1. An exparte decree can be set aside on the ground of
a. Summons not duly served.
b. Being prevented by any sufficient cause from appearance.
c. Non-appearance due to non-availability of documents with the plaint.
d. Both (a) and (b)
2. Pleading has been defined
a. Under Order VI, Rule 1 of CPC
b. Under Order VI, Rule 2 of CPC
c. Under Order VII, Rule 3 of CPC
d. Under Order IX, Rule 4 of CPC
3. Under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC
a. Only a part of the plaint can be rejected.
b. Whole of the plaint is to be rejected.
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. It is the discretion of the court to reject the plaint in part.
4. Which of the following is not a rule of pleading?
a. Pleadings should state fact and not law
b. Facts stated should be material facts
c. Pleadings should state the evidence
d. Facts should be stated in concise form
5. Whether a minor on attaining majority may, if a sole plaintiff, apply that a suit instituted in his name by next friend be dismissed on the ground that it was unreasonable or improper?
a. No
b. With the consent of next friend
c. Yes
d. Joint applications will he with next friend
6. An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following orders:
a. Rule 11 of Order VII, rejecting the plaint
b. Rule 9 of Order XXII, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suit
c. Rule 1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written statement
d. Rule 5 of Order XIV, refusing to strike out the issue at the instance of either of the parties
7. Rejection of an application for permission to sue as a pauper
a. Bars a fresh application on the same cause of action
b. Does not bar a fresh application on the same cause of action if moved along with amended schedule of property
c. Does not bar a fresh application on the same cause of action with the leave of the Court
d. Does not bar a fresh application at all
8. Inter-pleader suit cannot be instituted
a. For any property which relates to two persons but which is being held by a third person for the time being
b. For determining the relation between a property and the persons claiming it
c. For getting himself absolved from the liability to keep the property which is not being held by him
d. Where a suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly by decided
9. The provision regarding 'summary suits' are in:
a. Order 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure
b. Order 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure
c. Order 28 of the Code of Civil Procedure
d. Order 30 of the Code of Civil Procedure
10. Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 mentions the cases in which
a. Perpetual injunction can be granted
b. Perpetual injunction cannot be granted
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
11. The purpose of Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act is to
a. Permit dispossession of a person without his consent
b. To put restraint on dispossession of a person
c. To put restraint on dispossession of a person without his consent
d. None of the above
12. Which type of the following injunction a Court cannot issue?
a. Mulberry injunction
b. Perpetual injunction
c. Temporary injunction
d. Mandatory injunction
13. Which Section of Transfer of Property Act provides against condition restraining alienation?
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
14. Remedy of foreclosure is available in which one of the following mortgages?
a. Usufructuary mortgage
b. Simple mortgage
c. Mortgage by conditional sale
d. English mortgage
15. A person who projects himself to be the owner when he is not is called:
a. Ostensible owner
b. Co-owner
c. Equitable owner
d. None of the above
16. Where mortgagee is entitled to enjoy the benefits of the mortgaged property in lieu of interest on debt, the mortgage is called:
a. Simple Mortgage
b. Equitable Mortgage
c. Usufructuary Mortgage
d. English Mortgage
17. Which of the following is not a duty of the seller?
a. To produce title deeds
b. To disclose patent defects
c. To execute conveyance
d. To pay the outgoings
18. Contract without consideration will be
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Illegal
d. None of the above
19. The age of majority for contract is
a. 18 years
b. 21 years
c. 16 years
d.18 years for girls and 21 years for boys
20. A agrees to pay 'B’ a sum of money, If ‘B’ marries ‘C’. ‘C’ marries ‘D’. The agreement is:
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Legal
d. Illegal
21. ‘A’ promises to paint a picture for ‘B’ within 10 days at a price of Rs. 1,000. ‘A’ dies before the days. The contract is:
a. Enforceable
b. Non-enforceable
c. Voidable
d. Void
22. ‘A' contracts to sing for ‘B’ at a concert for Rs. 1,000 which are paid in advance. ‘A’ is too ill to sing. Then:
a. ‘A’ must refund to ‘B’ Rs. 1,000 paid in advance
b. ‘A’ must not refund to ‘B’ Rs. 1,000 paid in advance
c. ‘B’ can receive compensation from ‘A’
d. None of the above
23. ‘A’, a tradesman leaves his goods at B’s house by mistake. ‘B’ uses the goods as his own. Then:
a. B need not pay to ‘A’
b. B is build to pay ‘A’
c. There is no contract
d. None of the above
24. In case of gift if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift. The gift will be:
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Subject to decision of the court
25. Within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, a charge:
a. Requires attestation and proved in the same way as a mortgage.
b. Requires attestation and does not prove as a mortgage.
c. Does not require to be attested and proves in the same way as a mortgage.
d. Does not prove as a mortgage.
26. The provisions regarding transfer of actionable claims are mention under Transfer of Property Act in
a. Section 130
b. Section 122
c. Section 127
d. Section 128
27. Which of the following Sections deals with specific performance of a part of a contract:
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
28. Computation of limitation time, for date used in an instrument, will be calculated according to which Calendar?
a. Hindu Calendar
b. Islamic Calendar
c. English Calendar
d. Gregorian Calendar
29. In which section of Limitation Act, effect of death before accrual of right to sue is provided?
a. Section 16
b. Section 18
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
30. Period of limitation for execution of a decree is:
a. 3 years
b. 12 years
c. 30 years
d. 60 years
31. Section 143A of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
a. Offences by companies.
b. Presumption in favour of holder.
c. Power to direct interim compensation.
d. none of the above
32. Section 141 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
a. Offences by companies.
b. Presumption in favour of holder.
c. Dishonour of cheque for insufficiency, etc., of funds in the account.
d. All of the above
33. Novation of a contract under Indian Contract Act, means:
a. Cancellation of contract
b. Alteration of the contract
c. The renewal of original contract
d. Substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
34. Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
a. Can be enforced against the guardian, if any, of the minor
b. Can be enforced against the minor's property or estate, during his minority
c. Can be enforced against the minor personally on his attaining majority
d. Cannot be enforced at all
35. Under Which provision of the Constitution High Courts have power to punish for contempt to itself?
a. Article 214
b. Article 226
c. Article 215
d. Article 216
36. Election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than:
a. One month from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
b. Two months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
c. Three months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
d. Six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
37. The President of India may be removed from his office on which of the following grounds?
a. Proved misbehaviour
b. Incapacity
c. Violation of the Constitution
d. All of the above
38. Right to Freedom of Religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
a. Morality
b. Public order
c. Health
d. Security of State
39. The power of pardon is vested in the:
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Governors
d. President and the Governors.
40. The scope of expression "procedure established by law" occurring in Article 21 was expanded in the case—
a. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
b. Charanjit Lai Chowdhury v. Union of India
c. K.A. Abbas v. Union of India
d. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
41. Assertion (A): Right to education is a Fundamental Right
Reason (R): Our Constitution had no provision for education before making right to education as Fundamental Right.
Codes:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
42. Which one of the following is a ground on which the state can impose reasonable restrictions on the right to move freely throughout the territory of India
a. Security of the State
b. Decency
c. Morality
d. Protecting the Interests of any Scheduled Tribe
43. Which one of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is not a Gandhian principle.
a. The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats
b. The state shall endeavour to promote cottage industries
c. The state shall take steps for preservation and improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and other milch cattle
d. The state shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India
44. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available Only to—
a. Citizens of India
b. Citizens of India and Foreigners
c. Both (1) and (2) above
d. Foreigners living in India
45. Which Sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force?
a. Sections 170 to 180
b. Sections 124 to 129
c. Sections 159 to 168
d. Sections 165 to 171
46. Which of the following is not an exception as per provisions contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
a. Act of a child under age of 7 years
b. An act done pursuant to judgment or order of a court of justice
c. An act by the security guard of a Judge that otherwise constitutes an offence
d. An act of a person of unsound mind.
47. 'B' ‘enters into ' the house of 'A' without obtaining 'A's permission, to congratulate him on his success. What crime was committed by "B'?
a. Criminal trespass
b. House trespass
c. Mischief
d. None of these
48. In which of the following cases, the offence of 'house-breaking' is committed?
a. A commits house-trespass by entering Z's house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door.
b. A finds the key of Z's house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z's house through that key.
c. Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y's doorway. A commits house- trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him.
d. All of these
49. Essential ingredients of the offence of mischief is
a. Intention to cause destruction of a property
b. Intention to change nature of a property
c. Intentionally causing wrongful loss or damage to the property of another
d. None of the above
50. In which one of the following sections of the BNS Lurking House Trespass has been defined?
a. Section 326
b. Section 327
c. Section 328
d. Section 329
51. Which one of the following correctly brings out the main distinction between Common Intention and Common Object?
a. Common intention creates specific offence whereas common object does not
b. Common intention as well as common object create specific offences
c. Common object creates specific offence whereas common intention does not
d. Both common objects as well as common intention do not create specific offence
52. Which ingredient is not essential for rioting?
a. Unlawful assembly of five or more persons under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
b. Common object of the unlawful assembly as specified under Section 189
c. Accused joined or continued in such unlawful assembly
d. There must be definite disturbance of the public peace on public place
53. Punishment for being a member of unlawful assembly under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has been provided under
a. Section 187
b. Section 188
c. Section 189
d. Section 190
54. ‘A’ makes a false entry in his electronic record for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in the trial court. ‘A’ has—
a. Fabricated false evidence
b. Not fabricated false evidence
c. Committed forgery
d. None of the above
55. Which of the following cases is related to Criminal Breach of Trust under Section 316 of BNS?
a. Barendra Kumar Ghose v. Emperor
b. J.M Desai v. State of Bombay
c. Mahboob Shah v. Emperor
d. Kedar Nath v. State of West Bengal
56. The accused was entrusted with some silver for the purpose of making ornaments and he dishonestly mixed copper into the ornaments. The offence - committed is:
a. Fraud
b. Cheating
c. Extortion
d. Criminal breach of trust
57. The Court application for plea bargaining by the accused, to satisfy itself that it is made voluntarily
a. Examines him in open Court
b. Examines him in Camera
c. Records his evidence on Oath
d. Seeks his affidavit
58. What does the expression "transit remand" denote?
a. It is a transfer of prisoner from one Jail to another
b. It is a transfer of criminal case from one Court to another
c. It is taking out an accused by police from one State to another State
d. It is taking out of the accused from Court to Prison.
59. Under which section of BNSS a person who is avoiding execution of a warrant may be proclaimed absconder?
a. Section 81
b. Section 83
c. Section 84
d. Section 85
60. Personal attendance of an accused can be dispensed with under the provisions of Section of the BNSS:
a. 225
b. 226
c. 227
d. 228
61. Which Section of BNSS provides that no court shall alter the judgement after it has been signed?
a. Section 401
b. Section 402
c. Section 403
d. Section 462
62. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under section 144 BNSS if:
a. She has obtained divorce from her husband and has not remarried
b. She is unable to maintain herself
c. She refused to live with her husband on the ground that he keeps a mistress
d. She is living in adultery
63. Under which section of BNSS an order from attachment of property
a. Section 85
b. Section 82
c. Section 84
d. Section 86
64. Under which one of the following Sections of the BNSS monthly allowances or the interim monthly allowances for maintenance can be altered?
a. Section 144
b. Section 145
c. Section 146
d. Section 147
65. A mere plea of divorce would not be sufficient to disentitle a Muslim wife from claiming maintenance under Section 144 was laid down in—
a. Shamim Ara v. State of U.P.
b. Iqbal Bano v. State of U.P.
c. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
d. Danial Latifi v. Union of India
66. Which Section of the BNSS provides a protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest?
a. Section 41
b. Section 42
c. Section 46
d. Section 50
67. Admissions:
a. Must be in writing
b. Must be oral
c. Can be either oral or in writing
d. Must be oral and in writing both
68. The opinion of experts is not relevant:
a. On a point of Indian law
b. On a point of foreign law
c. On matters of science
d. On handwriting or finger impressions
69. Under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under
a. Section 146
b. Section 147
c. Section 151
d. Such questions cannot be asked
70. Which of the following chapters of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam deals with 'witnesses'?
a. Chapter VI
b. Chapter VII
c. Chapter VIII
d. Chapter IX
71. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that confession of co-accused are very weak evidence and no conviction can be based solely on such confession?
a. Nathu v. State of U.P.
b. Ram Prakash v. State of Punjab
c. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P,
d. None of the above
72. Contents of a document can be proved by
a. Primary or secondary evidence
b. Is examining a witness who has not seen the document
c. By taking extraneous evidence into consideration
d. Without any evidence
73. Following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay
a. Dying declaration
b. Res gestae
c. Medical Expert's Opinion
d. Confession
74. "A barrister is instructed by an attorney or a vakil that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit."
This illustration is based on which of the following Sections of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?
a. Section 152
b. Section 153
c. Section 147
d. Section 145
75. The provision relating to "hostile witness" is provided in:
a. Section 157 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
b. Section 155 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
c. Section 114 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
d. Section 133 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
76. Pallvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab is related to which of the following?
a. Leading Question
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Confession
d. Admission
77. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with - Persons entitled to present wills and authorities to adopt.
a. Section 32
b. Section 31
c. Section 40
d. Section 41
78. Section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908- Effect of non-registration of documents required to be registered. —
a. Affect any immovable property comprised therein
b. Confer any power to adopt
c. Be received as evidence of any transaction affecting such property or conferring such power
d. All of the above
79. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with Certificate of registration. —
a. Section 51
b. Section 41
c. Section 21
d. Section 60
80. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with -Keeping of books in computer floppies, diskettes, etc.
a. Section 23
b. Section 16
c. Section 16A
d. Section 21
81. Subject to the provisions contained in sections 24, 25 and 26 of the Registration Act, 1908, no document other than a will shall be accepted for registration unless presented for that purpose to the proper officer within ----from the date of its execution
a. Two months
b. Five months
c. Four months
d. Six months
82. Under section 2(18) of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- “tari" means
a. Fermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree
b. Unfermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
83. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- deals with Power to prohibit import, export or transport.
a. Section 11
b. Section 10
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
84. Which chapter of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with Manufacture, Possession and Sale
a. Chapter VII
b. Chapter III
c. Chapter IV
d. Chapter V
85. The Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915- Penalty for opening, keeping or using any place as a common drinking house or for having care, management or control of, or for assisting in conducting, business of any such place shall be punishable with
a. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six year or with fine which shall not be less than five thousand rupees
b. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five year or with fine which shall not be less than five thousand rupees
c. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine which shall not be less than five thousand rupees
d. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten year or with fine which shall not be less than five thousand rupees
86. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with technical defects, irregularities and omissions.
a. Section 21
b. Section 25
c. Section 28
d. Section 30
87. Under section 2(i) of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- holding" means
a. A parcel of land separately assessed to land revenue and held under one tenure
b. In reference to land held by a tenant a parcel of land held from a bhumiswami under one lease or set of conditions
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
88. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- which provision define "sub-division of a survey number".
a. Sec 2(1)(a)
b. Sec 2(1)(w)
c. Sec 2(1)(b)
d. None of the above
89. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- There shall be a Board of Revenue for Chhattisgarh having a
a. Common person
b. President.
c. Minister
d. Member
90. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- There shall be the following classes of the Revenue Officers, namely-
a. Joint Collectors
b. Sub-Divisional Officers
c. Tahsildars
d. All of the above
91. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a member of the Board unless he-
a. Is eligible for appointment as a Judge of the High Court
b. Has been a Revenue Officer, and has held, for at least five years, an office not lower in rank than that of a Collector
c. Option a or b
d. None of the above
92. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- "Rent Control Tribunal" means the body constituted under -----of the Act
a. Section 10(1)
b. Section 8 (1)
c. Section 7 (1)
d. Section 6 (1)
93. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with Tenancy Agreement.
a. Section 9
b. Section 5
c. Section 4
d. Section 7
94. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- "Habitual Defaulter" means a tenant who fails in a period of -----on three or more occasions to pay in full the rent
a. 15 months
b. 10 months
c. 11 months
d. 12 months
95. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011- Any attempt by the landlord to neglect for unsubstantial and/or insufficient reasons the obligations enjoined upon him in terms of Schedule 3 shall constitute an offence under this Act, punishable
a. With fine not exceeding Rs. 8,000
b. With fine not exceeding Rs. 7,000
c. With fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
d. With fine not exceeding Rs. 6000
96. Under which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with - Repeal and Savings.
a. Section 13
b. Section 11
c. Section 12
d. Section 14
97. Under which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Power to ascertain net profits or market-value. —
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
98. Under which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870- deals with Procedure in suits for mesne profits or account when amount decreed exceeds amount claimed.
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
99. Under which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Fees on documents filed, etc., in High Courts, in their extraordinary jurisdiction.
a. Section 3
b. Section 2
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
100. Section 28 of the Court-fees Act, 1870- No document which ought to bear a stamp under this Act shall be of any validity
a. Not need of stamped
b. Unless and until it is properly stamped.
c. Both are correct
d. None of the above
