basic Structure"?
a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (Ans)
c. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
d. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
146. Administrative Tribunals are under Article:
a. 323A
b. 323B
c. 226
d. 136
147. The 'Doctrine of Pleasure' applies to:
a. Judges
b. Civil Servants (Art 310)
c. Election Commissioners
d. CAG
148. Under Section 42 of UP POLICE ACT 1861, all actions and prosecutions against a person for anything done under this Act must be commenced within:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
149. Section 35 of UP POLICE ACT 1861 specifies that a charge against a police officer above the rank of constable must be enquired into by:
a. The Inspector-General
b. An officer exercising the powers of a Magistrate
c. A Special Committee
d. The High Court
150. What is the maximum fine for a person found guilty of "indecent exposure" or "easing themselves" in public under Section 34 of UP POLICE ACT 1861?
a. ₹20
b.₹50
c. ₹200
d. ₹500
