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IT ACT MCQ Set 1
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1. What is the main purpose of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. To regulate internet service providers
b. To provide legal recognition for electronic transactions and amend certain laws for electronic commerce
c. To replace the BNS entirely
d. To establish a cyber police force
2. Which of the following laws were amended by the IT Act, 2000?
a. BNS,2023
b. BSA,2023
c. Banker’s Books Evidence Act, 1891
d. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
e. All of the above
3. The IT Act, 2000 extends to—
a. Only the territory of Delhi
b. Only Indian citizens
c. The whole of India
d. Only online transactions
4. Can the IT Act, 2000 apply to offences committed outside India?
a. No, it is strictly domestic
b. Yes, if committed by any person and as provided in the Act
c. Only if committed by an Indian citizen
d. Only with UN approval
5. Does the IT Act, 2000 apply to all documents and transactions without exception?
a. Yes, to all electronic and paper-based documents
b. No, it does not apply to documents or transactions specified in the First Schedule
c. Only applies to digital signatures
d. Only applies to government documents
6. Who can amend the First Schedule under Section 1(4) of the IT Act?
a. The Parliament only
b. The President of India
c. The Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette
d. The Supreme Court of India
7. The IT Act, 2000 was influenced by which international model law?
a. UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce
b. OECD Guidelines on E-Commerce
c. EU Data Protection Directive
d. UN Convention on Cybercrime
8. The IT Act, 2000 facilitates—
a. Online gambling regulation
b. Electronic filing of documents with government agencies
c. Regulation of telecommunication tariffs
d. Only international trade
9. The Act comes into force:
a. 9th October, 2000
b. On 15th August, 2000
c. 17th October, 2000
d. 9th June, 2000
10. The Act provides legal recognition for transactions carried out by—
a. Paper-based documents only
b. Electronic data interchange and other electronic communication
c. Postal mail only
d. Telephonic transactions
11. What does “access” mean under the IT Act, 2000?
a. Physically entering a room with a computer
b. Gaining entry into, instructing, or communicating with the logical, arithmetical, or memory function resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network
c. Only viewing files on a computer
d. Sending an email
12. Who is considered an “addressee”?
a. Any person who reads an email
b. The network provider delivering the electronic record
c. A person intended by the originator to receive the electronic record, excluding any intermediary
d. Any random internet user
13. Who is an “adjudicating officer”?
a. Any government official
b. Officer appointed under sub-section (1) of section 46 to adjudicate contraventions under the IT Act
c. A police officer
d. Any employee of a company
14. What is meant by “affixing electronic signature”?
a. Signing a paper document with ink
b. Typing one’s name in an email
c. Adoption of any methodology or procedure for authenticating an electronic record by means of electronic signature
d. Sending a scanned signature
15. Who is the “appropriate Government” for a matter in the State List (List II)?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Local Municipality
d. Supreme Court
16. Who is the “appropriate Government” for matters not listed in State or Concurrent Lists?
a. Local authorities
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. Judiciary
17. What is an “asymmetric crypto system”?
a. A system using the same key for encryption and decryption
b. A system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and a public key to verify the digital signature
c. A system using passwords for access
d. Any software for encryption
18. Who is a “Certifying Authority”?
a. Any IT company
b. Person granted a licence to issue an electronic signature certificate under section 24
c. A government judge
d. The Central Government
19. What is a “certification practice statement”?
a. A contract between employer and employee A statement issued by a Certifying Authority specifying the practices it employs in issuing electronic signature certificates
b. A contract between employer and employee
c. Any IT policy document
d. Guidelines issued by the Supreme Court
20. What is a “computer network”?
a. Any single computer connected to the internet
b. Interconnection of one or more computers or communication devices using satellite, microwave, terrestrial line, wire, wireless, or other communication media, whether continuously maintained or not
c. A computer in a cyber cafe
d. Only government servers
21. What does “computer resource” include?
a. Only computers
b. Only software
c. Computer, computer system, computer network, data, computer database, or software
d. Only internet connections
22. What is a “computer system”?
a. Any standalone computer
b. Device or collection of devices, including input and output support devices (excluding non-programmable calculators), which contain programs, instructions, input/output data, and perform logic, arithmetic, storage, retrieval, and communication functions
c. Only servers in an office
d. Any device with internet access
23. Who is the “Controller” under the IT Act?
a. Any IT officer
b. Head of a cyber cafe
c. Controller of Certifying Authorities appointed under sub-section (1) of section 17
d. Internet service provider
24. What does “cyber security” mean under the IT Act, 2000?
a. Protecting information from loss due to software bugs
b. Protecting information, equipment, devices, computer, computer resource, communication device, and information stored therein from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction
c. Only antivirus protection
d. Creating backups of all data
25. What is a “digital signature”?
a. Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with the provisions of section 3
b. A scanned signature image
c. A typed name in email
d. Any electronic key
26. What is a “Digital Signature Certificate”?
a. Certificate issued by a bank
b. Digital Signature Certificate issued under sub-section (4) of section 35
c. Any scanned signature certificate
d. A certificate for software usage
27. What does “electronic form” mean?
a. Any information on paper scanned to PDF
b. Only computer files
c. Only emails
d. Any information generated, sent, received, or stored in media like magnetic, optical, computer memory, microfilm, or computer-generated microfiche
28. What is an “electronic signature”?
a. Handwritten signature scanned
b. Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of the electronic technique specified in the Second Schedule, including digital signature
c. Any digital text
d. Computer password
29. What is the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN)?
a. IT service provider
b. An agency established under sub-section (1) of Section 70B
c. Internet service provider
d. Government software vendor
30. Who is an “intermediary”?
a. Person who owns a computer Person who, on behalf of another, receives, stores, or transmits electronic records or provides any related service, including ISPs, telecom providers, web-hosting, search engines, online marketplaces, and cyber cafes
b. Person who owns a computer
c. Only internet service providers
d. Only government servers
31. What is a “key pair” in an asymmetric crypto system?
a. Two unrelated keys
b. Any two random keys
c. Only a password and PIN
d. Any two random keys A private key and its mathematically related public key where the public key can verify a digital signature created by the private key
32. What does “law” include under the IT Act, 2000?
a. Only statutes passed by Parliament
b. Any Act of Parliament or State Legislature, Ordinances, Regulations made by President under Article 240, Bills enacted as President’s Act, and rules, regulations, bye-laws, and orders issued thereunder
c. Only rules and regulations
d. Only judicial decisions
33. Who is an “originator”?
a. Any recipient of an email
b. Any ISP
c. Any computer network
d. Any ISP Person who sends, generates, stores, or transmits any electronic message or causes it to be sent, generated, stored, or transmitted, excluding intermediaries
34. What does “private key” mean?
a. Key to open a computer
b. Key of a key pair used to create a digital signature
c. Any password
d. Public key of a subscriber
35. What does “public key” mean?
a. Key to encrypt files
b. Any computer password
c. Key of a key pair used to verify a digital signature and listed in the Digital Signature Certificate
d. The private key of a subscriber
36. What is a “secure system”?
a. Any computer with antivirus
b. Computer hardware, software, and procedures that are reasonably secure from unauthorized access, provide reliability, perform intended functions, and follow generally accepted security procedures
c. Only government computers
d. Any server connected to internet
37. Security procedure is prescribed by:
a. State Government
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. Certifying Authority
38. Who is a “subscriber”?
a. Any internet user
b. Person in whose name an electronic signature certificate is issued
c. Owner of a website
d. Internet service provider
39. What does “verify” mean in relation to a digital signature?
a. Determine whether the electronic record was affixed with the digital signature using the private key corresponding to the subscriber’s public key, and whether the record is intact or altered
b. Open the file in a computer
c. Check the email ID of sender
d. Only check the certificate expiry date
40. Who may authenticate an electronic record under Section 3 of the IT Act, 2000?
a. Any government officer
b. Any third-party intermediary
c. Only the recipient of the record
d. Any subscriber by affixing his digital signature
41. What is required for authentication of an electronic record according to Section 3(2)?
a. Use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function which envelop and transform the initial electronic record into another electronic record
b. Only encryption
c. Manual signature scanning
d. Sending a PDF copy of the record
42. What is a “hash function” as explained in Section 3?
a. A function to compress files
b. A method to encrypt text files
c. A method to encrypt text files An algorithm mapping or translation of one sequence of bits into another, generally smaller, set known as “hash result” such that the same electronic record yields the same hash result every time
d. A technique for sending emails securely
43. How can anyone verify an electronic record according to Section 3(3)?
a. By contacting the sender
b. By using the public key of the subscriber
c. By checking the PDF format
d. By reading the record on a secure computer
44. What is the relationship between the private key and public key under Section 3(4)?
a. They are the same key
b. They are unrelated keys
c. They are unique to the subscriber and constitute a functioning key pair
d. Only the private key is important
45. What does the asymmetric crypto system ensure in digital signatures?
a. That records can be read by anyone
b. That the electronic record is transformed securely and can be verified using a public key
c. Only compresses data
d. Only changes file format
46. Who may authenticate an electronic record under Section 3A of the IT Act, 2000?
a. A subscriber by such electronic signature or electronic authentication technique which is considered reliable and may be specified in the Second Schedule
b. Any government officer
c. Only the recipient of the record
d. Any intermediary
47. According to Section 3A, how is control over signature creation data or authentication data defined?
a. It can be shared with multiple people
b. It must be under the control of the signatory or authenticator and no other person at the time of signing
c. It may be controlled by any third party
d. It can be stored in public servers
48. Which condition ensures detectability of alteration in an electronic signature under Section 3A?
a. Signature cannot be encrypted
b. Only government can detect changes
c. Any alteration to the electronic signature made after affixing it is detectable
d. Alterations are always allowed
49. Who can prescribe additional conditions for reliability of electronic signature?
a. The Supreme Court
b. Any private company
c. Any subscriber
d. The Central Government
50. What power does the Central Government have under Section 3A(3)?
a. To prescribe the procedure to ascertain whether the electronic signature is that of the person by whom it is purported to have been affixed
b. To issue fines for unreliable electronic signatures
c. To create digital signatures for subscribers
d. To store electronic records
51. Section 3A overrides which section regarding authentication of electronic records?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
52. Which Schedule specifies the electronic signatures or authentication techniques under Section 3A?
a. First Schedule
b. Third Schedule
c. Second Schedule
d. Fourth Schedule
53. Under Section 4, when is an electronic record deemed to satisfy a legal requirement of being “in writing”?
a. Only if printed and signed manually
b. If it is rendered or made available in electronic form and is accessible so as to be usable for a subsequent reference
c. If it is sent by email only
d. If it is stored on a mobile phone
54. Can electronic records replace the requirement of “in writing” under any law according to Section 4?
a. Yes, notwithstanding anything contained in such law
b. No, traditional written documents are always required
c. Only for financial transactions
d. Only if approved by court
55. What are the two essential conditions for legal recognition of electronic records under Section 4?
a. Rendered in electronic form and digitally signed
b. Rendered in electronic form and accessible for subsequent reference
c. Printed and mailed
d. Stored offline and encrypted
56. Can Section 4 be applied to documents stored on a cloud server?
a. Yes, as long as they are accessible for subsequent reference
b. No, only local storage is allowed
c. Only government servers
d. Only encrypted servers
57. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under Section 4 for legal recognition of electronic records?
a. Rendered in electronic form
b. Accessible for subsequent reference
c. Digitally signed
d. Complies with the law requiring writing
58. What does Section 5 of the IT Act, 2000 provide?
a. Legal recognition of electronic signatures in place of handwritten signatures
b. Legal recognition of electronic records
c. Requirement to maintain paper records
d. Restriction on digital signatures
59. When is an electronic signature deemed to satisfy the legal requirement of a signature under Section 5?
a. Only if scanned and printed
b. Only if digitally signed with a private key
c. Only for government documents
d. Only if digitally signed with a private key If it is authenticated by means of electronic signature affixed in the manner prescribed by the Central Government
60. Which of the following is covered under Section 5 for legal recognition?
a. Only documents signed physically
b. Any information or matter that requires authentication or signing under law
c. Only electronic records transmitted by email
d. Only contracts with banks
61. Section 5 provides legal recognition to electronic signatures for which type of information?
a. Any information or matter that law requires to be signed
b. Only government orders
c. Only financial transactions
d. Only contracts over a certain amount
62. According to Section 5, a mark on a document is treated as:
a. Not valid
b. Valid as a signature
c. Only valid if digital
d. Only valid for government documents
63. What does Section 6 of the IT Act, 2000 provide?
a. Legal recognition of electronic signatures in private contracts
b. Regulation of digital payment systems
c. Filing of documents only in physical form
d. Regulation of digital payment systems Use of electronic records and electronic signatures in Government and its agencies
64. Under Section 6, when can electronic form be used for filing with Government offices?
a. Only when permitted by the Supreme Court
b. When a law provides for filing of any form, application, or document with a government office, authority, body, or agency
c. Only for financial transactions
d. Only for information technology departments
65. According to Section 6, electronic form can be used for which of the following government processes?
a. Filing forms and applications
b. Issuance of licenses, permits, sanctions, or approvals
c. Receipt or payment of money
d. All of the above
66. What effect does Section 6 have on other laws regarding filing, issuance, or payment?
a. It does not affect any other law
b. It allows electronic means notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
c. It repeals other laws
d. It only applies to laws made after 2000
67. What can the appropriate Government prescribe under Section 6(2)(A.?
a. The amount of fines for late filing The manner and format in which electronic records shall be filed, created, or issued
b. The amount of fines for late filing
c. The penalties for misuse of digital signatures
d. Only the types of forms that can be digitized
68. Section 6 ensures that electronic filing in government offices is:
a. Optional and not legally recognized
b. Only valid for electronic payment
c. Mandatory for all transactions
d. Legally recognized if prescribed by the appropriate Government
69. Who may authorise service providers under Section 6A(1)?
a. The appropriate Government
b. The Supreme Court of India
c. Any private company
d. The Cyber Appellate Tribunal
70. Which of the following entities can be a service provider under Section 6A?
a. Individual
b. Private agency or company
c. Partnership firm or sole proprietor
d. Any body or agency authorised by the appropriate Government
e. All of the above
71. Under Section 6A (2), what powers can the appropriate Government grant to authorised service providers?
a. Only to maintain computerised facilities
b. To collect, retain, and appropriate service charges for providing services
c. To enact laws for electronic governance
d. To punish non-compliant users
72. Who specifies the scale of service charges that may be collected by service providers?
a. The appropriate Government by notification in the Official Gazette
b. The Supreme Court
c. The Central Information Commission
d. The service providers themselves
73. Which section of the IT Act, 2000 allows the appropriate Government to authorise service providers for electronic delivery of public services?
a. Section 3
b. Section 6A
c. Section 4
d. Section 7
74. Which authority can modify the list of authorised service providers or services under Section 6A?
a. Parliament
b. The Supreme Court
c. The appropriate Government
d. The Central Information Commission
75. When can the retention requirement of a law be satisfied under Section 7(1)?
a. Only if physical documents are preserved
b. Only if stored on a private server
c. Only if certified by a government officer
d. If documents, records, or information are retained in electronic form meeting specified conditions
76. Which of the following is a condition under Section 7(1) for retention of electronic records?
a. Information must remain accessible and usable for subsequent reference
b. Electronic record must be retained in its original format or a format representing the information accurately
c. Details facilitating identification of origin, destination, date, and time of dispatch or receipt must be available
d. All of the above
77. Does Section 7 apply to information automatically generated solely to enable dispatch or receipt of an electronic record?
a. Yes, it always applies
b. No, this information is exempted
c. Only if it is encrypted
d. Only if approved by the appropriate Government
78. For retention under Section 7, the electronic record format must be:
a. The format in which it was originally generated, sent, or received, or a format accurately representing it
b. Any random format chosen by the user
c. Only paper printouts
d. Any format approved by the Supreme Court
79. Section 7 requires that the retained electronic record must have details facilitating identification of:
a. The origin and destination of the record
b. The date and time of dispatch or receipt
c. The content creator’s email address
d. Both A and B
80. Section 7(2) states that the section does not apply to:
a. Laws that expressly provide retention in electronic form
b. Laws that mandate retention in physical form
c. Private documents
d. Intermediary services
81. Section 7A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Retention of electronic records
b. Audit of documents maintained in electronic form
c. Authentication of electronic records
d. Legal recognition of electronic signatures
82. Section 7A applies when:
a. A law provides for audit of physical records only
b. A law provides for audit of documents, records or information
c. Records are stored outside India
d. Digital signatures are used
83. What is the effect of Section 7A on electronic records?
a. Electronic records are exempted from audit
b. Electronic records require a separate audit law
c. Audit provisions applicable to physical records also apply to electronic records
d. Audit applies only if notified by the Central Government
84. Section 7A comes into operation:
a. Only when notified by the Central Government
b. Automatically as part of the Information Technology Act, 2000
c. Only after framing of rules
d. Only for cyber crimes
85. Section 7A strengthens which principle of the IT Act?
a. Technological neutrality
b. Cyber security
c. Data localisation
d. Intermediary liability
86. Section 8 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Authentication of electronic records
b. Publication of rules and notifications in Electronic Gazette
c. Retention of electronic records
d. Audit of electronic records
87. Under Section 8, publication in which Gazette satisfies the legal requirement?
a. Only Official Gazette
b. Only Electronic Gazette
c. Either Official Gazette or Electronic Gazette
d. Website of the Government
88. If a notification is published both in Official Gazette and Electronic Gazette, the date of publication shall be:
a. Date of Electronic Gazette only
b. Date of Official Gazette only
c. Date of Gazette which was first published
d. Date specified in the notification
89. Section 8 primarily promotes:
a. Cyber security
b. E-governance
c. Digital evidence
d. Intermediary liability
90. If a rule is published first in Electronic Gazette and later in Official Gazette, the effective date will be:
a. Date of Official Gazette
b. Date of enforcement
c. Date mentioned in the rule
d. Date of Electronic Gazette
91. Which body publishes the Electronic Gazette for the purpose of Section 8?
a. Any private publisher
b. Government authority
c. Intermediary
d. Certifying Authority
92. Section 8 removes the distinction between:
a. Digital and physical publication for Gazette purposes
b. Online and offline evidence
c. Central and State notifications
d. Temporary and permanent rules
93. Section 9 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 states that Sections 6, 7 and 8:
a. Are mandatory in all cases
b. Confer a legal right to electronic governance
c. Do not confer a right to insist on electronic form
d. Are applicable only to Central Government
94. Under Section 9, a person can insist that documents be accepted in electronic form by:
a. Central Government only
b. State Government only
c. Any Government authority
d. No authority
95. Sections 6, 7 and 8 mainly relate to:
a. Cyber offences
b. Electronic governance and records
c. Intermediary liability
d. Digital signatures only
96. Section 9 restricts the right of a person to:
a. Use electronic records
b. Authenticate electronic records
c. Insist on electronic acceptance by Government
d. Access electronic information
97. Which of the following bodies is covered under Section 9?
a. Only Central Government ministries
b. Only State Government departments
c. Private companies
d. Authorities controlled or funded by Government
98. According to Section 9, electronic form acceptance by Government is:
a. A statutory obligation
b. A fundamental right
c. Discretionary
d. Mandatory under all circumstances
99. Section 9 applies to acceptance, issue, creation, retention and:
a. Preservation of documents
b. Authentication
c. Verification
d. Destruction of records
100. Section 9 ensures that e-governance provisions are:
a. Optional and flexible
b. Penal in nature
c. Retrospective
d. Compulsory
101. Section 9 applies to authorities established:
a. Only by Constitution
b. Only by Parliament
c. By or under any law
d. Only by State Legislature
102. Under Section 10, the Central Government may prescribe the:
a. Validity of electronic contracts
b. Type of electronic signature
c. Penalty for misuse of signature
d. Jurisdiction of courts
103. The manner and format in which electronic signature shall be affixed is prescribed under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 3A
c. Section 10
d. Section 35
104. Section 10 allows the Central Government to prescribe procedures relating to:
a. Electronic governance
b. Authentication of electronic records
c. Identification of electronic signatory
d. Retention of electronic records
105. Control processes and procedures under Section 10 are meant to ensure:
a. Speed and efficiency
b. Integrity, security and confidentiality
c. Accessibility and transparency
d. Cost reduction
106. Section 10 applies to control processes relating to electronic records or:
a. Electronic evidence
b. Electronic contracts
c. Electronic payments
d. Electronic offences
107. Section 10 supports the implementation of which concept?
a. Electronic governance
b. Digital authentication
c. Cyber forensics
d. Online dispute resolution
108. The power under Section 10 is exercised by the Central Government through:
a. Ordinances
b. Administrative instructions
c. Statutory rules
d. Judicial directions
109. The rule-making power under Section 10 is an example of:
a. Judicial power
b. Administrative power
c. Delegated legislation
d. Constitutional power
110. Section 10A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Electronic governance
b. Electronic signatures
c. Cyber offences
d. Validity of electronic contracts
111. Section 10A applies when communication of proposals and acceptances is made through:
a. Oral communication
b. Written documents only
c. Electronic form or electronic records
d. Registered post
112. According to Section 10A, a contract shall not be deemed unenforceable solely because:
a. It is unsigned
b. Electronic means were used
c. It is oral
d. It is unstamped
113. Which stage of contract formation is covered under Section 10A?
a. Proposal only
b. Acceptance only
c. Revocation only
d. Proposal, acceptance and revocation
114. The expression “electronic means” under Section 10A relates to:
a. Physical delivery
b. Telegraphic communication
c. Electronic form or electronic records
d. Verbal communication
115. Section 10A removes which legal obstacle in electronic contracts?
a. Capacity of parties
b. Mode of communication
c. Consideration
d. Free consent
116. Section 10A strengthens the legal recognition of:
a. Electronic governance
b. Electronic evidence
c. Electronic commerce
d. Electronic signatures
117. Section 10A is based on the principle that:
a. Written contracts are mandatory
b. Electronic form is inferior
c. Form of communication should not affect validity
d. Only signed contracts are valid
118. Section 10A was inserted to align contract law with:
a. Criminal law
b. Constitutional law
c. Technological advancements
d. Administrative law
119. Section 11 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Authentication of electronic records
b. Attribution of electronic records
c. Retention of electronic records
d. Secure electronic records
120. An electronic record shall be attributed to the originator if it is sent by:
a. Any intermediary
b. Any third party
c. The originator himself
d. Any government authority
121. Section 11 recognises attribution of an electronic record sent by:
a. Manual delivery
b. Postal service
c. Information system operating automatically
d. Oral communication
122. Section 11 comes into operation when an electronic record is:
a. Accessed
b. Sent
c. Stored
d. Deleted
123. An electronic record sent without authority can be attributed to the originator under Section 11 only if:
a. It is signed
b. It is encrypted
c. Authority existed
d. Court permits
124. Attribution under Section 11 does NOT depend on:
a. Mode of transmission
b. Authority of sender
c. Programming of system
d. Intention of addressee
125. Section 12 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Attribution of electronic records
b. Dispatch of electronic records
c. Acknowledgment of receipt
d. Secure electronic records
126. When the originator has not stipulated the form of acknowledgment, it may be given by:
a. Registered post
b. Court order
c. Any communication by the addressee
d. Only written reply
127. If acknowledgment is not received where it is mandatory, the electronic record is deemed:
a. Delivered
b. Never sent
c. Accepted
d. Dispatched late
128. If no stipulation regarding binding nature exists and acknowledgment is not received:
a. Record becomes void immediately
b. Record is deemed accepted
c. Originator may give notice
d. Addressee is liable
129. If acknowledgment is still not received after notice:
a. Originator must resend
b. Originator may treat it as never sent
c. Record becomes binding
d. Addressee is punished
130. When acknowledgment is not stipulated as binding, failure to receive it allows originator to:
a. Ignore the record
b. Cancel contract immediately
c. Give notice to addressee
d. File complaint
131. Section 13 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Attribution of electronic records
b. Acknowledgment of receipt
c. Time and place of despatch and receipt
d. Secure electronic records
132. Despatch of an electronic record occurs when:
a. It is created by the originator
b. It is signed digitally
c. It is acknowledged by the addressee
d. It enters a computer resource outside the control of the originator
133. If the addressee has designated a computer resource, receipt occurs when:
a. Message is sent
b. Message is signed
c. Electronic record enters the designated computer resource
d. Addressee reads the message
134. If an electronic record is sent to a non-designated computer resource of the addressee:
a. Receipt occurs when retrieved by the addressee
b. Receipt occurs on storage
c. Receipt occurs on sending
d. Receipt never occurs
135. If no computer resource is designated by the addressee, receipt occurs when:
a. Record is dispatched
b. Record is signed
c. Record enters computer resource of the addressee
d. Record is acknowledged
136. Time of receipt under Section 13(2) is determined:
a. By court order
b. By intermediary
c. As per statutory rules
d. As provided in the Act
137. Place of receipt of an electronic record is deemed to be:
a. Location of computer resource
b. Place of business of addressee
c. Place of originator
d. Place of Central Government
138. Section 13(4) clarifies that:
a. Location of server decides jurisdiction
b. Physical delivery is mandatory
c. Sub-section (2) applies despite different computer location
d. Place of residence is irrelevant
139. If a person has more than one place of business, the place of business shall be:
a. Any branch office
b. Registered office
c. Principal place of business
d. Place of residence
140. If the originator has no place of business, place of business means:
a. Usual place of residence
b. Place of server
c. Place of dispatch
d. Place of intermediary
141. For a body corporate, usual place of residence means:
a. Place of main office
b. Place of business
c. Place where it is registered
d. Place of operations
142. Section 13 helps in determining:
a. Punishment
b. Liability
c. Time and place for legal purposes
d. Cyber offences
143. If electronic record is retrieved later from non-designated resource, receipt occurs at:
a. Time of sending
b. Time of retrieval
c. Time of storage
d. Time of acknowledgment
144. Section 14 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Secure electronic signature
b. Secure electronic record
c. Attribution of electronic record
d. Retention of electronic records
145. An electronic record becomes a secure electronic record when:
a. It is created electronically
b. It is sent through a secure network
c. A security procedure is applied
d. It is acknowledged by addressee
146. The security procedure must be applied at:
a. Any time after receipt
b. A specific point of time
c. At the time of dispute
d. At the time of acknowledgment
147. Once a security procedure is applied, the record remains secure:
a. Permanently
b. Until deletion
c. From that point of time to verification
d. Until acknowledgment
148. Verification under Section 14 refers to:
a. Court verification
b. Government verification
c. Verification of electronic record
d. Manual verification
149. The secure status of an electronic record ends:
a. At the time of verification
b. On receipt
c. On dispatch
d. On acknowledgment
150. A secure electronic record enjoys:
a. Automatic enforcement
b. Higher evidentiary value
c. Penal immunity
d. International recognition