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IT ACT MCQ Set 4
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1. What is the time limit to file an appeal under Section 57(3)?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days from receipt of the order
c. 60 days
d. 90 days from date of order
2. Which of the following powers does the Appellate Tribunal have under Section 57(4)?
a. Confirm the order
b. Modify the order
c. Set aside the order
d. All of the above
3. Who receives a copy of the order passed by the Appellate Tribunal?
a. Only the appellant
b. Only the respondent
c. Both the parties and the concerned Controller or adjudicating officer
d. Only the Central Government
4. Section 57(6) emphasizes that appeals should be disposed of:
a. Within one year
b. Expeditiously and ideally within six months
c. Only after detailed investigation
d. Within 90 days only
5. Section 57 ensures that appeal proceedings are:
a. Confidential and secret
b. Expeditious and time-bound
c. Reversible at any stage by Central Government
d. Only in writing without hearing
6. Which authority’s orders can be appealed under Section 57?
a. Controller
b. Adjudicating officer
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
7. If an appeal is filed after 50 days due to sufficient cause, what is the discretion of the Appellate Tribunal?
a. Dismiss the appeal automatically
b. Entertain the appeal if satisfied with sufficient cause
c. Send it back to Controller
d. Refer to Central Government
8. Section 58 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of adjudicating officers
b. Procedure and powers of the Appellate Tribunal
c. Penalties for contraventions
d. Certification of electronic signatures
9. Is the Appellate Tribunal bound by the procedure of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
a. No, it is guided by principles of natural justice
b. Yes, fully
c. Yes, but only in matters of evidence
d. Only for interim orders
10. Can the Appellate Tribunal regulate its own procedure?
a. No, strictly bound by CPC
b. Yes, including deciding its sitting locations
c. Only with approval from Central Government
d. Only for procedural matters not involving merits
11. Section 58(2)(B) empowers the Appellate Tribunal to:
a. Impose fines on non-compliant parties
b. Revoke Digital Signature Certificates
c. Require discovery and production of documents or other electronic records
d. Suspend licenses of Certifying Authorities
12. Section 58(2)(e) allows the Appellate Tribunal to:
a. Review its own decisions
b. Impose fines for non-appearance
c. Issue electronic signatures
d. Suspend licenses of Certifying Authorities
13. What does Section 58(2)(f) permit the Appellate Tribunal to do?
a. Dismiss an application for default or decide it ex parte
b. Review criminal judgments
c. Appoint adjudicating officers
d. Modify IT Act provisions
14. Are proceedings before the Appellate Tribunal considered judicial proceedings?
a. No, only administrative
b. Yes, under Sections 229 and 267 of BNS
c. Only for civil cases
d. Only for criminal cases
15. The Appellate Tribunal’s powers under Section 58(2) include:
a. Summoning witnesses
b. Requiring document production
c. Receiving evidence on affidavits
d. All of the above
16. Under Section 59, an appellant can appear before the Appellate Tribunal:
a. Only through a legal practitioner
b. Only in person
c. Either in person or through authorized representation
d. Only through an officer of the Central Government
17. Can an appellant authorize more than one representative under Section 59?
a. No, only one representative is allowed
b. Yes, one or more legal practitioners or officers can be authorized
c. Only two representatives can be authorized
d. Only one legal practitioner and one officer can be authorized
18. Section 59 applies to:
a. Appellants before the Adjudicating Officer
b. Appellants before the Appellate Tribunal
c. Certifying Authorities only
d. Central Government officials only
19. Which of the following is true about representation under Section 59?
a. Only individuals can appear in person, not companies
b. Companies can authorize officers to represent them
c. Only lawyers appointed by the Tribunal can represent parties
d. Appellants cannot appear in person
20. Section 59 guarantees which principle of justice?
a. Right to representation and fair hearing
b. Right to appeal to Supreme Court
c. Right to demand monetary compensation
d. Right to revoke IT Act provisions
21. Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Powers of the Appellate Tribunal
b. Right to legal representation
c. Limitation for filing appeals before the Appellate Tribunal
d. Penalty for contravention of IT Act
22. Which Act applies to appeals made to the Appellate Tribunal under Section 60?
a. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Limitation Act, 1963
c. BNSS,2023
d. Information Technology Act, 2000 only
23. The purpose of applying the Limitation Act under Section 60 is to:
a. Limit the powers of the Controller
b. Provide a time frame within which appeals can be filed
c. Restrict legal representation
d. Impose penalties on non-compliant parties
24. Which type of appeal does Section 60 refer to?
a. Appeal to the Supreme Court
b. Appeal to the High Court
c. Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal under IT Act, 2000
d. Appeal to any administrative authority
25. According to Section 61, injunctions in respect of actions taken under this Act:
a. Can be freely granted by civil courts
b. Can be granted only by High Courts
c. Cannot be granted by any court or authority
d. Are mandatory before any IT action is taken
26. Which of the following is true under Section 61?
a. No court has jurisdiction over matters falling under the powers of adjudicating officers or Appellate Tribunal
b. Appellate Tribunal orders can be challenged in civil courts
c. Civil courts can entertain suits related to penalties under IT Act
d. Civil courts can issue injunctions against Certifying Authorities
27. Which authority is explicitly mentioned in Section 61 as having exclusive jurisdiction?
a. High Court
b. Civil Court
c. Adjudicating Officer and Appellate Tribunal
d. Police authorities
28. Section 61 reinforces the principle of:
a. Separation of powers between civil courts and IT authorities
b. Civil court supremacy in IT matters
c. Criminal prosecution for IT violations
d. Voluntary compliance only
29. Under Section 62, the time limit to file an appeal to the High Court is:
a. 30 days from the date of Appellate Tribunal order
b. 45 days from the date of communication of the order
c. 60 days from the date of communication of the Appellate Tribunal order
d. 90 days from the date of the Appellate Tribunal order
30. Section 62 empowers a person aggrieved to appeal to the High Court on:
a. Only questions of law
b. Only questions of fact
c. Any question of fact or law arising out of Appellate Tribunal’s order
d. Matters outside IT Act jurisdiction
31. The rationale behind Section 62 is to:
a. Provide a final forum of appeal in IT Act matters after the Appellate Tribunal
b. Give powers to civil courts
c. Enable injunctions against Appellate Tribunal orders
d. Limit the powers of the High Court
32. Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Penalty for unauthorized access to computer
b. Compounding of contraventions under the IT Act
c. Appeal to High Court
d. Appointment of adjudicating officers
33. Who can compound a contravention under Section 63?
a. Only the High Court
b. Controller, specially authorised officer, or adjudicating officer
c. Only the Appellate Tribunal
d. Any civil court
34. Compounding under Section 63 can be done:
a. Only before adjudication proceedings
b. Only after adjudication proceedings
c. Either before or after adjudication proceedings
d. Only by civil courts
35. The sum paid for compounding a contravention under Section 63:
a. Can exceed the maximum penalty specified for the contravention
b. Cannot exceed the maximum penalty specified for the contravention
c. Is fixed at ₹10,000
d. Is determined by the High Court
36. If a second contravention occurs after three years from the previous compounding:
a. It is considered a repeated contravention
b. It is considered a first contravention for compounding purposes
c. It cannot be compounded
d. It is automatically referred to the Appellate Tribunal
37. Under Section 64, if a penalty or compensation is not paid, it shall be recovered as:
a. Civil suit
b. Criminal proceedings
c. Arrear of land revenue
d. Court fine
38. What happens to the licence or electronic signature Certificate if the penalty or compensation is not paid under Section 64?
a. It remains valid
b. It is suspended until the penalty is paid
c. It is cancelled permanently
d. No effect on licence or certificate
39. The suspension of licence or electronic signature certificate under Section 64 continues:
a. For a fixed period of 30 days
b. Till the penalty or compensation is paid
c. Until the Appellate Tribunal grants relief
d. For one year
40. Section 64 applies to:
a. Only individuals
b. Only companies
c. Any person liable to pay penalty or compensation under the IT Act
d. Only adjudicating officers
41. Can a licence be reinstated under Section 64?
a. Yes, once the penalty or compensation is paid
b. No, it is permanently cancelled
c. Only after appeal to the High Court
d. Only by the Appellate Tribunal
42. Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Unauthorized access to computer systems
b. Tampering with computer source documents
c. Cyber terrorism
d. Data protection
43. Under Section 65, the act of tampering includes:
a. Concealing computer source code
b. Destroying computer source code
c. Altering computer source code
d. All of the above
44. The punishment under Section 65 for tampering with computer source documents can be:
a. Imprisonment up to one year
b. Imprisonment up to three years
c. Fine up to one lakh rupees
d. Community service
45. The maximum fine under Section 65 can extend up to:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. One lakh rupees
c. Two lakh rupees
d. Five lakh rupees
46. The term “computer source code” under Section 65 includes:
a. Only executable programs
b. Listing of programs, commands, design, layout, and program analysis
c. Hardware specifications
d. Only passwords
47. Which of the following is NOT punishable under Section 65?
a. Destroying source code intentionally
b. Accidentally deleting files not required by law
c. Altering source code required by law
d. Causing another to conceal source code
48. Tampering with computer source code under Section 65 is considered:
a. A civil wrong
b. A criminal offence
c. A regulatory issue
d. A minor administrative error
49. If a person intentionally destroys computer source code required by law, he can be punished with:
a. Only fine
b. Only imprisonment
c. Imprisonment up to three years or fine up to two lakh rupees, or both
d. Community service
50. Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Tampering with computer source documents
b. Computer related offences
c. Electronic signature offences
d. Cyber terrorism
51. Under Section 66, a person is punishable if he commits acts mentioned in:
a. Section 43
b. Section 65
c. Section 55
d. Section 57
52. The acts under Section 66 must be done:
a. Accidentally
b. Carelessly
c. Dishonestly or fraudulently
d. By government officials only
53. The maximum imprisonment under Section 66 can extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
54. Section 66 punishment can include:
a. Only imprisonment
b. Only fine
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. Community service only
55. The term “dishonestly” under Section 66 refers to:
a. As defined in Section 2(7) BNS
b. Any act of negligence
c. Unauthorized access without harm
d. Only financial fraud
56. The term “fraudulently” under Section 66 refers to:
a. As defined in Section 2(9) BNS
b. Only hacking
c. Deleting own files
d. Misusing email
57. Section 66 provides punishment for acts like:
a. Accessing computer without permission
b. Downloading data fraudulently
c. Introducing virus intentionally
d. All of the above
58. The difference between Section 43 and Section 66 is:
a. Section 43 is civil, Section 66 is criminal
b. Section 43 is criminal, Section 66 is civil
c. Section 43 is about offences, Section 66 is about licenses
d. There is no difference
59. The fine under Section 66 can be imposed by:
a. Controller
b. Certifying Authority
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. All of the above
60. Under Section 66B, the offence is committed when a person:
a. Creates a virus
b. Receives or retains any stolen computer resource or communication device dishonestly
c. Deletes data accidentally
d. Accesses own computer
61. Section 66B requires the person to know or have reason to believe that the item is:
a. Faulty
b. Stolen
c. Expensive
d. Outdated
62. The maximum imprisonment under Section 66B can extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
63. The maximum fine under Section 66B is:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. One lakh rupees
c. Two lakh rupees
d. Five lakh rupees
64. Which of the following acts falls under Section 66B?
a. Receiving a stolen laptop knowingly
b. Receiving a gifted laptop honestly
c. Accessing own email
d. Formatting personal computer
65. Section 66B is a:
a. Civil offence
b. Criminal offence
c. Administrative offence
d. Regulatory offence
66. Section 66B can be applied to which of the following?
a. Stolen computer
b. Stolen mobile phone
c. Stolen network router
d. All of the above
67. The “communication device” under Section 66B refers to:
a. Only landline phones
b. Mobile phones, tablets, or devices used for communication
c. Printers only
d. Personal hard drives
68. Maximum imprisonment under Section 66B can be imposed by:
a. Controller
b. Adjudicating Officer
c. Court of competent jurisdiction
d. Certifying Authority
69. Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Tampering with computer source documents
b. Identity theft through electronic means
c. Cyber terrorism
d. Hacking government websites
70. Under Section 66C, the offence is committed when a person:
a. Uses their own password
b. Fraudulently or dishonestly uses another person’s electronic signature, password, or unique identification
c. Accesses own email
d. Downloads free software
71. The maximum imprisonment under Section 66C can extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
72. The maximum fine under Section 66C is:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. One lakh rupees
c. Two lakh rupees
d. Five lakh rupees
73. Which of the following falls under Section 66C?
a. Using someone else’s login credentials to access a bank account
b. Using your own password to log in
c. Accidentally sending an email
d. Updating personal details in your own account
74. Which of the following is an example of a “unique identification feature” under Section 66C?
a. Aadhaar number
b. Email password
c. Digital signature
d. All of the above
75. Section 66C is closely related to which other section of the IT Act?
a. Section 43 – Computer-related offences
b. Section 66B – Receiving stolen computer resources
c. Section 66D – Punishment for cheating by personation
d. Section 65 – Tampering with computer source documents
76. Under Section 66D, the offence is committed when a person:
a. Uses their own password
b. Cheats by personating using any computer resource or communication device
c. Accesses their own account
d. Sends spam emails
77. The maximum imprisonment under Section 66D can extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
78. The maximum fine under Section 66D is:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. One lakh rupees
c. Two lakh rupees
d. Five lakh rupees
79. Section 66D applies to cheating committed using:
a. Physical documents
b. Any computer resource or communication device
c. Only emails
d. Mobile phones only
80. Which of the following is an example of cheating by personation under Section 66D?
a. Logging in using your own credentials
b. Sending an email pretending to be someone else to get money
c. Sending a personal email
d. Using your own digital signature
81. Which of the following is punishable under Section 66D?
a. Logging into your own account
b. Accidental sending of email
c. Sharing your password with a colleague with consent
d. Sending an email pretending to be your boss to get confidential information
82. Section 66D can be linked to which other section?
a. Section 66C – Identity theft
b. Section 43 – Computer related offences
c. Section 65 – Tampering with computer source code
d. Section 70 – Confidentiality of information
83. The punishment under Section 66E may extend to:
a. One year imprisonment or fine up to one lakh rupees
b. Three years imprisonment or fine up to two lakh rupees
c. Five years imprisonment or fine up to five lakh rupees
d. Two years imprisonment or fine up to fifty thousand rupees
84. Section 66E applies when a person:
a. Accidentally shares a photo online
b. Intentionally or knowingly captures, publishes, or transmits the image of a private area without consent
c. Shares public photographs
d. Uses social media legally
85. “Capture” for the purposes of Section 66E means:
a. Videotaping, photographing, filming, or recording by any means
b. Only taking a photo with consent
c. Sending emails
d. Writing a blog post
86. “Publish” under Section 66E refers to:
a. Keeping the image private
b. Reproduction in printed or electronic form and making it available to the public
c. Deleting an image
d. Only showing it to a trusted friend
87. Circumstances “violating privacy” include:
a. When a person has a reasonable expectation of being disrobed in private without being observed
b. Viewing a person in a public park
c. Taking public photographs
d. Video conferencing with consent
88. Maximum fine under Section 66E is:
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 1 lakh
c. Rs. 2 lakh
d. Rs. 5 lakh
89. Which of the following constitutes a violation under Section 66E?
a. Photographing a consenting adult in public
b. Filming the private area of a person without consent
c. Sharing an article online
d. Taking a family photo with permission
90. Cyber terrorism under Section 66F requires intent to threaten:
a. Economic development
b. Public convenience
c. Unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India
d. Digital privacy
91. Denial of access to a computer resource with terrorist intent falls under:
a. Section 43
b. Section 65
c. Section 66F
d. Section 72
92. Introducing a computer contaminant which disrupts essential community services amounts to:
a. Simple offence
b. Cyber terrorism
c. Breach of contract
d. Data misuse
93. Critical information infrastructure referred in Section 66F is specified under:
a. Section 43
b. Section 65
c. Section 69
d. Section 70
94. Restricted information under Section 66F relates to:
a. Corporate secrets only
b. Security of the State or foreign relations
c. Personal data
d. Banking details
95. Cyber terrorism can be committed by:
a. Citizens only
b. Government officials only
c. Any person
d. Foreign nationals only
96. Maximum punishment for cyber terrorism is:
a. Seven years imprisonment
b. Ten years imprisonment
c. Life imprisonment
d. Death penalty
97. Unauthorized access without terrorist intent is punishable under:
a. Section 66F
b. Section 43 or Section 66
c. Section 70
d. Section 72A
98. Section 66F includes acts causing damage to:
a. Reputation only
b. Property and persons
c. Business goodwill
d. Financial markets only
99. Cyber terrorism includes acts related to:
a. Contempt of court
b. Defamation
c. Incitement to an offence
d. All of the above
100. Cyber terrorism under Section 66F is:
a. Bailable
b. Compoundable
c. Cognizable and non-compoundable
d. Civil in nature
101. Section 66F extends punishment to persons who:
a. Attempt cyber terrorism
b. Commit cyber terrorism
c. Conspire to commit cyber terrorism
d. All of the above
102. Section 67 applies to material published or transmitted in:
a. Physical form only
b. Printed form
c. Electronic form
d. Oral communication
103. Who can be punished under Section 67?
a. Only publishers
b. Only transmitters
c. Only website owners
d. Any person publishing, transmitting or causing publication/transmission
104. Material is obscene under Section 67 if it is:
a. Politically sensitive
b. Defamatory
c. Lascivious
d. Confidential
105. Material appealing to which interest is punishable under Section 67?
a. Prurient interest
b. Public interest
c. Moral interest
d. Legal interest
106. Section 67 applies when material tends to corrupt persons likely to:
a. Write it
b. Edit it
c. Read, see or hear it
d. Print it
107. On first conviction under Section 67, maximum imprisonment is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
108. On second or subsequent conviction under Section 67, maximum imprisonment is:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Seven years
d. Five years
109. Maximum fine on second or subsequent conviction under Section 67 is:
a. Five lakh rupees
b. Seven lakh rupees
c. Ten lakh rupees
d. Fifteen lakh rupees
110. Section 67 requires proof of:
a. Actual corruption
b. Likelihood to deprave and corrupt
c. Complaint by victim
d. Financial loss
111. Obscenity under Section 67 is judged by:
a. Personal morality
b. Contemporary community standards
c. Accused’s intention alone
d. Government policy
112. Section 67 does NOT require:
a. Electronic form
b. Obscene nature
c. Intent to deprave
d. Actual harm caused
113. Section 67A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Obscene material
b. Child pornography
c. Sexually explicit acts or conduct
d. Cyber terrorism
114. Who can be punished under Section 67A?
a. Only website owners
b. Only publishers
c. Any person publishing, transmitting or causing publication or transmission
d. Only intermediaries
115. Section 67A specifically covers material containing:
a. Sexually explicit act or conduct
b. Defamatory statements
c. Obscene words
d. Vulgar language
116. On first conviction under Section 67A, maximum fine is:
a. Five lakh rupees
b. Seven lakh rupees
c. Ten lakh rupees
d. Fifteen lakh rupees
117. On second or subsequent conviction under Section 67A, maximum imprisonment is:
a. Five years
b. Six years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years
118. Section 67A differs from Section 67 because it deals with:
a. Obscene material
b. Sexually explicit acts
c. Child sexual content
d. Defamation
119. Section 67A applies even if material is shared privately:
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only on repeat offence
d. Only if money is involved
120. Sending sexually explicit content through email attracts:
a. Section 66B
b. Section 67
c. Section 67A
d. Section 67B
121. Section 67A does NOT cover:
a. Sexually explicit acts
b. Sexually explicit conduct
c. Child pornography
d. Electronic transmission
122. Section 67A punishment applies from:
a. Date of conviction
b. Date of complaint
c. Date of upload
d. Date of investigation
123. Section 67A offence is punishable with imprisonment of either description means:
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment only
c. Simple or rigorous imprisonment
d. Preventive detention
124.Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000 deals with punishment for:
a. Cyber terrorism
b. Publishing obscene material generally
c. Identity theft
d. Publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts
125. Recording one’s own abuse or abuse of others involving children is punishable under:
a. Section 66
b. Section 67
c. Section 67A
d. Section 67B
126. What is the punishment on first conviction under Section 67B?
a. Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine
b. Imprisonment up to 5 years and fine up to ₹10 lakh
c. Imprisonment up to 7 years only
d. Fine only
127. What is the punishment on second or subsequent conviction under Section 67B?
a. Imprisonment up to 5 years
b. Imprisonment up to 10 years
c. Imprisonment up to 7 years and fine up to ₹10 lakh
d. Fine only
128. The fine under Section 67B may extend up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹25 lakh
129. Which sections are excluded by the proviso to Section 67B?
a. Sections 65 and 66
b. Sections 67, 67A and 67B
c. Sections 66A and 66F
d. Sections 72 and 75
130. Material justified in the interest of science, literature, art or learning is:
a. Always punishable
b. Punishable with lesser sentence
c. Exempted from punishment
d. Punishable only with fine
131. Section 67B is related to:
a. Cyber fraud
b. Child sexual abuse material in electronic form
c. Online defamation
d. Data theft
132. Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Punishment for publishing obscene material
b. Preservation and retention of information by intermediaries
c. Cyber terrorism
d. Data theft
133. Who is required to preserve and retain information under Section 67C?
a. Government authorities
b. Police officers
c. Intermediaries
d. Internet users
134. The manner and format of retaining information under Section 67C is prescribed by:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Central Government
135. What is the consequence of contravention of Section 67 C (1)?
a. Imprisonment
b. Warning
c. Penalty
d. Cancellation of license
136. The penalty under Section 67C may extend up to:
a. ₹5 lakh
b. ₹10 lakh
c. ₹25 lakh
d. ₹50 lakh
137. Which authority has the power to specify the duration of data retention?
a. Judiciary
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. CERT-In
138. Intermediary under Section 67C includes:
a. Social media platforms
b. Internet service providers
c. Network service providers
d. All of the above
139. Section 67C ensures availability of information for:
a. Commercial use
b. Entertainment
c. Law enforcement purposes
d. Advertising
140. Retention of information under Section 67C is related to:
a. Content moderation
b. Data preservation
c. Cyber defamation
d. Identity theft
141. Who can issue directions under Section 68?
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. Controller
d. Appellate Tribunal
142. Section 68 allows the Controller to direct:
a. Any citizen of India
b. Certifying Authority or any employee of such Authority
c. Internet users
d. Police officers
143. The directions under Section 68 can require the recipient to:
a. Take measures or cease activities as specified in the order
b. Publish information online
c. Provide services to government
d. Report to the Central Government weekly
144. What is the maximum penalty for failing to comply with a direction under Section 68?
a. ₹5 lakh
b. ₹10 lakh
c. ₹25 lakh
d. ₹50 lakh
145. Section 68(2) specifies liability for:
a. Hacking activities
b. Intentional or knowing failure to comply with the Controller’s directions
c. Data preservation failures
d. Publishing obscene content online
146. Section 68 was inserted to:
a. Empower the Controller to enforce compliance with the IT Act
b. Punish hackers
c. Control social media platforms
d. Regulate data retention
147. The penalty under Section 68 can extend up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹10 lakh
c. ₹25 lakh
d. ₹50 lakh
148. Under Section 69, the government can intercept information if it is necessary in the interest of:
a. Public entertainment
b. Sovereignty, integrity, defence, security, foreign relations, public order
c. Online advertising
d. Commercial competition
149. Who can authorize interception under Section 69?
a. Only the Central Government
b. Central Government, State Government, or their specially authorised officers
c. Police only
d. Judiciary only
150. Section 69 applies to which type of offences?
a. Cognizable offences related to sovereignty, security, defence, foreign relations, or public order
b. Minor traffic offences
c. Civil disputes
d. Tax offences only