1. Section 41 of the Registration Act, 1908- A will or authority to adopt presented for registration by any other person entitled to present it shall be registered if the registering officer is satisfied
a. That the will or authority was executed by the testator or donor
b. That the testator or donor is dead
c. That the person presenting the will or authority is, entitled to present the same.
d. All of the above
2. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with Power of Registrar to superintend and control Sub-Registrars
a. Section 68
b. Section 69
c. Section 65
d. Section 66
3. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with Re-registration of certain documents
a. Section 24
b. Section 23
c. Section 23A
d. Section 21
4. A will may ----be presented for registration or deposited in manner provided under the Registration Act, 1908
a. Within 30 days
b. Within 2 months
c. Within 4 months
d. At any time
5. Under Which section of the Registration Act, 1908- All fees for the registration of documents under this Act shall be payable on the presentation of such documents.
a. Section 82
b. Section 70
c. Section 80
d. Section 81
6. Under section 2(1) of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 - "beer" includes
a. Ale, stout
b. Porter
c. All other fermented liquors usually made from malt
d. All of the above
7. Under section 8 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Power to prohibit import, export or transport where The State Government may, by notification
a. Prohibit throughout the State or in any specified area thereof, the import or export of any intoxicant
b. Prohibit the transport of any intoxicant
c. Make suitable provisions for the effective control of Mahua
d. All of the above
8. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with Duty on excisable articles.
a. Section 34
b. Section 23
c. Section 21
d. Section 25
9. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Whoever, without lawful authority, has in his possession any quantity of any intoxicant knowing the same to have been unlawfully imported, transported, manufactured, cultivated or collected knowing the prescribed duty not to have been paid thereon, shall be punishable with
a. Only fine of any amount
b. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three months but which may extend to five years
c. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than two months but which may extend to five years
d. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one months but which may extend to five years
10. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with - Payment for grant of leases.
a. Section 13
b. Section 23
c. Section 27
d. Section 21
11. Which chapter of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- deals with Revenue Officers, their Classes and Powers
a. Chapter V
b. Chapter II
c. Chapter IV
d. Chapter III
12. Under which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- Conditions of service of members of Board
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
13. Under which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- control over Revenue Officers.
a. Section 14
b. Section 23
c. Section 13
d. Section 12
14. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- deals with Constitution of Board of Revenue.
a. Section 7
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
15. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 co-operative society is defined under which section
a. Section 2(f)
b. Section 2(g)
c. Section 2(h)
d. Section 2(i)
16. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- Rent Controller shall be subordinate to the
a. Central government
b. State government
c. Rent Control Tribunal.
d. None of the above
17. Under which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011-deals with "Landlord"
a. Section 2(4)
b. Section 2(5)
c. Section 2(6)
d. Section 2(8)
18. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- Any attempt by the tenant to neglect for unsubstantial and/or insufficient reasons the obligations enjoined upon him in terms of Schedule 4 shall constitued an offence under this Act, punishable with fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000 or simple imprisonment for a period
a. Not exceeding one months
b. Not exceeding five months
c. Not exceeding three months
d. Not exceeding two months
19. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with Power to make rules
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 13
d. Section 13A
20. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with - Appeal.
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 13
d. Section 13A
21. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with - Admission in criminal cases of documents for which proper fee has not been paid.
a. Section 21
b. Section 31
c. Section 33
d. Section 34
22. The Court-fees Act, 1870- A table in the languages, showing the fees chargeable for such service and execution, shall be exposed to view in a conspicuous part of each Court.
a. English
b. Vernacular
c. English and Vernacular
d. None of the above
23. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with- Definition of “appropriate Government”
a. Section 3
b. Section 2
c. Section 1
d. Section 1A
24. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with - Procedure in case of difference as to necessity or amount of fee.
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 5
d. Section 4
25. The Court-fees Act, 1870- The -------may from time to time make rules for regulating the sale of stamps to be used under this Act, the persons by whom alone such sale is to be conducted, and the duties and remuneration of such persons.
a. Appropriate Government
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. None of the above
26. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit
a. For partition
b. For partnership
c. For possession and mesne profit
d. All these
27. Inherent powers of the Court can be exercised
a. For the ends of justice or to prevent the abuse of the process of the Court
b. Even when there is a specific provision in the Code of Civil Procedure
c. To help a party
d. To defeat the ends of justice
28. A receiver under cpc:
a. Can be sued generally for acts done in his official capacity by a third party
b. Cannot be sued at all for acts done in his official capacity by a third party
c. Can sue and can be sued for acts done in his official capacity by the third party only with the leave of the court appointing him
d. None of the above
29. Which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of res judicata in writ petitions?
a. Satyadhan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi
b. Daryao v. State of UP
c. LIC v. India Automobiles & Co.
d. None of the above
30. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts, 1999 and 2002 were enacted on the recommendations of
a. Santhanam Committee
b. Malimath Committee
c. Thakkar Committee
d. None of the above
31. In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Code of Civil Procedure Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002?
a. Delhi High Court Bar Association v. UOI
b. Allahabad High Court Bar Association v. UOI
c. Salem Advocate Bar Association v. UOI
d. P&H High Court Bar Association v. ' UOI
32. Where the person summoned cannot, by the exercise of due diligence, be found, the summons may be served
a. By affixing the same on the notice board of the Municipal Council of Gram-Panchayat as the case may be
b. By leaving one of the duplicates of the same for him with some adult male member of his family residing with him, and the person with whom the summons is so left shall, if so required by the summoning officer, sign a receipt therefore on the back of the other duplicate
c. By affixing the same on the conspicuous place of his house
d. By serving the same on the servant of the person summoned and obtain from him the acknowledgement thereof on the back of the duplicate
33. Mark the incorrect statement:
a. The court must be competent to try the suit at the time of filing of the suit. Subsequent change in value does not affect the jurisdiction.
b. It is the plaintiff's valuation in the plaint that determines the jurisdiction of the court and not the amount for which ultimately the decree may be passed by the court.
c. If the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court is Rs. 10,000 and the plaintiff files a suit for accounts and finally the court finds on taking the account that Rs. 15,000 are due, the court is not deprived of its jurisdiction to pass a decree for that amount.
d. If the plaintiff undervalues or overvalues the claim for the purpose of choosing the forum, it is not the duty of the court to return it to be filed in the proper court.
34. Section 114 of C.P.C. should be read with—
a. Order 46, Rule 1
b. Order 47, Rule 1
c. Order 47, Rule 3
d. Order 41
35. Right of redemption arises in the case of:
a. Gifts
b. Mortgage
c. Lease
d. Exchange
36. Which of the following is a doctrine of equity?
a. Doctrine of redemption
b. Doctrine of consolidation
c. Doctrine of lis pendens
d. Doctrine of marshaling
37. Which of the following deals with the doctrine of election?
a. Section 45
b. Section 15
c. Section 53-A
d. Section 35
38. Rule against perpetuity will not be applicable in
a. Perpetual transfer for gift
b. Personal contracts
c. Vested interest
d. All of the above
39. Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act provides for
a. Oral transfer
b. Restriction repugnant to interest created
c. Condition restraining alienation
d. None of the above
40. To be competent to transfer property it is not essential that—
a. Person be major
b. Person be of sound mind
c. Person is competent to contract
d. Transferable property is his own
41. Which of the following is a legal transfer under the provisions of The Transfer of Property Act?
a. A right to sue
b. A chance of an heir-apparent to succeed
c. An easement apart from dominant heritage
d. Second mortgage of the property
42. Which is not the ingredient of Section 53A of TP Act?
a. Agreement for transfer
b. Consideration
c. Transferee has performed his part
d. Movable Property
43. Section 3 of Limitation Act, 1963, does not apply to
a. Suits
b. Appeals
c. Applications
d. Execution proceedings
44. For a suit filed by or on behalf of Central Government or any State Government, the period of limitation is
a. One year
b. Three years
c. Twelve years
d. Thirty years
45. Period of limitation for setting aside an ex- parte decree is
a. 10 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
46. Any appeal or application may be admitted after the prescribed period if the appellant or the applicant satisfied the court that the cause for not preferring the appeal or making application within such period:
a. Probable
b. Reasonable
c. Sufficient
d. Particular
47. Del credere agent is a kind of:
a. Substituted Agent
b. Mercantile Agent
c. Universal Agent
d. Agent by necessity
48. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the following right is not available to an agent:
a. Right to retain
b. Right to sell
c. Right to claim compensation
d. All of the above
49. Under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 in which of the following relation an agreement in restraint of trade is valid:
a. Mutual adjustment
b. Business contingency
c. Sale of goodwill
d. None of these
50. In which of the following circumstance a surety stands discharged?
a. By release or discharge of the principal debtor
b. By variance in the terms of contract
c. (a) and (b) both
d. None of these
51. ‘A’ intending to deceive ‘B’ falsely represents that five hundred tons of indigo is made annually at A’s factory and thereby induce ‘B’ to buy the factory. The contract is:
a. Void
b. Voidable at the Option of ‘A’
c. Voidable at the option of ‘B’
d. Illegal
52. Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1930 provides for:
a. Specific Performance of a part of the contract
b. Defence respecting suits for Relief based on Contract
c. Specific Performance of Contracts connected with Trusts
d. Circumstances in which Specific Performance of a Contract is enforceable
53. No suit under section 6 of the Act for recovery of possession of immovable property, may not be instituted by a person dispossessed without his consent: -
a. Against the government
b. After expiry of three months from the date of dispossession
c. If the suit is instituted by any person claiming through him
d. If the suit is also to establish the title along with recovery of possession
54. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of section 14 of the Act: -
a. Execution of a formal deed of partnership
b. Contract for construction of a building
c. Contract which is determinable in its nature
d. Contract to execute a mortgage against loan
55. ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are coparceners. ‘A’ is in separate possession of joint family property; He sells it to ‘D’ and puts ‘D’ in possession. ‘B’ and ‘C’ sue for declaration of title that the property is joint family property. The Court: -
a. Will issue a declaration that property is joint family property
b. Will direct the plaintiff to implead 'a' as a party before granting decree of declaration
c. May ask the plaintiffs to claim consequential relief of possession
d. May order 'd' to give up the possession
56. Under section 37 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 a temporary injunction can be granted—
a. After settlement of the issues
b. Before the conclusion of plaintiff’s evidence
c. Before the conclusion of defendant's evidence
d. At any stage of the suit
57. Which one of the following Sections of the Negotiable Instruments Act empowers to the Judicial Magistrate of the First Class or Metropolitan Magistrate to try the offence relating to dishonour of cheque for insufficiency etc.?
a. Section 143(1)
b. Section 143(2)
c. Section 143(3)
d. Section 143(4)
58. ‘A’ has knocked down two teeth of ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of:
a. Grievous hurt
b. Simple hurt
c. Culpable homicide
d. Attempt to hurt
59. Which one of the following statements correctly define the term ‘murder’?
a. Act by which the death is caused must have been done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
b. Death is caused with the knowledge that he is likely to cause death by his act
c. Death is caused with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause death of the person to whom the injury is caused
d. Death is caused under grave and sudden provocation
60. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorized by him. The servant retained the money in his hands because it was due to him as wages. He commits:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Theft
c. No offence
d. Criminal misappropriation.
61. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to "A". Here: -
a. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt
b. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
c. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder
d. Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability
62. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done: -
a. With good faith
b. Without criminal intent
c. With inherent risk of causing harm
d. For avoiding other greater harm
63. "X" who stole jewellery from a jeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence of: -
a. Extortion
b. Robbery
c. Theft
d. Dacoity
64. For what 'Govinda', the accused in the famous case of 'R V. Govinda' (1876) 1 Bombay 342, was punished?
a. Culpable homicide
b. Grievous hurt
c. Murder
d. He was acquitted
65. X inflicts one spear thrust in the abdominal region of Y which penetrates deep with the result that three coils of intestines come out when he takes out the spear. Y dies next day. It is proved in evidence that X did not want to kill Y outright but only intended to cause bodily injury. The criminal liability of X under BNS is:
a. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
b. Voluntarily causing of grievous hurt
c. Culpable homicide amounting to murder
d. Attempt to commit murder
66. The case of Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab is considered to be an important decision of the Supreme Court of India in the context of:
a. Abduction and murder
b. Extortion
c. Death penalty
d. Rape
67. In criminal conspiracy, which one of the following is essential?
a. Common motive
b. Common object
c. Common intention
d. Agreement
68. Robbery is an aggravated form of
a. Theft
b. Extortion
c. Either theft or extortion
d. Either theft or extortion or of Both
69. ‘A’ sees ‘B’ drowning, but does not save him. ‘B’ is drowned. ‘A’has committed:
a. The offence of murder
b. The offence of abetment of suicide
c. The offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d. No offence
70. By which of the following ways under BSA 2023, the credit of a witness may be impeached by adverse party?
a. By the evidence of persons who testify that they, from their knowledge of the witness, believe him to be unworthy of credit
b. By proof that the witness has been bribed, or has accepted the offer of bribe.
c. By proof of former statements inconsistent with any part of his evidence which is liable to be contradicted.
d. All of the above
71. Judge has power to put question or order production of document. What is not true?
a. Parties shall not be entitled to make objection to any such question or order
b. Parties shall be entitled to cross- examine the witness upon answer given in reply of such question as a right
c. Without the leave of Court party shall not be entitled to cross-examine
d. Judge shall not be entitled to compel any witness to answer or produce document which is refusable
72. The "Brides in the Bath" case, known as Rex v. Smith is based on which Section of BSA, 2023?
a. Section 16
b. Section 13
c. Section 14
d. Section 11
73. Which of the following statements is admissible into evidence?
a. Only oral.
b. Only documentary
c. Oral or documentary both
d. None of the above
74. The form of Dying Declaration is
a. Immaterial
b. Material
c. Must be in writing only
d. Must be orally spoken only
75. The question is, whether 'A' committed a crime at Lucknow on certain day. The fact that, on that day 'A' was at Delhi, is a relevant fact under which Section of the BSA?
a. Section 7
b. Section 10
c. Section 9
d. Section 12
76. Which of the following method of identification of accused is correct?
a. By showing photograph of the accused to the relative of deceased who was murdered by the accused.
b. Test Identification parde before the person who witnessed the accused committing crime
c. A and B are correct
d. Only B above is correct.
77. A informs B that he had heard from X that Z has committed murder of C few days ago. Evidence of B when examined as a witness in court, would be considered as:
a. Direct evidence
b. Hearsay evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Expert evidence
78. Confessional statement of the accused in custody, when admissible: —
a. If relates to commission of crime by himself
b. If relates to commission of crime only by the co-accused
c. Leading to discovery of a fact
d. Relates to preparation of crime
79. Which court gave the final Judgement in the case of Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor?
a. Madras High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Privy Council
d. Federal Court
80. Which of the following Sections is based on the doctrine of ‘autrefois acquit’ and ‘autrefois convict’?
a. Section 339 BNSS
b. Section 327 BNSS
c. Section 337 BNSS
d. Section 332 BNSS
81. Anticipatory bail may be granted by the (1) Supreme Court (2) High Court (3) Sessions Court (4) Chief Judicial Magistrate
a. And (2)
b. And (3)
c. (1), (2) and (3)
d. (2), (3) and (4)
82. The most essential ingredient of the ‘complaint’ is
a. An allegation of wrongful act
b. An allegation of a breach of right
c. An allegation of some physical injury
d. An allegation of an offence with a view to take action
83. Which court can exercise inherent powers in criminal cases?
a. Magistrate
b. Session's Court
c. High Court
d. Session's Court and High Court both
84. Appeal for enhancement of sentence will lie before the court, when sentence has been awarded by Magistrate of 1st Class: -
a. Before Court of Sessions
b. Before Supreme Court
c. Before High Court
d. Before Special Court
85. For what time order passed under Section 163 of the BNSS, 2023 remains effective?
a. One month
b. Two months
c. 15 days
d. Six months
86. The maximum amount of fine specified in cases of petty offence under Section 229 of the BNSS is: —
a. Rs. 100
b. Rs. 500
c. Rs. 5,000
d. Rs. 2,000
87. In which case it was held that second wife of a person, whose husband's first wife is alive cannot claim maintenance from her husband under S. 144 BNSS?
a. State of Haryana v. Santra
b. Mahera Biswas v. Sewegata Biswas
c. Khemchand Om Prakash v. State of Gujarat
d. None of the above
88. After completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to the Magistrate, The Magistrate
a. Is bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and accept the same if the police recommended that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding further
b. Is not bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and may order further investigation
c. May issue a process against the accused person(s)
d. Both (b) & (c)
89. Where two courts subordinate to the same High Court have taken cognizance of the same offence and a question arises as to which of them shall try that offence
a. The question shall be decided by any one of these Courts
b. The question cannot be decided by any Court
c. The question shall be decided by the concerned High Court
d. The question can be left to the parties
90. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 179 of the BNSS,2023 by: -
a. Any police officer
b. The station police officer
c. The police officer investigating the case
d. None of the above
91. Which of the following statements is true: -
a. State Government shall establish a Court of Session with the consultation of High Court
b. State Government shall establish a Court of Session
c. The High Court shall establish a Court of Session
d. The Supreme Court shall establish a Court of Session
92. Under BNSS,2023 a charge shall be written in the: -
a. Language which accused understands
b. Language which witnesses understands
c. Language of the Court
d. Hindi language
93. Under Indian Constitution, in performance of his duties Attorney General for India, shall have right of audience
a. Only Supreme Court
b. Only in all the High Courts
c. In all Courts of India
d. Only in Supreme Court and Tribunals established by Central Government
94. The Supreme Court of India has evolved curative petition under
a. Article 136 of the Constitution
b. Article 143 of the Constitution
c. Article 32 of the Constitution
d. Article 142 of the Constitution
95. Disputes between States in India come to the Supreme Court under-
a. Appellate jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction
c. Advisory jurisdiction
d. None of the above
96. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State lapses:
a. After six months of its promulgation
b. After six months of its publication in the official gazette
c. After six weeks from the date of assembly of the house(s) of the state legislature
d. Whenever the council of states takes a decision
97. Under which article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state?
a. Art. 3
b. Art. 4
c. Art. 5
d. Art. 368
98. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our "Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations. "Who was the Judge?
a. Justice Mathew
b. Justice Krishna Iyer
c. Justice Subba Rao
d. Justice H.R. Khanna
99. State which of the following statements is correct:
a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution
b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure
c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution
d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution
100. Under which of the following Articles the Governor of a State has power to issue an ordinance?
a. Article 164
b. Article 213
c. Article 131
d. None of these
