CHHATTISGARH MOCK TEST-5
1. The Court-fees Act, 1870- it shall come into force on the
a. First day of june, 1870.
b. First day of may, 1870.
c. First day of april, 1870.
d. First day of july, 1870.
2. The Court-fees Act, 1870- The appropriate Government may from time to time make rules for regulating the sale of stamps to be used under this Act, and All such rules shall be published in
a. The local newspaper
b. The official gazette
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
3. The Court-fees Act, 1870- Where any such document is amended in order merely to correct a mistake and to make it conform to the original intention of the parties
a. It shall be necessary to impose a fresh stamp
b. It shall not be necessary to impose a fresh stamp
c. Only a
d. None of the above
4. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with - Rules for supply, number, renewal and keeping accounts of stamps
a. Section 34
b. Section 24
c. Section 21
d. Section 27
5. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with- Rules as to cost of processes.
a. Section 20
b. Section 21
c. Section 22
d. Section 23
6. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with Licence required for sale of intoxicant.
a. Section 11
b. Section 23
c. Section 12
d. Section 17
7. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Where a right of manufacturing tari has been leased under Section 18, -----may declare that the written permission of the lessee to draw tari shall have the same force and effect as a licence from the Collector for that purpose.
a. The State Government
b. The central Government
c. Excise officer
d. None of the above
8. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with- Payment of Supervision Charges.
a. Section 29
b. Section 21
c. Section 28
d. Section 28A
9. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915-the authority which granted any licence under this Act may withdraw the licence on the expiration of ------notice in writing of its intention so to do.
a. Fifteen days
b. Twenty days
c. Six month
d. Sixty days
10. Under section 14 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- The --------may establish a distillery in which spirit may be manufactured under a licence granted.
a. Excise Commissioner
b. State government
c. Central government
d. None of the above
11. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 Unless agreed otherwise every tenant shall pay the rent by the ------of the month next following the month for which the rent is payable.
a. Fifteenth day
b. Twentieth day
c. Thirtieth day
d. None of the above
12. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- The ----may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make Rules to carry out all or any of the purposes of this Act.
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High court
d. Supreme court
13. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- The ------shall appoint the Chairman of the Rent Control Tribunal.
a. High court
b. State Government
c. Only a
d. None of the above
14. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- The Rent Controller shall, on--------, execute, in the manner prescribed, a final order or any other order passed under this Act
a. Application of any party
B. Suo motu
C. Application of government
D. None of the above
15. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- In case of any clash of interests of the landlord and the tenant, and/or any point of doubt in respect of matters relating to rent, the benefit thereof shall be granted to
A. The landlord.
B. The tenant.
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
16. Section 144 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, provides for the remission or suspension of land revenue in cases of crop failure or natural calamities by the:
a. Collector
b. Board of Revenue
c. State Government or prescribed authority
d. Bhumiswami
17. Under Section 12 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, Revenue Officers in Chhattisgarh are subordinate to:
a. The Union Government
b. The State Government
c. The District Court
d. The High Court
18. What is the marginal note of Section 57 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959?
a. Land revenue assessment
b. State ownership in all lands
c. Liability for payment of land revenue
d. Alluvial lands
19. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with "Assessment by whom to be fixed"?
a. Section 63
b. Section 61
c. Section 62
d. Section 60
20. Section 108 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with:
a. The Annual Patwari papers
b. The record of rights
c. The field map
d. The village administration paper
21. Section 18(a) of Specific Relief Act dealing with non-enforcement except with variation uses the expression:
a. Fraud
b. Mistake of fact
c. Misrepresentation
d. All of the above
22. Which of the following Sections of Specific Relief Act provides circumstances where injunction cannot be granted?
a. Section 39
b. Section 40
c. Section 41
d. Section 42
23. In terms of Section 26 of Specific Relief Act, an instrument
a. Can never be
b.Rectified May be
c. May be rectified only when if it fails to express the real intention of the parties due to fraud.
d. May be rectified only when if it fails to express the real intention of the parties due to fraud or a mutual mistake of the Parties
24. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to
a. Declaratory decrees
b. Cancellation of instruments
c. Perpetual injunctions
d. Rescission of contracts
25. Suits with respect to infrastructure projects under the Specific Relief Act, must be disposed of by the Court within a period of:
a. 12 months from the date from which trial starts
b. 12 months from the date of first order
c. 12 months from the date of filing of the suit
d. 12 months from the date of service of summons to the defendant
26. Within the meaning of Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferee:
a. Is not entitled to value of improvements
b. Is entitled to value of improvements
c. Has conditional entitlement to value of improvements
d. None of these
27. Which one of the following provisions of the Transfer of Property Act provides that a person taking the benefit of instrument must also bear the burden?
a. Section 35
b. Section 36
c. Section 34
d. Section 30
28. In which one of the following cases it was held that partition is not a transfer of property?
a. Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi, AIR 2009 (NOC) 3009
b. Abdul Jabbar v. Venkata Shastri, AIR 1969 SC 1147
c. V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar, AIR 1986 SC 432
d. None of the above
29. Condition restraining alienation under Section 10 of the T.P. Act?
a. Makes the transfer invalid
b. Makes the condition invalid but transfer remains valid
c. Makes the condition as well as transfer both invalid
d. None of the above
30. Under Transfer of Property Act gift of future property is
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Irregular
d. Void
31. Which of the following is the essential element of the principles of election: —
a. Unauthorised transfer of property
b. A transaction
c. Profit-gift
d. All of the above
32. ‘A’ agrees to pay 'B' a sum of money if 'B' gets married to 'C'. 'C marries 'D'. In such a situation, which one of the following statement is correct?
a. The agreement will be effective when 'C' will divorce 'D'
b. The performance of the agreement will be deemed impossible
c. ‘B’ is bound to get married to '.C' under the agreement
d. 'A' is bound to pay 'B' the agreed sum of money
33. Which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with agreements in restraint of legal proceedings?
a. Section 20
b. Section 27
c. Section 28
d. Section 29
34. 'A' promises to paint a picture for 'B' within 10 days at a price of Rs. 1,000. ‘A’ dies before the day. The contract is:
a. Enforceable
b. Non-enforceable
c. Voidable
d. Void
35. 'A' agrees to sell to 'B' a hundred tons of oil. There is nothing whatever to show what kind of oil was intended. The agreement is:
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Enforceable
d. Non-enforceable
36. Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal and secondly, under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal the
a. First set of promise is a contract, but the second is a void agreement.
b. First set of promise is voidable but the second set is a void agreement.
c. Entire set of promises is void.
d. Entire set of promises is valid.
37. According to Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement not enforceable by law is said to be
a. Contract Impossible to Perform
b. Illegal Contract
c. Unlawful Contract
d. Void.
38. Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
a. Can be enforced against the guardian, if any, of the minor
b. Can be enforced against the minor's property or estate, during his minority even
c. Can be enforced against the minor personally on his attaining majority
d. Cannot be enforced at all
39. In which of the following cases a proposal can be revoked when it is made by post?
a. Before the promise posts his letter of acceptance
b. Till the letter of acceptance reaches the promisor
c. Till the promise receives the acknowledgement that he letter of acceptance has been delivered to the promisor
d. Proposal once made cannot be revoked
40. The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise dispose of according to the direction of the person delivering them, is a contract of:
a. Guarantee
b. Bailment
c. Indemnity
d. None of these
41. Which of the following amount to presenting civil proceedings with 'due diligence and in good faith' within the meaning of Section 14 of the Limitation Act?
a. Failure to pay the requisite court fee found deficient
b. Error of judgement in valuing a suit
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
42. The period of limitation for appeal from any decree of order to any court other than a High Court is
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
43. A suit to redeem or recover possession of immovable property mortgaged can be brought by a mortgagor within a period of:
a. 3 years
b. 6 years
c. 12 years
d. 30 years
44. Where the prescribed period of limitation for any application or suit is expiring on a holiday, such application or suit may be made:
a. On the day when the Court re-opens
b. On the day when the Court does not re-opens
c. Within 30 days of re-opening of the court
d. Within 45 days of re-opening of the court
45. As per the definitions provided under the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following options is correct?
a. An application does not include a petition
b. Suit includes an appeal.
c. An application includes a petition
d. Suit includes an application.
46. The court may compel the attendance of any person to whom a summons has been issued under Section 32 C.P.C. and for the purpose may impose a fine upon him not exceeding:
a. Rs. five hundred
b. Rs. one thousand
c. Rs. five thousand
d. Rs. three thousand
47. Inter-pleader suit cannot be instituted
a. For any property which relates to two persons but which is being held by a third person for the time being
b. For determining the relation between a property and the persons claiming it
c. For getting himself absolved from the liability to keep the property which is not being held by him
d. Where a suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly by decided
48. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with
a. Appeal to Supreme Court
b. Appeal by indigent person
c. Appeal against orders
d. Appeal from appellate decrees
49. The court under section 89(1) of CPC can refer the dispute for
a. Arbitration or conciliation
b. Conciliation or mediation
c. Mediation or lok adalat
d. Arbitration or conciliation or lok adalat or mediation
50. Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the:-
a. Appeal to Supreme Court
b. Appeal by indigent person
c. Appeal from Orders
d. Appeal against orders
51. Which of the following deal with enforcement of decree against legal representatives in the Code of Civil Procedure?
a. Section 52
b. Section 51
c. Section 50
d. Section 49
52. Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts, has been provided
a. Under Section 17 of CPC
b. Under Section 18 of CPC
c. Under Section 19 of CPC
d. Under Section 20 of CPC
53. Commission to make local investigation cannot be issued for the purposes of
a. Collecting evidence on a fact.
b. Elucidating any matter in dispute.
c. Ascertaining the market value of the property.
d. Ascertaining the amount of mesne profit.
54. An executing court under CPC, 1908
a. Can modify the terms of the decree
b. Can vary the term of the decree
c. Can modify and vary the terms of the decree
d. Can neither- modify nor vary the terms of the decree
55. Section 152 of the Code of Civil Procedure, empowers the courts to amend the judgements, decrees or orders in respect of
a. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes only
b. Errors arising therein from any accidental slips or omissions only
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
56. Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during Emergency is dealt in:
a. Article 359
b. Article 358
c. Article 350
d. Article 355
57. Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals with:
a. Free Legal Aid
b. Free and Compulsory Education
c. Free Housing to the Poor
d. Free Medical Aid to the Citizen
58. The special provisions to Finance Bills is provided under the Constitution of India in:
a. Article 117
b. Article 118
c. Article 110
d. Article 112
59. Under which provision of the Constitution High Courts have power to punish for contempt to itself?
a. Article 210
b. Article 211
c. Article 212
d. Article 215
60. A resolution for the impeachment of the President must be passed by
a. Majority of the total strength of the house and two-third of the present and voting members
b. Two-third of the present and voting members in the house
c. Two-third of the total membership of the house
d. Majority of the total membership of the house
61. Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers to –
a. Free and compulsory education for children
b. Free and compulsory education to all children of the age six to fourteen years
c. Education to children upto six years of age
d. None of the above
62. Which of the following set is said to be the Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution?
a. Articles 20,21 and 22
b. Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles
c. Articles 14,19 and 21
d. Articles 14,15 and 16
63. The Doctrine of Double Jeopardy is enshrined under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 21
b. Article 20(2)
c. Article 20(1)
d. Article 22(1)
64. Who was the first Acting Chief Justice of the Chhattisgarh High Court?
a. Hon’ble Mr. Justice R.S. Garg
b. Hon’ble Mr. Justice Bhawani Singh
c. Hon’ble Mr. Justice W.A. Shishak
d. Hon’ble Mr. Justice A.S. Naidu
65. Where is the principal seat of the Chhattisgarh High Court located?
a. Raipur
b. Durg
c. Bilaspur
d. Rajnandgaon
66. Who was the first Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh?
a. Bhupesh Baghel
b. Ajit Jogi
c. Raman Singh
d. Motilal Vora
67. Which provision of BNS provides “Enhanced punishment for certain offences after previous conviction”?
a. Sec.12
b. Sec.15
c. Sec.14
d. Sec.13
68. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Procuration of child”?
a. Sec.92
b. Sec.94
c. Sec.95
d. Sec.96
69. What is the punishment under BNS whoever, with intent to cause the miscarriage of a woman with child, does any act which causes the death of such woman?
a. Ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
b. Five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
c. Two years, and shall also be liable to fine.
d. One years, and shall also be liable to fine.
70. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Attempt to commit culpable homicide”?
a. Sec.120
b. Sec.119
c. Sec.110
d. Sec.111
71. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Voluntarily causing hurt”?
a. Sec.114
b.Sec.115
c. Sec.116
d. Sec.117
72. Which Explanation of section 356 of BNS, 2023 says - It may amount to defamation to impute anything to a deceased person, if the imputation would harm the reputation of that person if living, and is intended to be hurtful to the feelings of his family or other near relatives?
a. Explanation 4 of Sec.356
b. Explanation 3 of Sec.356
c. Explanation 2 of Sec.356
d. Explanation 1 of Sec.356
73. Which provision of BNS deals with “Intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace”?
a. Sec.352
b. Sec.357
c. Sec.356
d. Sec.358
74. Whoever commits house-trespass having taken precautions to conceal such house-trespass from some person who has a right to exclude or eject the trespasser from the building, tent or vessel which is the subject of the trespass is said to
a. Commit criminal trespass
b. Commit lurking house-trespass
c. Commit house-breaking
d. None of the above
75. Which provision of BNS deal with “Mischief”?
a. Sec.321
b. Sec.325
c. Sec.324
d. Sec.328
76. Which provision of BNS deal with “Cheating by personation”?
a. Sec.319
b. Sec.318
c. Sec.317
d. Sec.320
77. What fundamental legal principle does Section 104 of the BSA establish?
a. The defendant must always prove innocence
b. The person asserting a fact bears the burden of proving it
c. The court must presume facts in favour of the plaintiff
d. Burden of proof lies on the government in all cases
78. Which of the following scenarios correctly illustrates Section 104?
a. B must prove that A’s allegations are false, even if A provides no proof
b. A claims B is guilty, the court decides without evidence
c. A must prove B committed the crime if A wants B punished
d. The court can presume B's guilt if societal pressure exists
79. What does Section 108 of the BSA, 2023 primarily address?
a. Burden of proof on the accused for general or special exceptions
b. Burden of proof on prosecution
c. Admissibility of digital evidence
d. Estoppel principles
80. What is the time period mentioned in Section 110 BSA?
a. 7 years
b. 10 years
c. 21 years
d. 30 years
81. Section 116 of the BSA, 2023, largely corresponds to which provision of the old Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Section 111
b. Section 112
c. Section 113
d. Section 114
82. Which Act does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replace?
a. Information Technology Act, 2000
b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
83. Can digital evidence be admitted under BSA, 2023?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only with special permission
d. Only in civil cases
84. Which section provides for a hostile witness in BSA, 2023?
a. Section 147
b. Section 125
c. Section 170
d. Section 157
85. What is the Act No. of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. ACT NO. 44 OF 2023
b. ACT NO. 45 OF 2023
c. ACT NO. 47 OF 2023
d. ACT NO. 46 OF 2023
86. Under BSA 2023, the term “Court” includes:
a. Only District Courts
b. Only appellate courts
c. Judges, Magistrates, and arbitrators
d. Judges, Magistrates, and legally authorized persons to take evidence (excluding arbitrators)
87. When any person is sentenced to death, the sentence shall direct that he be?
a. Convicted
b. Acquitted
c. Hanged by the neck till he is dead
d. None of the above
88. Section 397 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with
a. Treatment of victims
b. Witness protection scheme.
c. Victim compensation scheme.
d. Compensation to persons groundlessly arrested
89. Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with When the accused is sentenced to imprisonment, a copy of the judgment shall, immediately after the pronouncement of the judgment, be given to him free of cost?
a. Section 407
b. Section 406
c. Section 404
d. Section 405
90. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the place in which any Criminal Court is held for the purpose of inquiring into or trying any offence shall be deemed to be an open Court?
a. Section 360
b. Section 364
c. Section 366
d. Section 367
91. Who may, with the consent of the Court, at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person?
a. The Public Prosecutor
b. Assistant Public Prosecutor
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
92. Which of the following is a newly introduced provision under the BNSS, 2023 aimed at promoting transparency in criminal procedure?
a. Confession made to a police officer is admissible as evidence.
b. Introduction of plea bargaining for all offences
c. Mandatory audio-video recording of search and seizure operations.
d. All cognizable offences allow arrest without a warrant.
93. The BNSS, 2023 now allows FIRs to be registered through which method?
a. Only by visiting the police station in person
b. Only by calling the police station
c. Electronically (e-FIR)
d. Only by sending a letter
94. Where can the statement of a rape victim be recorded under BNSS, 2023?
a. Only in the presence of a lawyer
b. At her residence or place of her choice by a woman police officer
c. Only by a Judicial Magistrate
d. Only at the police station
95. The BNSS, 2023 mandates that search and seizure procedures be recorded using which means?
a. Only handwritten notes
b. Only by photography
c. Audio-video electronic means
d. Only by the presence of a witness
96. What is the maximum duration for which a person arrested without a warrant can be kept in police custody without being produced before a Magistrate, under BNSS, 2023?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
97. Which section of the BNSS deals with the forensic investigation requirement for crimes punishable with 7 or more years of imprisonment?
a. Section 176
b. Section 185
c. Section 107
d. Section 180
98. An order refusing to register a document is appealable under which section of the Act?
a. Section 74
b. Section 73
c. Section 71
d. Section 72
99. Which section of the Act describes the effect of a registered document against an unregistered one?
a. Section 48
b. Section 49
c. Section 50
d. Section 51
100. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act defines a promissory note?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
