1. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with Chief Revenue Authority.
a. Section 2(5)
b. Section 2(4)
c. Section 2(3)
d. Section 2(1)
2. Section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915-excisable article" means-
a. Opium.
b. Any intoxicating drug.
c. Any alcoholic liquor for human consumption.
d. All of the above
3. Section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, Power to declare What shall be deemed to be “country liquor” and “foreign liquor”, respectively.
a. Section 7
b. Section 5
c. Section 4
d. Section 8
4. Which Section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- deals with Establishment of flying squads.
a. Section 9
b. Section 7A
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
5. Section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- which section deals with common drinking-house.
a. Section 2(4)
b. Section 2(5)
c. Section 2(6)
d. Section 2(8)
6. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with “mango grove”.
a. Section 2(b)
b. Section 2(p)
c. Section 2(o)
d. Section 2(j)
7.The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 - timber trees" means trees of the following species, namely:
a. Tectona grandis (sagwan)
b. Pterocarpus Marsumpium (bija)
c. Dalberia latifolia (shisham)
d. All of the above
8. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue code, 1959- “improvement” does not includes-
a. Temporary wells and such water channels
b. Embankments
c. Any work which substantially diminishes the value of any land
d. All of the above
9. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- The State Government may appoint for each district as many persons as it thinks fit to be-
a. Assistant Collectors of the first and Second grades
b. Joint Collectors
c. Deputy Collectors
d. All of the above
10. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with Sub-Divisional Officers.
a. Section 21
b. Section 24
c. Section 22
d. Section 23
11. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- deals with Establishment of Rent Controller.
a. Section 10
b. Section 9
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
12. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- Powers and functions of Rent Controller.
a. Reconciling dispute(s) between landlord and tenant.
b. Securing the rights of the landlord and tenants as available to them under this Act.
c. Enforcing the obligation enjoyed upon landlord and tenants under this Act.
d. All of the above
13. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- deals with Habitual Defaulter
a. Section 2(8)
b. Section 2(5)
c. Section 2(4)
d. Section 2(6)
14. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- deals with Constitution of the Rent Control Tribunal.
a. Section 2
b. Section 8
c. Section 7
d. Section 6
15. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- deals with Rights and Obligations of Landlords and Tenants.
a. Section 15
b. Section 13
c. Section 12
d. Section 14
16. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Levy of fees in High Courts on their original sides.
a. Section 9
b. Section 7
c. Section 3
d. Section 2
17. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Fee on memorandum of appeal against order relating to compensation. —
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 8
18. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Procedure where net profits or market-value wrongly estimated.
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 10
d. Section 14
19. Section 2(1) of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with
a. ‘Suit’ includes an appeal
b. Appeal’ includes a cross objection
c. Both a and b are correct
d. None of the above
20. Which Section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Power to remit or reduce Court-fees.
a. Section 35
b. Section 36
c. Section 21
d. Section 20
21. If a document, which ought to be produced in the Court along with the pleadings, is not produced, under Order VII, Rule 14(3) of C.P.C. at the hearing of the suit
a. The same shall not be received in evidence on behalf of the plaintiff
b. The same shall not be received in evidence on behalf of the defendant
c. The same shall not be received in evidence on behalf of third party
d. None of the above
22. Inherent powers under Section 151 of C.P.C. are
a. Discretion in nature
b. In addition to the power conferred under the other provision of the Code
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
23. Legal representative under Section 2(11) of C.P.C. means a person who is a
a. Relative of parties to the suit
b. Co-sharer of the benefits assuming to the parties to the suit
c. Who in law represents the estate of the deceased
d. None of the above
24. Lodging of caveat under Section 148-A of C.P.C.
a. Entitles the caveator to receive notice of the application
b. Makes the caveat or a party to the suit
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
25. A defendant under Order V, Rule 1 (l)of C.P.C is required to appear, answer the claim and to file the written statement
a. Within 90 days from the date of service of summons
b. Within 60 days from the date of service of summons
c. Within 30 days from the date of service of summons
d. Within 15 days from the date of service of summons
26. Principle of res-subjudice is contained in
a. Section 8 of CPC
b. Section 9 of CPC
c. Section 10 of CPC
d. Section 11 of CPC
27. Doctrine of res-judicata as contained in Section 11 of CPC is based on the maxim
a. Interest republicae ut sit finis litium
b. Nemo debet vis vexari pro uno et eadem causa
c. Neither (A) nor (B)
d. Both (A) and (B)
28. Precept under sec 46 of CPC is
a. A transfer of the decree.
b. An order to another competent court to attach any property of the judgment debtor.
c. An execution of decree.
d. all the above
29. Which Section of the Specific Relief Act deals with - Discretion of court as to declaration of status or right.
a. Section 34
b. Section 35
c. Section 36
d. Section 37
30. What is true of temporary injunction?
a. Is permanent between the parties
b. Concludes the right
c. Continues until a certain specific period
d. Can't be granted ex parte
31. Recovery of specific immovable property may be made under section 5 of the Specific Relief Act according to the
a. Law of Code of Civil Procedure
b. Law of Contract Act
c. Law of Transfer of Property Act
d. Law of Sale of Goods Act
32. The general principle on which the perpetual injunctions could be granted is contained in
a. Section 39
b. Section 36
c. Section 38
d. Section 40
33. Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions:
a. Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
b. Such as are of continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court
c. Regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure
d. Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit
34. For a review of judgement by a court other than the supreme court, from the date of the decree or order, the limitation:
a. 30 days
b. Three years
c. Six years
d. Twelve years
35. In computing the period of limitation for an appeal, a review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree or the order appealed against shall be excluded under:
a. Section 11(1)
b.Sec tion 12(2)
c. Section 13(3)
d. Section 14(4)
36. Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit:
a. Concealments
b. Frauds
c. Mistakes
d. All of the above
37. Which of the following amount to presenting civil proceedings with 'due diligence and in good faith' within the meaning of Section 14 of the Limitation Act?
a. Failure to pay the requisite court fee found deficient
b. Error of judgement in valuing a suit
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
38. ‘A' transfers his property to 'B' for life and thereafter to his unborn son for life. In this case transfer of property to the unborn son is
a. Valid
b. Illegal
c. Voidable
d. Void
39. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a Mortgage as defined u/sec 58 of T.P.A.?
a. There must be transfer of interest.
b. There must be promise to transfer of interest.
c. The interest must be of some specific immovable property.
d. The purpose of transfer must be to ensure payment of a debt.
40. ‘A' transfers his property to 'B' by mortgage with the condition that for ten years 'B' will take the mortgage money from the income of the property and thereafter 'A' shall redeem the property by making the payment of remaining amount. This mortgage is
a. Mortgage by conditional sale
b. Anomalous mortgage
c. Simple mortgage
d. English mortgage
41. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for application of rule of "lis pendens” under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882: -
a. Pendency of a suit or proceeding
b. Pendency in a competent court
c. Suit must be collusive
d. Alienation must affect the rights of other party
42. Find out the incorrect answer from the following: -
a. Gift is the transfer of ownership without consideration
b. Gift should be accepted during the lifetime of the owner
c. If donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void
d. Gift may be made only of movable property
43. A lessee is not entitled to the right of marshalling under which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act?
a. Section 55
b. Section 56
c. Section 57
d. Section 81
44. Which one of the following Sections provides statutory duties of a mortgagee in possession under the Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 78
b. Section 76
c. Section 77
d. Section 79
45. The principle of Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act is based on which one of the following cases?
a. Girijesh Vs. Dattadin
b. Chamaru Sahu Vs. Sona Kuer
c. Theluson Vs. Woodford
d. None of these
46. Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, the finder may sell it when lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing found amount to
a. One-forth of its value
b. Half of its value
c. One-third of its value
d. Two-third of its value
47. “A” hires a carriage of “B”. The carriage is unsafe though “B” is not aware of it and “A” is injured then what will be consequence of it?
a. "B" is not responsible to "A" for injury
b. "B" is responsible to "A" for injury
c. Both are contributory negligent
d. No one is responsible for "A's injury
48. Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor—
a. Is voidable
b. Is illegal
c. Is void
d. Is valid
49. If a promisee accepts the anticipatory breach by promisor then
a. The promisee need not perform his part of contract but not entitled to claim damages from promisor
b. The promisee need not perform his part of contract but entitled to claim damages from promisor only after the date of performance
c. The promisee need not perform his part of contract but entitled to claim damages from promissory without waiting till the date of performance
d. The promisee must perform his part of contract before claiming damages
50. What are the defences available against proceedings under 138 of section Negotiable Instruments Act?
a. Absence of a legally enforceable debt or liability
b. Absence of legal notice of 15 days
c. Lack of jurisdiction
d. All of the above
51. How much time is given for complaint for 'dishonour' of cheque?
a. 45 days of intimation of dishonor
b. 90 days of intimation of dishonour
c. 30 days of intimation of dishonor
d. 15 days of intimation of dishonor
52. What's the maximum punishment under the Negotiable Instruments Act
a. 2 Years Only
b. 6 Years and or fine which is double amount the dishonour
c. Any punishment below 7 years
d. None of the above
53. Under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the expert opinion is relevant?
a. Section 44
b. Section 39
c. Section 46
d. Section 41
54. Under Section 49 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 previous bad character is irrelevant, but becomes relevant if:
a. The bad character of a person is itself a fact
b. The bad character of a person is itself a fact-in-issue
c. The bad character is evidence to a previous conviction
d. Both (b) and (c)
55. Which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam provides that judge will decide as to admissibility of evidence?
a. Section 5
b. Section 23
c. Section 141
d. Section 148
56. Which section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam defines "Leading Question"?
a. Section 140
b. Section 146
c. Section 142
d. Section 143
57. Which of the following chapters of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam deals with 'witnesses'?
a. Chapter VI
b. Chapter VII
c. Chapter VIII
d. Chapter IX
58. Which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam makes the provision that there shall be no new trial on the ground of improper admission or rejection of evidence?
a. Section 166
b. Section 165
c. Section 169
d. Section 161
59. 'A' is tried for riot and is proved to have marched at the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are:
a. Irrelevant
b. Relevant but not explanatory of the nature of the transaction
c. Relevant and explanatory of the nature of the transaction
d. Hearsay evidence
60. Which of the following statements is not relevant in a case where 'A' is tried for murder: -
a. That 'A' quarrelled with dead person three days before the incident.
b. That 'A' has purchased a knife one hour before the incident.
c. That 'A' is a man of good character.
d. That 'A' is a man of bad character
61. Identification of the accused person is related to which of the following Sections of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 11
d. Section 27
62. Estoppel under BSA,2023?
a. Is a cause of action in itself
b. Creates a cause of action
c. Both (1) & (2) are correct
d. Neither (1) nor (2) is correct
63. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to common design is relevant fact under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?
a. Section 11
b. Section 13
c. Section 8
d. Section 12
64. Committal proceedings under Section 232 of BNSS are in the nature of
a. Aid in investigation
b. Inquiry
c. Trial
d. Either inquiry or trial
65. Plea Bargaining under chapter XXIII of BNSS, is contained in:
a. Sections 265 to 285
b. Sections 289 to 300
c. Sections 267 to 289
d. Sections 225 to 247
66. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance within
a. 6 months of attachment
b. 2 years of attachment
c. 3 years of attachment
d. 1 year of attachment
67. What is the time limit prescribed within which claims and objections to attachment to be made under BNSS?
a. 6 months
b. 60 days
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
68. The chapter of Plea Bargaining does not apply:
a. When the offence is punishable with Death
b. When the offence is punishable with Imprisonment for life.
c. Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
d. All the above
69. Under which of the following sections of the BNSS the magistrate shall dismiss the complaint?
a. Section 224
b. Section 225
c. Section 226
d. None of the above
70. The provision relating to health and safety of arrested person have been prescribed under which of the following Sections of the BNSS?
a. Section 50
b. Section 54
c. Section 56
d. Section 60
71. Which one of the following Sections of BNSS prohibits the male police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?
a. Proviso to Section 41(1)
b. Proviso to Section 42(2)
c. Proviso to Section 43(1)
d. None of the above
72. Power to search a place is provided under
a. Section 42
b. Section 43
c. Section 44
d. Section 45
73. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under the BNSS?
a. The appropriate Government
b. The President of India
c. The Governor of the State
d. The Central Government
74. Under the BNS an act done in exercise of the right to private defence is
a. Not an offence and hence not punishable
b. Punishable with life imprisonment
c. Punishable with the upto ten thousand rupees
d. Punishable with fine upto five thousand rupees.
75. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term unlawful assembly?
a. An assembly of five or more persons
b. An assembly of five more persons armed with lethal weapons
c. An assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime
d. An assembly of two or more persons having some common object of doing a criminal act '
76. Under BNS, subject to the restriction laid down under its Section 37 in cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends the voluntary causing of
a. Grievous hurt
b. Death
c. Any harm other than death
d. Any harm other than death or grievous hurt
77. Joining unlawful assembly armed with deadly weapons has been dealt with under of the BNS.
a. Section 141
b. Section 185
c. Section 189(2)
d. Section 189(4)
78. ‘Stolen property’ is
a. Property the possession whereof has been transferred by theft, extortion, or robbery.
b. Property criminally misappropriated.
c. Property in respect of which criminal breach of trust has been committed.
d. All of the above.
79. For rioting, which of the following is correct:
a. Mere show of force is sufficient
b. Mere possession of deadly weapon is sufficient
c. Actual force or violence must be used
d. All of the above
80. Imputed Criminal Liability Principle is laid down in which of the following provision/provisions:
a. Section 34 of the BNS
b. Sections 3(5) and 190 of the BNS
c. Section 47 of the BNS
d. Section 120 of the BNS
81. The abetment of offence is completed as soon:
a. The offence abetted has been committed
b. The abettor has incited another person to commit an offence
c. The person abetted has done some overt act towards the commission of the offence
d. All the above acts have been place
82. Which of the following provision of BNS is based on the principle pf ‘de minimis non curat lex’?
a. Section 36
b. Section 35
c. Section 34
d. Section 33
83. In Which of the following offences under the BNS, preparation of the offence is punishable?
a. Murder
b. Dowry death
c. Waging war against Government of India
d. Theft
84. The abetment of abetment is an offence. It can be directly deducible form:
a. Section 45, BNS
b. Section 46, BNS
c. Section 49, BNS
d. Section 50, BNS
85. The right of private defence of property extends to voluntarily causing of death or any other harm to the wrong doer. This is provided in: —
a. Section 41, BNS
b. Section 42, BNS
c. Section 43, BNS
d. Section 44, BNS
86. According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the following heads?
a. Equality after law
b. Equality of fixed rules of law
c. Equality under law
d. Equality before law
87. Which of the following is correct about the preamble to the Constitution of India?
a. It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution.
b. It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights.
c. It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.
d. It is not a part of the Constitution.
88. Within the meaning of under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution the Parliament by law may/can:
a. Form new states
b. Alter areas of states
c. Alter boundaries or the names of existing states
d. All of the above
89. The principle of res judicata does not apply in case of writ of:
a. Habeas corpus
b. Mandamus
c. Quo-warranto
d. Prohibition
90. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. No citizen of India shall accept a title from any foreign State and no title may be conferred by the State
b. India may confer a title on a noncitizen
c. A citizen may accept the title of Sir or Lord conferred by the Queen
d. A foreigner in the service of India may accept a title from a foreign State
91. The right to Constitutional remedies in India is available to
a. Citizens of India only
b. All persons, in case of infringement of any Fundamental duties
c. All people, for enforcing any of the Fundamental Rights, conferred on them
d. ‘A’ aggrieved individual alone
92. Which writ can be issued when appointment is contrary to the statutory provisions?
a. Mandamus
b. Certiorari
c. Quo warranto
d. Prohibition
93. One of the following Articles describes the Republic of India as a Union and not as a federation though the words are "India, that is, Bharat, shall be a Union of States,"
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. Article 3
d. Article 4
94. Which of the following is not 'State' for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
b. A Nationalized Bank
c. Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh
d. Griha Kalyan Kendra
95. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with Procedure on deposit of wills.
a. Section 46
b. Section 45
c. Section 43
d. Section 44
96. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with Register-books and fire-proof boxes.
a. Section 19
b. Section 18
c. Section 16
d. Section 17
97. THE REGISTRATION ACT, 1908- ACT NO. ----- OF 1908
a. 18 OF 1908
b. 17 OF 1908
c. 16 OF 1908
d. 19 OF 1908
98. THE REGISTRATION ACT, 1908 came into force on
a. First day of march, 1909
b. First day of June, 1909
c. First day of January, 1909
d. Second day of January, 1909
99. Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts, has been provided
a. Under Section 17 of CPC
b. Under Section 18 of CPC
c. Under Section 18 of CPC
d. Under Section 20 of CPC
100. Section 115 of Code of Civil Procedure relates to:
a. Error of fact
b. Error of law
c. Jurisdictional error
d. Erroneous decision
