CHHATTISGARH MOCK TEST-6
1. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with - Cancellation of stamp?
a. Section 30
b. Section 31
c. Section 29
d. Section 22
2. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with - Stamping documents inadvertently received?
a. Section 24
b. Section 21
c. Section 28
d. Section 23
3. Under section 27 of the Court-fees Act, 1870- —The appropriate Government may, from time to time, make rules for regulating—
a. The manner of electronic transfer of payment of court-fee and its refund thereof
b. The supply of stamps to be used under this act
c. The renewal of damaged or spoiled stamps
d. All of the above
4. ACT NO-- OF 1870 of the Court-fees Act, 1870
a. ACT NO. 2
b. ACT NO. 9
c. ACT NO. 7
d. ACT NO. 8
5. The Court-fees Act, 1870- Any person appointed to sell stamps who disobeys any rule made under section 34, and any person not so appointed who sells or offers for sale any stamp, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may
a. Extend to one months
b. Extend to two months
c. Extend to five months
d. Extend to six months
6. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Subject to such restrictions as the State Government may prescribe, the authority granting any licence, permit or pass under this Act may cancel or
a. If the conditions of the licence, permit or pass provide for such cancellation or suspension at will.
b. If the holder thereof is convicted of any cognizable and non-bailable offence
c. If any duty or fee payable by the holder thereof be not duly paid
d. All of the above
7. Under section 24 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915---------, by notice in writing to the licensee, may require, that any shops in which any intoxicant is sold shall be closed at such times or for such period as he may think necessary for the preservation of the public peace.
a. The excise officer
b. The state government
c. The District Magistrate
d. None of the above
8. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Whoever assaults or obstructs -any excise officer or person exercising powers under this Act shall be punished with
a. Imprisonment which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees or with both.
b. Imprisonment which may extend to one years or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees or with both.
c. Imprisonment which may extend to five years or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees or with both.
d. None of the above
9. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- deals with Lessee's permission to draw tari.
a. Section 23
b. Section 21
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
10. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Prohibition of sale of liquor intoxicating drug to persons under the age of
a. Twelve years
b. Sixteen years
c. Eighteen years.
d. Twenty-one years.
11. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with- Procedure to be followed by Rent Controller(s) and Rent Control Tribunal.
a. Section 14
b. Section 13
c. Section 11
d. Section 10
12. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- All proceedings before the Rent Controller shall ordinarily conclude -----from the date of first appearance of the respondent in response to the summons issued for his appearance in the case or from the date on which the respondent is set ex-parte.
a. Within ten months
b. Within five months
c. Within six months
d. Within one months
13. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with Execution of the Order.
a. Section 14
b. Section 13
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
14. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- Appeal against an order of the Rent Control Tribunal shall lie with the
a. High Court.
b. Supreme Court.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
15. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 - Nothing in this Act shall apply to-
a. Any accommodation belonging to or owned by any department of Government and/or Board and/or Corporation promoted by and/or owned by the Government.
b. Any other building and/or category of building(s) specifically exempted in public interest by the Government through notification.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
16. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with- Inherent power of Revenue Courts.
a. Section 34
b. Section 23
c. Section 31
d. Section 32
17. the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- A Revenue Officer may, from time to time, for reasons to be recorded and on such terms as to costs, adjourn the hearing of a case or proceeding before, Provided that during the proceedings, maximum ----------may be granted to each party
a. Three adjournments
b. Four adjournments
c. Six adjournments
d. Five adjournments
18. Section 47 of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with:
a. Power to revise orders
b. Limitation of appeals
c. Exclusion of certain cases from limitation
d. Stay of execution of order
19. Section 124 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with :
a. Demarcation of villages and survey numbers
b. Erection of boundary marks
c. Construction of boundary marks of villages
d. Preservation of boundary marks
20. What is the location of the building site that is exempted under Section 245 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959?
a. Any agricultural land
b. The abadi
c. An unoccupied government land
d. A forest area
21. Choose the correct option with respect to the readiness and willingness requirement in a suit for specific performance:
a. Readiness and willingness are not essential conditions to prove in a suit for specific performance
b. Readiness refers to the financial capacity whereas willingness refers to the conduct of the plaintiff
c. Readiness refers to the conduct of the plaintiff whereas willingness refers to the financial capacity of the plaintiff
d. Readiness and willingness both mean the same thing and not different things
22. Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1930 provides for:
a. Specific Performance of Contracts connected with Trusts
b. Defence respecting suits for Relief based on Contract
c. Specific Performance of a part of the contract
d. Circumstances in which Specific Performance of a Contract is enforceable
23. Rescission of contracts may be allowed if:
a. Where the contract is voidable at the instance of the plaintiff
b. When the contract is void
c. Where the third party acquire the interest in the contract in good faith
d. All of the above
24. Mandatory injunctions under Section 39 of Specific Relief Act can be granted
a. To prevent the breach complained of
b. To compel performance of the requisite acts
c. Both (1) and (2) above
d. None above
25. Recovery of specific immovable property may be made under section 5 of the Specific Relief Act according to the
a. Law of Code of Civil Procedure
b. Law of Contract Act
c. Law of Transfer of Property Act
d. Law of Sale of Goods Act
26. Doctrine of acceleration is given under which Section of the Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 27
b. Section 28
c. Section 29
d. Section 26
27. The provision regarding 'apportionment by time' is given under which of the following Sections of the T.P. Act?
a. Section 34
b. Section 35
c. Section 37
d. Section 36
28. A gift is statutorily not complete unless it is accepted by the donee such acceptance needs to be
a. In writing by or on behalf of done.
b. Made during donor's lifetime.
c. Made while the donor is still capable of giving.
d. Made during donor's lifetime and while the donor is still capable of giving.
29. The rule entitling a subsequent mortgagee to compel prior mortgagee of two properties to satisfy the latter's mortgagee's debt out of the property not mortgaged to the former is called the rule of
a. Subrogation
b. Contribution
c. Marshalling
d. Tacking
30. Which one of the following may fall under 'Anomalous mortgage'?
a. Only mortgage usufructuary by conditional sale.
b. Only simple usufructuary mortgage.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
31. A lease is terminated by
a. Merger
b. Forfeiture
c. Surrender
d. All of these
32. “A” hires a carriage of “B”. The carriage is unsafe though “B” is not aware of it and “A” is injured the what will be consequence of it?
a. "B" is not responsible to "A" for injury
b. "B" is responsible to "A" for injury
c. Both are contributory negligent
d. No one is responsible for "A's injury.
33. A and B enter into a contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad. The contract becomes :
a. Void
b. Illegal
c. Valid
d. Voidable
34. An agent can be appointed by:
a. A minor of sound mind
b. A major of sound mind
c. Any person of sound mind
d. Any major of sound or unsound mind
35. In a contract consideration could be supplied by :
a. Only the promisee
b. Even the promisor
c. Only by parties to contract
d. Even strangers to contract
36. If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under section 24 of Contract Act shall be
a. Valid to the extent the same are lawful
b. Void as a whole
c. Void to the extent the same are unlawful.
d. Valid as a whole.
37. For a binding contract both the parties to the contract must
a. Agree within each other
b. Stipulate their individual offer and consideration
c. Agree upon the same thing in the same sense
d. Put clear offer and counter offers
38. 'A' owes 'B' Rs. 3,000, 'C pays to 'B' Rs. 2,000 and 'B' accepts it in satisfaction of his claim against 'A'. This payment
a. Is not a discharge of the whole claim.
b. Is a discharge of the entire claim
c. Can be a discharge only when the balance is paid.
d. Will be a discharge only if the amount is paid by 'a'.
39. A agrees to sell a horse of worth Rs. 5,000 for Rs. 1,000 to B. A's consent to the agreement was freely given. The agreement is
a. A contract
b. Not a contract for inadequacy of consideration
c. Not enforceable
d. Against the provision of the contract act
40. ‘A’ in consideration that ‘B’ will employ ‘C’ in collecting the rent of B’s Zamindari, promises ‘B’ to be responsible to the amount of Rs. 5,000 for the due collection and payment by ‘C’ of those rents. This is:
a. No guarantee
b. Simple guarantee
c. Continuing guarantee
d. None of these
41. In which of the following cases, the reference on the question whether use of the expression "date" in Article 54 of the Schedule to the Act is suggestive of a specific date in the calendar, has been answered by the Supreme Court in ?
a. Ramzan v. Hussaini
b. Tarlok Singh v. Vi jay Kumar Sabharwal
c. Ahmadsahab Abdul Mulla v. Bibijan
d. S. Brahmanad v. K.R. Muthugopal
42. “Condonation of delay” is dealt with under
a. Section 3 of the Limitation Act
b. Section 7 of the Limitation Act
c. Section 5 of the Limitation Act
d. Section 6 of the Limitation Act
43. In which of the following cases, sec. 10 of Limitation Act, 1963 applies:
a. Express trusts
b. Implied trusts
c. Trusts created by operation of law
d. All of the above
44. The period of limitation for filing of a suit on the basis of a promissory note from the date of its execution is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six years
45. The period of limitation for a review of the judgement is
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
46. CPC- An attachment made before judgment in a suit which is dismissed for default—
a. Shall not become revived merely by reason of the facts that order for dismissal of the suit for default has been set aside
b. Shall become revived merely on the basis of restoration of suit
c. Shall become revived on the order of Appellate Court
d. Shall become revived on the order of High Court
47. The Court shall reject an application to sue as an indigent person:
a. Where is contains the particulars required in regard to plaint
b. Where it is presented to be court by the applicant in person
c. Where applicant's allegation show a cause of action
d. Where any other person has entered into an agreement with the applicant to finance the litigation
48. In the case of a Public nuisance a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by:
a. Two persons with the leave of the court
b. Two persons having obtained oral consent of the Advocate General
c. Two persons having obtained the written consent of the Advocate general
d. Two person to whom no special damage has been caused by person of such public nuisance
49. Order XXVI, Rule 4A CPC, empowers the court to issue commission in a suit for examination of a person—
a. Resident within the local limit of its jurisdiction
b. Resident beyond the local limits of its jurisdiction
c. Who is about to leave the local limits of its jurisdiction
d. Both (1) and (2)
50. Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed—
a. appeal can be filed against the order
b. no appeal lies
c. with the permission of court, appeal can be filed against the order
d. none of them
51. Section 114 of C.P.C. should be read with—
a. Order 46, Rule 1
b. Order 47, Rule 1
c. Order 47, Rule 3
d. Order 41
52. Where a judgment-debtor dies before the decree has been fully satisfied:
a. The same cannot be executed against the legal representatives
b. The same can be executed against anyone of the legal representatives of the judgment debtor in its entirety
c. The same can be executed against all the legal representatives of the deceased.
d. The same can be executed against any number of the legal representatives as the decree holder wants
53. On failure to file the written statement, under Order VIII, Rule 10 of C.P.C. the Court
a. May pronounce the judgment at once
b. May order for striking off the defence
c. May pass any other order
d. Either (1) or (2) or (3)
54. Under which provision of the CPC is the second appeal mainly dealt with?
a. Section 100
b. Section 101
c. Section 99
d. Section 102
55. In connection with a suit by an indigent person, the suit is deemed to be instituted on the date
a. When the application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.
b. When such application is admitted.
c. When such application is rejected.
d. none of the above
56. The power of the Supreme Court of India to punish for contempt of itself is traceable to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 131
b. Article 215
c. Article 128
d. Article 129
57. Doctrine of Eclipse, pertaining to Fundamental Rights, has originated from which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 10
b. Article 15
c. Article 13
d. Article 12
58. According to Article 254 of the Indian Constitution, in case of a conflict between a law made by the Parliament and a law made by a State Legislature, the law made by Parliament shall prevail, regardless of whether it was enacted before or after the State law. This principle is known as the?
a. "Doctrine of repugnancy"
b. "Doctrine of eclipse"
c. "Doctrine of severability"
d. None of the above
59. The word ‘practice’ mentioned in Article 25 does not include:
a. Propagation
b. Religious worship
c. Rituals
d. Observations
60. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State lapses:
a. After six months of its promulgation
b. After six months of its publication in the official gazette
c. After six weeks from the date of assembly of the house(s) of the state legislature
d. Whenever the Council of States takes a decision
61. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes the term of the office of the President?
a. Article 54
b. Article 56
c. Article 57
d. Article 53
62. A person who is not a member of Parliament can remain Minister only for:
a. One Month
b. Two Months
c. Six Months
d. None of the above
63. Which Article of constitution of India states that Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State?
a. Article 313
b. Article 312
c. Article 310
d. Article 311
64. Who was the first Governor of Chhattisgarh?
a. D.N. Sahay
b. Anusuiya Uikey
c. Anandiben Patel
d. E. S. L. Narasimhan
65. Which of the following best describes the shape of the state of Chhattisgarh?
a. Dolphin-like
b. Horse-like
c. Sea Horse-like (hippocampus)
d. Triangle-like
66. The state animal of Chhattisgarh is the 'van bhainsa'. What is the English name for this animal?
a. Swamp Deer
b. Wild Asian Buffalo
c. Asian Elephant
d. Indian Bison
67. Which provision of BNS deals with “Rioting”?
a. Sec.190
b. Sec.191
c. Sec.192
d. Sec.193
68. What is the punishment whoever commits an affray under BNS, 2023?
a. Two month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
b. Five month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
c. Twelve month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
d. One month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
69. Which provision of BNS deals with “Furnishing false information”?
a. Sec.219
b. Sec.210
c. Sec.211
d. Sec.212
70. Which provision of BNS deals with “Breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person”?
a. Sec.355
b. Sec.357
c. Sec.358
d. Sec.356
71. What is the punishment whoever defames another under BNS, 2023?
a. Two years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.
b. Twelve years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.
c. Six years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.
d. One years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.
72. Under Section 80 of the BNS, 2023, a woman’s death is termed as "dowry death" if the death occurs?
a. Within 6 years of marriage
b. Within 7 years of marriage
c. Within 2 years of marriage
d. Within 1 years of marriage
73. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Causing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicide”?
a. Sec.93
b. Sec.98
c. Sec.95
d. Sec.92
74. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. Here B may be guilty of no offence but What offence A has committed?
a. Culpable homicide
b. Murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. No offence
75. A, knowing that Z is labouring under such a disease that a blow is likely to cause his death, strikes him with the intention of causing bodily injury. Z dies in consequence of the blow. What offence A has committed?
a. A is guilty of Grievous hurt
b. A is guilty of Culpable homicide
c. A is guilty of murder
d. No offence
76. KM Nanavati vs State of Maharashtra (1962) is related to which exception of section 101 of BNS, 2023?
a. Exception 4
b. Exception 1
c. Exception 3
d. Exception 2
77. Under BSA, “evidence” includes:
a. Oral statements only
b. Both oral statements (including electronic) and documents (including electronic/digital)
c. Documentary records only
d. Only written statements
78. When the BSA states a court “may presume” a fact, it means:
a. The court must treat the fact as true
b. The court has discretion to presume it true unless disproved or require proof
c. The fact is conclusively established
d. The court cannot presume anything
79. Under Section 3 of BSA, 2023 can a person present evidence of a fact if they are legally disentitled under civil procedure laws?
a. Yes, because relevance overrides procedural rules
b. Yes, if the fact is crucial to the case.
c. No, evidence of such a fact is not permitted.
d. Only with court permission.
80. What principle is embodied in Section 4 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Facts forming part of the same transaction as the fact in issue are relevant.
b. Facts made under oath are relevant.
c. Prior consistent statements are relevant.
d. Hearsay evidence is always inadmissible.
81. Section 5 of the BSA addresses the relevance of facts that are:
a. Direct confessions
b. Facts forming part of the same transaction
c. Facts which are an occasion, cause, or effect of facts in issue or relevant facts
d. Documentary evidence
82. What does Section 127 of the BSA 2023 primarily protect?
a. Judges and Magistrates from civil suits
b. Judges and Magistrates from being compelled to testify about their judicial conduct or knowledge, unless ordered by a superior Court
c. Judges and Magistrates from criminal prosecution
d. Their right to equal pay
83. What does Section 129 of the BSA, 2023 primarily safeguard?
a. The confidentiality of unpublished official State records
b. The privacy of citizens’ medical records
c. Freedom of the press
d. The electoral rights of individuals
84. Who does Section 131 of BSA, 2023 protect from being compelled to disclose the timing of when they received information about an offence?
a. Only a police officer
b. Only a revenue officer
c. Only a Magistrate
d. Magistrates, police officers, and revenue officers
85. Under Section 134 of BSA, 2023 when can a person be compelled to disclose confidential communications with their legal adviser?
a. Always, when demanded by the court
b. Never, under any circumstances
c. Only if they offer themselves as a witness and the communication is necessary to explain their evidence
d. Only with the legal adviser’s permission
86. What does Section 34 of the BSA, 2023 deal with?
a. Relevance of expert opinions
b. Admissibility of electronic records
c. Burden of proof
d. Relevance of previous judgments that bar a second suit or trial
87. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Trial for more than one offence?
a. Section 240
b. Section 241
c. Section 242
d. Section 243
88. Which Magistrate shall have the power to try offences as summary trial under section 283 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Magistrate of the first class
b. any Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Magistrate of the second class
d. Both a and b
89. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Power to examine accused?
a. Section 352
b. Section 351
c. Section 350
d. Section 354
90. Under Section 367 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, if a Magistrate believes an accused is of unsound mind and incapable of making their defense, what is the first step they must take?
a. Dismiss the case.
b. Immediately order the accused to be sent to a mental asylum.
c. Order the accused's arrest and detention.
d. Inquire into the fact of unsoundness of mind and have the accused medically examined.
91. According to Section 376 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, what is the procedure when a prisoner, previously declared of unsound mind, is later certified as capable of making their defence?
a. The prisoner is immediately released.
b. The prisoner is taken before the Magistrate or Court for further proceedings under section 371.
c. The prisoner is retried for the original offense.
d. The case is dismissed.
92. Which of the following statements regarding the provision of ‘Zero FIR’ under BNSS is correct?
a. It has been abolished to reduce misuse
b. It can only be filed at the police station where the offence occurred
c. It allows victims to file FIRs at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction.
d. It applies only to offences against women.
93. Which authority has been empowered under BNSS, 2023 to authorize preventive detention for up to 90 days in certain cases?
a. Executive Magistrate
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Superintendent of Police
d. District Magistrate
94. Under BNSS, 2023, what is the maximum period within which an investigation must be completed for offences punishable with imprisonment of less than 10 years?
a. 30 days
b. 180 days
c. 90 days
d. 60 days
95. Which of the following provisions has been newly introduced under BNSS, 2023 to promote the use of technology in criminal procedure?
a. Confession to police made admissible
b. Introduction of plea bargaining
c. Recording of search and seizure via audio-video means
d. Arrest without warrant for all cognizable offences
96. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Compounding of offences?
a. Section 359
b. Section 358
c. Section 357
d. Section 356
97. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with the registration of wills?
a. Section 41
b. Section 42
c. Section 40
d. Section 35
98. Under Section 7 of the Registration Act, 1908, where shall the State Government establish an office to be styled as the office of the Registrar?
a. In every district
b. In every sub-district
c. In every city
d. In every state capital
99. Which of the following is NOT a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
a. A Promissory Note for Rs. 500, payable to "X or bearer"
b. A Bill of Exchange for Rs. 1000, payable to "Y or order"
c. A Fixed Deposit Receipt for Rs. 2000, payable on demand
d. A Cheque for Rs. 750, payable to "Z or his order"
100. Dishonor of a cheque due to insufficiency of funds in the account is dealt with under which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
a. Section 138
b. Section 137
c. Section 132
d. Section 131
