Mock Tests · Chhattisgarh Judiciary Mock Test
Chhattisgarh Judiciary Mock Test - 2
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1. For an 'Inter-pleader suit' which of the following conditions is not necessary?
a. There must be some debt or the property in dispute
b. Two or more persons claiming the debt or the property in dispute adversely to one another
c. There must be suit pending wherein the rights of rival claimants for the debt or the property in dispute can be properly adjudicated
d. All of the above
2. No order for detention of the judgment debtor in civil prison in execution of a decree for the payment of money shall be made where the total amount of the decree does not exceed
a. Five hundred rupees
b. One hundred rupees
c. Two thousand rupees
d. Five thousand rupees
3. A files a suit for declaration that he is entitled to certain land as the heir of C. The suit is dismissed. Subsequently suit is claimed on the basis of adverse possession. subsequent suit is barred on the ground of
a. Constructive res-judicata
b. Actual res-judicata
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of the above
4. The expression 'former suit' in the context of rule of res judicata means a suit which has been
a. Instituted prior to the suit in question.
b. Decided prior to the suit in question.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
5. On failure to file the written statement, under Order VIII, Rule 10 of C.P.C. the Court
a. May pronounce the judgment at once
b. May order for striking off the defence
c. May pass any other order
d. Either (1) or (2) or (3)
6. Which one of the following cases is on second appeal?
a. Madan Lai v. Bai Krishna
b. Sudhir G. Angur v. M. Sanjeev
c. Sheodan Singh v. Daryao Kunwar
d. Harshad Chiman Lai Modi v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.
7. The Registrar of a Provincial Small Cause court, when conferred with jurisdiction by the State Government
a. Try suits of unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction.
b. Try suits upto limited pecuniary jurisdiction
c. Cannot try any suit
d. Can also decide criminal cases
8. Alternative Disputes Redressal (ADR) is a concept in
a. Evidence Act
b. Civil Procedure Code
c. Contract Act
d. Motor Vehicles Act
9. A suit to obtain an urgent or immediate relief against the Government or any Public Officer may be instituted in respect of an act purporting to be done by public officer in his official capacity:
a. Without serving any notice under Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure
b. After due service under Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure
c. With the leave of the Court without serving any notice under Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure
d. None of the above
10. Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked:
a. Against a person who has possession or control over the property
b. Against the person who is the owner of the article claimed
c. By the person not entitled to the possession of the article
d. In respect of the ordinary article
11. Under Section 12(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, part performance of a Contract can be enforced by:
a. The Promisor
b. The Promisee
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
12. In a suit under 6 of the Specific Relief Act, the Court can:
a. Adjudicate on the title
b. Direct the defendant(s) to remove the structure
c. Permit the plaintiff to pull down the structure
d. None of the above
13. Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act fixes the time limit for discovery of mistake or fraud to be:
a. Six months
b. Three months
c. One year
d. None of the above
14. A claim for damages in suit for injection can be laid down:
a. Under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act
b. Under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act
c. Under Section 40 of the Specific Relief Act
d. Under Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act
15. Under the Transfer of Property Act, a "living person" connotes
a. Human being only
b. Limited company only
c. Partnership firm only
d. All of these
16. A lease to a minor is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. None of these
17. Under TPA, Sale is a transfer of:
a. Right to enjoy immovable property.
b. A right to enjoy movable property.
c. An interest in a specific immovable property
d. Ownership
18. Mr. Sukant transfers property X to Mr Kushal for Rs. 60 Lakh representing that he has a present interest therein, whereas he has, in fact, only a spes succession is. Kushal, however, has taken the transfer on the faith of that representation and for consideration. Kushal, in this case, is entitled to the benefit of the property X under the following provision of the Transfer of Property Act:
a. Sec. 43 as laid down in Jumma Masjid Mercara v Kodia Manindra Deviah
b. Sec. 6(a) as laid down in Rajesh Kanta Roy v Shanti Devi
c. Sections 43 and Sec. 6(a) operate on two different grounds. Therefore, both would be applicable.
d. Sec. 11 as in Abdul Jabbar v Venkata Shastri
19. Under Section 10, TPA, transfer of property subject to a condition or limitation absolutely restraining the transferee from parting with his interest in the property. the condition or limitation is:
a. Illegal
b. Voidable
c. Void
d. Enforceable
20. Section 38 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has no application
a. To previous transfer where the transaction is still incomplete
b. To succeeding transfer where the transaction is to be completed in future
c. To perpetuity transfer
d. None of the above
21. Muhammad Afzal v. Ghulam Kasim (1903) ILR Cal 843 is a leading case on which of the following?
a. Rule against perpetuity
b. Equity of redemption
c. Doctrine of election
d. Doctrine of holding Over
22. Condonation of delay under Section 5 of Limitation Act:
a. Can be claimed as a matter of right
b. Is a matter of discretion of the Court
c. Sufficient cause for the delay has to be shown
d. None of the above
23. As provided under Section 25 (3) of the Limitation Act, 1963, the easement rights over the property belonging to the Government are acquired by continuous and uninterrupted user if such right is peaceably and openly enjoyed for a period of:
a. 12 years
b. 20 years
c. 3 years
d. 30 years
24. The period of limitation for setting aside a sale on execution of a decree, is:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
25. Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to—
a. Suits
b. Appeals
c. Execution proceedings
d. None of the above
26. Section 22 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is not applicable in—
a. Case of a continuing tort
b. Case of a continuing breach of contract
c. Case of a suit for damages for wrongful detention of goods
d. None of the above
27. ‘A' agrees to sell to ‘B’ a hundred tons of oil. There is nothing whatever to show what kind of oil was Intended. The agreement Is:
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Enforceable
d. Non-enforceable
28. ‘A’ promises to maintain ‘B’s child. ‘B’ promises to pay ‘A' Rs. 1,000 yearly for the purpose. The consideration is:
a. Lawful
b. Unlawful
c. No consideration
d. None of these
29. Ex nudo pacto non oritur actio, means:
a. A stranger to the contract cannot sue
b. An agreement without consideration is void
c. An agreement based on natural love and affections
d. All the above
30. To create an agency:
a. Consideration is necessary
b. Consideration is not necessary
c. Some consideration is necessary
d. Adequate consideration is necessary
31. A contracts to pay B Rs. 20,000 if B's house is burnt. It is a:
a. Wagering Contract
b. Quasi Contract
c. Contingent Contract
d. Illegal Contract
32. For the purpose of attracting the provisions of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque has to be presented to the bank within a period of
a. Six months
b. 15 days from the date on which it is drawn
c. Three months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity whichever is earlier
d. None of the above
33. As per Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence punishable under the Act is
a. Compoundable
b. Non-compoundable
c. Cognizable
d. Both (b) and (c) above
34. The effect of a notice under clause (b) of section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is
a. The payee forfeits the right to again present the cheque for payment
b. The payee can present the cheque for payment
c. The payee can present the cheque with the permission of the court
d. None of the above
35. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution made in mandatory for the President to accept the advice given by Council of Ministers?
a. 39th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 49th Amendment
d. 44th Amendment
36. When the President refers a matter to the Supreme Court
a. The court is bound to render its opinion
b. The court is bound to render its opinion when it is a dispute of the kind mentioned in the Proviso to Article 131
c. The court is bound to render its opinion-when it is a dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 71
d. The court is bound to render its opinion when it is a dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 72
37. Under the Indian Constitution, the 'Doctrine of Public Trust' is enshrined in the
a. Article 45
b. Article 46
c. Article 47
d. Article 48A.
38. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organise Village Panchayats?
a. Article 40
b. Article 41
c. Article 42
d. Article 43
39. Assertion (A): The Directive Principles are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles have been declared superior to fundamental rights.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
40. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wildlife of the country are in
a. Directive Principles
b. Fundamental Duties
c. National Policy
d. Both Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties
41. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed:
a. 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament
b. 15% of the total number of members of the Council of States
c. 15% of the total number of elected members of House of the People and Council of States
d. 15% of the total number of members of House of the People
42. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either house of Parliament?
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. There is no time limit prescribed
43. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution provides for the appointment of an 'Acting Chief Justice' of the Supreme Court?
a. Article 126
b. Article 125
c. Article 127
d. Article 130
44. The Advisory opinion tendered by the Supreme Court:
a. Is binding on the President
b. Is not binding on the President
c. Is binding on the President only if it is unanimously made
d. Is not made public at all
45. ‘A' lets out his premises to B, a police officer, with the knowledge that B will torture C, an accused in a case. B tortures C in those premises. A is: —
a. Not guilty of any offence under IPC
b. Guilty of abetment
c. Guilty of causing hurt
d. Guilty of attempt to commit offence
46. 'A' being an officer directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a decree pronounced in Z's favour by a Court of Justice, knowingly disobeys that direction of law, with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to 'Z'. 'A' has committed the offence defined in:
a. Section 197 of BNS
b. Section 198 of BNS
c. Section 199 of BNS
d. Section 195 of BNS
47. Personating a public servant is an offence in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 under
a. Section 201
b. Section 202
c. Section 203
d. Section 204
48. Failure to record FIR in case of offences affecting the modesty and dignity of woman are punishable under
a. Section 197 of BNS
b. Section 198 of BNS
c. Section 199 of BNS
d. Section 195 of BNS
49. Offence of theft is related to
a. Movable property only.
b. Movable as well as immovable.
c. Immovable property as soon as it is severed from the earth.
d. Both (a) and (c).
50. Criminal trespass has been defined in which section of BNS?
a. Section 329
b. Section 328
c. Section 327
d. Section 326
51. The offence of criminal trespass is complete when a person enters upon the property in the possession of another with intent to commit
a. A bailable offence
b. Any offence
c. A non bailable offence
d. A cognizable offence
52. 'X' committed theft in a government building 'Z' a Chowkidar of the building, kept the gate of the building open with the intention of facilitate X's safe retreat with the stolen property and thereby facilitated his retreat. Which one of the following statement is correct? Z' is:
a. Guilty of abetment of theft by intentional aiding
b. Guilty of they by instigation
c. Not guilty of abetment
d. Guilty of theft
53. 'X' an Indian abets Y, an American citizen on telephone from Ajmer to murder 'P', an American citizen in America. Under what Section of BNS, 'X' is guilty of abetment?
a. Section 46
b. Section 47
c. Section 48
d. Section 49
54. Theft has been defined: —
a. Under Section 299
b. Under Section 301
c. Under Section 302
d. Under Section 303
55. Which one of the following statements correctly distinguished theft from extortion?
a. In theft, there is dishonest intention, whereas in extortion it is not there.
b. In extortion there is dishonest intention, whereas in theft it is not there
c. In theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion it is fraudulent intention
d. In theft, there is taking of property whereas in extortion there is delivery of property
56. Extortion is defined in: —
a. Section 308 of BNS
b. Section 309 of BNS
c. Section 310 of BNS
d. Section 311 of BNS
57. A Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, may
a. Correct a clerical or arithmetical error
b. Alter findings of law
c. Review findings of fact
d. Alter or review ratio
58. Order of disposal of property at conclusion of trial is passed under
a. Section 497 of BNSS
b. Section 498 of BNSS
c. Section 499 of BNSS
d. Section 496 of BNSS
59. Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation
a. Section 39 BNSS
b. Section 40 BNSS
c. Section 41 BNSS
d. Section 38 BNSS
60. Under Section 239 BNSS the Court has the power to:
a. Add to the charge(s) already framed
b. Alter the charge(s) already framed
c. Neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
d. Add to and alter the charge both.
61. Which is the Section recently inserted in the BNSS, providing Victim Compensation Scheme?
a. Section 388
b. Section 348
c. Section 396
d. Section 397
62. Joint trial of several persons is permissible under
a. Section 245 BNSS
b. Section 246 BNSS
c. Section 244 BNSS
d. Section 248 BNSS
63. A victim cannot file an appeal against any judgement passed by the court:
a. Where the court acquits the accused.
b. Where the court convicts for a lesser offence.
c. Where the court imposes inadequate compensation.
d. Where the court imposes inadequate sentence.
64. The provisions of 'Plea-Bargaining' under Chapter XXIII of BNSS are not applicable if the offence is committed-
a. Where such offence affects the socio-economic condition of the country
b. Has been committed against a woman
c. Has been committed against a child
d. All of above
65. Under which Sections of BNSS Provision regarding 'summary trial' is given?
a. Sections 360-365
b. Sections 283-288
c. Sections 256-258
d. Section 180-190
66. Which provision of the BNSS deals with the 'withdrawal of complaint'?
a. Section 223
b. Section 254
c. Section 280
d. Section 259
67. Under Section 124 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam who amongst the following are competent witnesses:
a. Child
b. Accused
c. Lunatic
d. All the above
68. Section 94 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam deals with
a. Presumption as to electronic records five years old.
b. Evidence of terms of contracts, grants and other dispositions of property reduced to form of document.
c. Presumption as to documents thirty years old.
d. Presumption as to due execution, etc., of documents not produced.
69. Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of three, how many of them need to be proved?
a. Five
b. Three
c. One
d. Two
70. Under which of the following Sections of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the evidence of a dumb witness is taken into consideration?
a. Section 116
b. Section 117
c. Section 118
d. Section 125
71. Section 23 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies:
a. When the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody.
b. When the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody.
c. When the person is in police custody but not an accused.
d. Only (a) and (b)
72. Under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhinyam, 2023 The question is, whether A, a person who cannot be found, wrote a letter on a certain day. The fact that a letter written by him is dated on that day
a. Is irrelevant.
b. Only a
c. Is relevant.
d. None of the above
73. Under Section 52 (1) of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the Court shall take judicial notice of-
a. All laws in force in India
b. All laws including foreign laws
c. All Indian and Asian laws
d. All Indian and British laws upto 1950
74. Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused
a. Under Section 28 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
b. Under Section 29 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
c. Under Section 24 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
d. Under Section 31 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
75. Section 95 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies to
a. Bilateral documents
b. Unilateral documents
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) and (b)
76. Section 96 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, applies to the:
a. Ambiguitas patens
b. Ambiguitas latens
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
77. Under section 2(7) of the Registration Act, 1908- lease includes
a. Counterpart
b. Kabuliyat
c. Undertaking to cultivate or occupy
d. All of the above
78. Under which section of the Registration Act, 1908 –deals with Documents of which registration is optional.
a. Section 15
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
79. Where there are several persons executing a document at different times, such document may be presented for registration and re-registration
a. Within five months from the date of each execution
b. Within four months from the date of each execution
c. Within two months from the date of each execution
d. Within six months from the date of each execution
80. Under which section of the Registration Act, 1908 –deals with Officer or Court to issue and cause service of summons.
a. Section 40
b. Section 39
c. Section 37
d. Section 38
81. The Act no. of Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 is
a. Act 19 of 2011
b. Act 17 of 2012
c. Act 19 of 2012
d. Act 20 of 2012
82. Under section 2(10) of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011-"Rent Controller" means
a. The official so appointed under sub-section (1) of Section 10 of the Act
b. The official so appointed under sub-section (1) of Section 9 of the Act
c. The official so appointed under sub-section (1) of Section 8 of the Act
d. The official so appointed under sub-section (1) of Section 7 of the Act
83. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 deals with Powers and functions of Rent Control Tribunal.
a. Section 11
b. Section 10
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
84. Under Section 12 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 the Rights and Obligations of Landlords and Tenants are
a. Every landlord shall have right according to Sechedule2.
b. Every landlord shall have rights according to Schedule 1.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
85. Under Section 7 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011-For every district, who shall appoint one or more officers not below the rank of a Deputy Collector, as Rent Controller.
a. The State Government
b. The central Government
c. The court
d. None of the above
86. The Act no. of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 is
a. Act 28 of 1959
b. Act 23 of 1959
c. Act 20 of 1959
d. Act 21 of 1959
87. The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959- recognised agent" in reference to a party to a proceeding under the Code means
a. A person authorised under a power of attorney by such party to make appearance and applications and to do other acts on his behalf in such proceedings
b. A person authorised in writing by such party to make appearance on his behalf in such proceedings
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
88. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with Power to appoint Collector.
a. Section 23
b. Section 13
c. Section 12
d. Section 16
89. Which section deals with Compelling attendance of witness. under section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 –
a. Section 37
b. Section 36
c. Section 35
d. Section 34
90. Which Section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 deals with Conferral of Status of Courts on Board and Revenue Officers.
a. Section 31
b. Section 43
c. Section 21
d. Section 40
91. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with-Definition of retail and wholesale sale.
a. Section 4
b. Section 12
c. Section 5
d. Section 9
92. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with Power to grant lease of right to manufacture etc.
a. Section 18
b. Section 12
c. Section 13
d. Section 23
93. Section 23A of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 -"advertisement" includes –
a. Any notice, circular, label, wrapper or other documents
b. Any announcement made orally or by any means of producing or transmitting light, sound or smoke
c. Any exhibition by means of slide or film exhibited on the screen in a cinema licensed under the Chhattisgarh cinemas (regulation) act, 1952
d. All of the above
94. Which Chapter of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with Duties and Fees
a. Chapter VI
b. Chapter VII
c. Chapter V
d. Chapter IV
95. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915 deals with -Power to cancel or suspend licence, etc.
a. SECTION 35
b. SECTION 34
c. SECTION 31
d. SECTION 32
96. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Stamps to be impressed or adhesive
a. Section 20
b. Section 22
c. Section 21
d. Section 26
97. The amount of fee payable under the Court-fees Act, 1870 on a memorandum of appeal against an order relating to compensation under any Act for the time being in force for the acquisition of land for public purposes
a. Shall be computed according to the difference between the amount awarded and the amount claimed by the appellant.
b. Shall be computed according to the sum of the amount awarded and the amount claimed by the appellant.
c. Shall be computed according to the amount awarded
d. None of the above
98. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Computation of fees payable in certain suits.
a. Section 13
b. Section 12
c. Section 7
d. Section 3
99. Under section 10 of the Court-fees Act, 1870 procedure where net profits or market-value wrongly estimated and If the additional fee is not paid within such time as the Court shall fix
a. The suit shall be dismissed.
b. The suit shall be continue.
c. None of the above
d. Only b
100. Which section of the Court-fees Act, 1870 deals with Decision of questions as to valuation.
a. Section 11
b. Section 12
c. Section 13