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IT ACT MCQ Set 6
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1. The proviso to Section 81 protects rights under:
a. BSA and BNS
b. BNSS and CPC
c. Copyright Act and Patents Act
d. Companies Act and Contract Act
2. The Patents Act protected under Section 81 was enacted in:
a. 1957
b. 1970
c. 1960
d. 2000
3. Section 81 ensures supremacy of:
a. BNS
b. BNSS
c. IT Act
d. Constitution
4. Which principle is embodied in Section 81?
a. Lex posterior derogat priori
b. Lex specialis derogat legi generali
c. Res judicata
d. Stare decisis
5. The proviso to Section 81 preserves:
a. Cyber rights
b. Intellectual property rights
c. Fundamental rights
d. Human rights
6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the proviso to Section 81?
a. Copyright Act
b. Patents Act
c. Trade Marks Act
d. IT Act
7. Section 81 safeguards exercise of rights by:
a. Government only
b. Intermediaries only
c. Any person
d. Courts only
8. Section 81A of the IT Act deals with:
a. Electronic evidence
b. Electronic contracts
c. Digital signatures
d. Application of Act to electronic cheque and truncated cheque
9. Modifications under Section 81A are made for the purpose of:
a. Banking Regulation Act
b. Reserve Bank of India Act
c. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
d. Companies Act
10. Modifications under Section 81A are made by:
a. Central Government
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. Supreme Court
d. Parliament
11. Central Government issues notification under Section 81A in consultation with:
a. SEBI
b. State Governments
c. Reserve Bank of India
d. Ministry of Law
12. Notification must be laid before Parliament for a total period of:
a. Fifteen days
b. Thirty days
c. Sixty days
d. Ninety days
13. Meaning of “electronic cheque” under Section 81A is taken from:
a. IT Act
b. RBI Act
c. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
d. Banking Regulation Act
14. Meaning of “truncated cheque” is defined under:
a. Section 4, IT Act
b. Section 6, NI Act
c. Section 13, NI Act
d. Section 81A, IT Act
15. Consultation with RBI under Section 81A is:
a. Optional
b. Discretionary
c. Mandatory
d. Advisory only
16. Section 81A was inserted to facilitate:
a. E-governance
b. Cyber forensics
c. Electronic banking transactions
d. Social media regulation
17. Section 81A came into force through:
a. IT Act, 2000 originally
b. IT Amendment Act, 2008
c. NI Act amendment
d. RBI notification
18. Section 82 of the IT Act relates to:
a. Powers of police
b. Status of Controller
c. Public servants
d. Adjudication
19. Under Section 82, who are deemed to be public servants?
a. Adjudicating Officers only
b. Police officers
c. Controller, Deputy Controller and Assistant Controllers
d. Certifying Authorities
20. Section 82 specifically refers to which section of the BNS?
a. Section 2(18)
b. Section 2(28)
c. Section 2(20)
d. Section 2(22)
21. Deputy Controller under the IT Act is:
a. A private authority
b. A contractual employee
c. Deemed to be a public servant
d. Not covered under BNS
22. Section 82 ensures that offences involving Controller are governed under:
a. IT Act only
b. BNS provisions applicable to public servants
c. BNSS only
d. BSA
23. Which of the following is NOT covered under Section 82?
a. Controller
b. Deputy Controller
c. Assistant Controller
d. Adjudicating Officer
24. Being deemed a public servant makes the Controller liable for offences like:
a. Defamation only
b. Criminal breach of trust
c. Cyber offences only
d. Civil wrongs only
25. Section 82 applies:
a. Prospectively only
b. Retrospectively
c. Automatically by statute
d. Only by notification
26. Which doctrine is reflected in Section 82?
a. Res judicata
b. Legal fiction
c. Estoppel
d. Strict liability
27. Directions under Section 83 can be given to:
a. Any private body
b. Any intermediary
c. Any State Government
d. Any court
28. The purpose of directions under Section 83 is:
a. Adjudication of disputes
b. Carrying into execution of the Act
c. Punishment of offenders
d. Appointment of officers
29. Which authority ensures implementation of IT Act provisions in States under Section 83?
a. Supreme Court
b. State Legislature
c. Central Government
d. Adjudicating Officer
30. Section 83 reflects which constitutional principle?
a. Separation of powers
b. Cooperative federalism
c. Judicial review
d. Natural justice
31. Section 83 empowers the Central Government to issue directions regarding:
a. Interpretation of law
b. Enforcement of provisions
c. Amendment of Act
d. Judicial proceedings
32. Directions under Section 83 are:
a. Optional
b. Advisory
c. Binding
d. Temporary
33. Section 83 does not mention directions to:
a. State Governments
b. Courts
c. Authorities
d. Agencies
34. Section 83 comes under which nature of provision?
a. Penal
b. Enabling
c. Punitive
d. Compensatory
35. Section 84 of the IT Act provides protection for:
a. Negligent acts
b. Acts done in bad faith
c. Acts done in good faith
d. Criminal offences
36. Protection under Section 84 is available against:
a. Civil suit only
b. Prosecution only
c. Other legal proceedings only
d. Suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding
37. Which authority is expressly covered under Section 84?
a. Police officer
b. Controller
c. Advocate
d. Judge
38. Which Government is covered under Section 84?
a. Central Government only
b. State Government only
c. Local Government
d. Central and State Government
39. Protection under Section 84 is available for acts:
a. Already completed
b. Intended to be done
c. Proposed to be challenged
d. Declared unlawful
40. Which person is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 84?
a. Controller
b. Adjudicating officer
c. State Government
d. Intermediary
41. Protection under Section 84 is in the nature of:
a. Penal immunity
b. Absolute immunity
c. Conditional immunity
d. Criminal defence
42. Legal proceedings barred under Section 84 include:
a. Appeal
b. Revision
c. Suit
d. Review
43. Section 84 belongs to which type of provision?
a. Penal
b. Protective
c. Compensatory
d. Punitive
44. Section 84A empowers which authority to prescribe modes of encryption?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Controller
d. Certifying Authority
45. The purpose of prescribing encryption methods under Section 84A is:
a. National security only
b. Regulation of intermediaries
c. Criminal investigation
d. Secure use of electronic medium
46. Encryption under Section 84A is prescribed for promotion of:
a. Cyber policing
b. E-governance and e-commerce
c. Digital evidence
d. Data localisation
47. Section 84A supports which government initiative?
a. Digital India
b. Make in India
c. Smart Cities
d. Startup India
48. Which word best describes the power under Section 84A?
a. Penal
b. Mandatory
c. Regulatory
d. Judicial
49. Punishment under Section 84B applies when:
a. Abetment alone is proved
b. The abetted act is committed
c. The offence is attempted
d. The offence is planned
50. Section 84B applies only if:
a. Punishment is less than three years
b. Express provision exists for abetment
c. No express provision for punishment of abetment exists
d. The offence is bailable
51. Abetment under Section 84B includes:
a. Negligence
b. Accident
c. Instigation
d. Mere knowledge
52. Which of the following is NOT a mode of abetment under Section 84B?
a. Instigation
b. Conspiracy
c. Aid
d. Attempt
53. Section 84B applies to offences under:
a. BNS only
b. BNSS
c. IT Act
d. BSA
54. Section 84B creates:
a. Independent offence of abetment
b. Conditional liability
c. Absolute liability
d. Civil liability
55. Section 84C applies when a person:
a. Plans an offence
b. Attempts to commit an offence
c. Thinks about committing an offence
d. Advises another person
56. Punishment under Section 84C is applicable only when:
a. The offence is completed
b. Express provision for attempt exists
c. No express provision for punishment of attempt exists
d. FIR is registered
57. Section 84C punishes a person who:
a. Attempts to commit an offence
b. Causes an offence to be committed
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
58. Maximum imprisonment under Section 84C may extend to:
a. One-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence
b. One-third of the term
c. Full term of the offence
d. One year
59. The fine under Section 84C shall be:
a. Half of the fine of the offence
b. Double the fine of the offence
c. Such fine as is provided for the offence
d. Fixed fine
60. Attempt under Section 84C becomes punishable when:
a. Preparation begins
b. Intention is formed
c. Complaint is filed
d. Act towards commission is done
61. Section 84C is similar in principle to which BNS provision?
a. Section 63 BNS
b. Section 65 BNS
c. Section 62 BNS
d. Section 64 BNS
62. If the maximum punishment for an offence is 6 years, the maximum imprisonment for attempt under Section 84C is:
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 6 years
63. Section 84C creates which type of liability?
a. Absolute liability
b. Strict liability
c. Penal liability
d. Civil liability
64. Section 85 deals with:
a. Offences by individuals only
b. Offences by companies
c. Offences by intermediaries
d. Offences by government officers
65. Under Section 85, who is liable when a company commits a contravention?
a. Only the company
b. Only the directors
c. Every person in charge of, and responsible to, the company for business conduct, as well as the company
d. Only shareholders
66. A person shall not be liable under Section 85 if:
a. He is a minor
b. He proves that the contravention took place without his knowledge or he exercised all due diligence to prevent it
c. He is a shareholder only
d. He is a government official
67. Who is considered a “director” in relation to a firm under Section 85?
a. Chief executive officer
b. Partner in the firm
c. Manager only
d. Shareholder
68. Section 85(2) makes liable any officer of the company if the contravention occurs with:
a. Consent, connivance, or attributable to neglect
b. Public knowledge
c. Shareholder approval
d. Government order
69. Which officers may be liable under Section 85(2)?
a. Directors, managers, secretaries, or other officers of the company
b. Only shareholders
c. Only external auditors
d. Employees not in charge of business conduct
70. Section 85 imposes liability for:
a. Civil wrongs only
b. Criminal contraventions under IT Act
c. Tax evasion
d. Breach of contract only
71. Exercise of “all due diligence” to prevent contravention under Section 85 is:
a. Mandatory proof to avoid liability
b. Optional guidance
c. Presumption of guilt
d. Not relevant
72. Section 86 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Removal of difficulties
c. Power to adjudicate
d. Appeal to High Court
73. Who has the power to remove difficulties under Section 86?
a. State Government
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. Controller
74. An order under Section 86 can be made if:
a. Difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act
b. Parliament so directs
c. Courts recommend
d. States request
75. After expiry of how much time no order can be made under Section 86?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Ten years
76. The period of two years under Section 86 is calculated from:
a. Date of notification
b. Date of amendment
c. Date of commencement of the Act
d. Date of enforcement of rules
77. Orders made under Section 86 must be laid before:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government
c. Each House of Parliament
d. State Legislature
78. The power under Section 86 is:
a. Legislative
b. Executive
c. Judicial
d. Quasi-judicial
79. Section 86 cannot be used to:
a. Remove difficulty
b. Clarify implementation
c. Amend substantive provisions of the Act
d. Issue supportive orders
80. Section 86 is intended to:
a. Punish offenders
b. Fill gaps during initial implementation
c. Override Parliament
d. Replace rule-making power
81. Section 87 of the IT Act deals with the power of:
a. State Government
b. Controller
c. Central Government
d. Appellate Tribunal
82. Rules under Section 87 are made by way of:
a. Notification
b. Circular
c. Ordinance
d. Resolution
83. Notification under Section 87 must be published in:
a. Official Gazette only
b. Electronic Gazette only
c. Both Official Gazette and Electronic Gazette
d. Parliamentary Bulletin
84. Conditions for reliability of electronic signature are prescribed under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 3A(2)
c. Section 5
d. Section 10
85. Procedure for ascertaining electronic signature relates to:
a. Section 3
b. Section 3A(3)
c. Section 4
d. Section 6
86. Manner and format of electronic records are prescribed under:
a. Section 6(1)
b. Section 7
c. Section 6A
d. Section 6(2)
87. Type and format of electronic signature are governed by:
a. Section 5
b. Section 10
c. Section 15
d. Section 16
88. Period of validity of licence is prescribed under:
a. Section 21(1)
b. Section 21(3)(A)
c. Section 22
d. Section 23
89. Form of application for licence is governed by:
a. Section 21
b. Section 22(2)
c. Section 22(1)
d. Section 23
90. Renewal of licence and fee thereof relate to:
a. Section 22
b. Section 23
c. Section 24
d. Section 25
91. Duties of subscribers are prescribed under:
a. Section 39
b. Section 40
c. Section 40A
d. Section 41
92. Inquiry by adjudicating officer is governed by:
a. Section 45
b. Section 46(1)
c. Section 46(2)
d. Section 47
93. Procedure for interception or decryption relates to:
a. Section 69
b. Section 69A
c. Section 69B
d. Section 70
94. Rules made under Section 87 must be laid before Parliament for:
a. 14 days
b. 21 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
95. Modification or annulment of rules shall not affect:
a. Pending cases
b. Future rules
c. Validity of past actions
d. Gazette publication
96. Section 88 of the IT Act deals with:
a. Cyber offences
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Rule-making power
d. Constitution of Advisory Committee
97. Which committee is constituted under Section 88?
a. Cyber Security Committee
b. Digital India Committee
c. Cyber Regulations Advisory Committee
d. National Cyber Committee
98. Who constitutes the Cyber Regulations Advisory Committee?
a. State Government
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. Controller
99. The Advisory Committee consists of:
a. Chairperson and official & non-official members
b. Only non-official members
c. Only official members
d. Chairperson only
100. The number of members of the Committee is decided by:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. Appellate Tribunal
101. The Cyber Regulations Advisory Committee also advises:
a. Adjudicating Officer
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Police Authorities
d. Controller
102. Which subsection provides advisory role to the Controller?
a. Section 88(1)
b. Section 88(2)
c. Section 88(3)(B)
d. Section 88(4)
103. Allowances under Section 88 are payable to:
a. All members
b. Official members only
c. Chairperson only
d. Non-official members
104. Travelling and other allowances are fixed by:
a. Controller
b. Committee itself
c. Central Government
d. Parliament
105. Official members of the Committee are paid allowances under:
a. Section 88(4)
b. Section 88(3)
c. Section 88(2)
d. Not provided
106. Section 89 of the IT Act relates to:
a. Power of Central Government to make rules
b. Power of Controller to make regulations
c. Constitution of Advisory Committee
d. Appointment of Certifying Authorities
107. Who has the power to make regulations under Section 89?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Controller
d. Appellate Tribunal
108. Regulations under Section 89 are made after consultation with:
a. Supreme Court
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Cyber Regulations Advisory Committee
d. Reserve Bank of India
109. Prior approval for making regulations must be obtained from:
a. Parliament
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. High Court
110. Recognition of foreign Certifying Authority is governed by:
a. Section 18
b. Section 19(1)
c. Section 20
d. Section 21
111. Disclosure of matters by Certifying Authority is governed by:
a. Section 33
b. Section 34(1)
c. Section 35
d. Section 36
112. Regulations must be laid before Parliament for a total period of:
a. 14 days
b. 21 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
113. Parliament may modify or annul the regulation:
a. Before expiry of the next session
b. After expiry of laying period
c. Before publication
d. Anytime
114. Modification or annulment of regulation shall not affect:
a. Future regulations
b. Pending applications
c. Validity of actions already done
d. Powers of Controller
115. Section 89 regulations are a form of:
a. Primary legislation
b. Delegated legislation
c. Judicial legislation
d. Emergency law
116. The authority responsible for enforcing regulations is:
a. Parliament
b. Central Government
c. Controller
d. Appellate Tribunal
117. Section 90 of the IT Act deals with:
a. Power of Central Government to make rules
b. Power of Controller to make regulations
c. Power of Advisory Committee
d. Power of State Government to make rules
118. Who is empowered to make rules under Section 90?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Controller
d. Parliament
119. Section 90(2) is:
a. Restrictive in nature
b. Exhaustive
c. Illustrative
d. Penal
120. Matters specified in Section 6(2) can be prescribed by:
a. Central Government only
b. Controller
c. Parliament
d. State Government
121. Section 90 mainly supplements:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
122. Electronic governance at State level is supported through:
a. Section 88
b. Section 89
c. Section 90
d. Section 91
123. Section 90 is similar in nature to:
a. Section 84
b. Section 88
c. Section 89
d. Section 91
124. Section 90 reflects the principle of:
a. Federal delegation
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Natural justice
d. Strict liability