Bihar PCS-J Mock Test-9

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1. Which of the following statements, as per provisions of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not correct?

a. Facts which are inconsistent with any fact in issue, shall not be relevant

b. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with other facts, they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable

c. Any fact is relevant, which shows or constitutes a motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact

d. Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels under the provisions of the BSA

2. Strict liability originated in:

a. England

b. India

c. USA

d. France

3. Misrepresentation must relate to:

a. Minor details

b. Any unrelated matter

c. A material part of the transaction

d. Personal opinion only

4. Who can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?

a. Supreme Court

b. Parliament

c. President

d. None of these

5. Violation of Section 22(1) is punishable with:

a. Imprisonment

b. Death penalty

c. Fine up to ₹1000

d. No punishment

6. Consent will be said to be free, when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation and mistake. The term ‘free consent’ has been defined in which Section of the Contract Act?

a. Section 14

b. Section 15

c. Section 16

d. Section 7

7. Which Article deals with the procedure for impeachment of the President?

a. Article 60

b. Article 61

c. Article 62

d. Article 63

8. A person is arrested and remanded to judicial custody for the offence of theft. He is in such custody for the last three and half years and his trial has not yet been commenced. Which of the following suggestions is correct in this case?

a. He shall be released unconditionally

b. He shall not be released unless a bail petition is moved on his behalf

c. He shall be released on bail only when he remained in custody for half of the maximum period of sentence provided for the offence

d. None of the above

9. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution of: —

a. U.S.A.

b. Canada

c. Ireland

d. Russia

10. Which one out of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

a. Right to strike

b. Right against exploitation

c. Right to equality

d. Right to freedom of religion

11. Who has observed "Muslim Marriage is both a civil contract and a religious sacrament".

a. Amir Ali

b. Dr. Jang

c. Justice Sir Shah Suleiman

d. Justice Mahmood

12. Section 3 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Conditions of marriage

b. Application of Act

c. Definitions

d. Void marriages

13. By whom can the transfer of suit or proceeding from one state to other state be ordered?

a. Central Government

b. Supreme Court

c. High Court

d. Parliament

14. In State of Rajasthan v Vidyawati, the court held:

a. State liable

b. State immune

c. No liability

d. Criminal liability

15. Which of the following set is said to be the Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution?

a. Articles 14,15 and 16

b. Articles 20,21 and 22

c. Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles

d. Articles 14,19 and 21

16. Which Article in Part IV of the Constitution pro-vides for Promotion of Education and Economic Interest of the weaker section?

a. 36

b. 46

c. 59

d. 69

17. Under which section of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 a Court can order (when fine is not part of sentence) any amount to be paid by accused as compensation.

a. 395

b. 396

c. 397

d. 396

18. Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?

a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

b. Acharya J.B. Kripalani

c. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

d. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

19. A marriage in contravention of Section 17 is:

a. Voidable

b. Valid but punishable

c. Void

d. Suspended

20. The Constitution of India is: —

a. Highly federal

b. Highly unitary

c. Neither federal nor unitary

d. Partly federal and partly unitary.

21. Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers of the Constitution?

a. Preamble

b. Fundamental Rights

c. Directive Principles of State Policy

d. None of these

22. A corporation is ‘State’ for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights-

a. it is a body registered according to law

b. it is an agency or instrumentality of Government

c. it has to report to Government

d. the Government services are made applicable to its employees

23. A contract of sale may be:

a. Void or voidable

b. Absolute or conditional

c. Express or implied only

d. Written only

24. Days of grace are allowed for:

a. Promissory notes

b. Bills of exchange

c. Instruments not payable on demand, at sight or on presentment

d. All of the above

25. Under which condition a Court may take into consideration the confession of one accused against himself and another person?

a. If they are tried jointly for the same offence

b. If they are tried jointly for different offences

c. If they are tried for the same offence but not jointly

d. If they are tried for different offences and not jointly

26. Muslim jurisprudence is known as-

a. Fiqah

b. Qiyas

c. Quran

d. Hadith

27. The protection of life and personal liberty under the Constitution of India is corresponding to-

a. The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States

b. The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States

c. The Sixth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States

d. The First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States

28. Consider the following:

1. Active concealment of fact.

2. Promise made without any intention of performing it.

3. Breach of duty which gains and advantage to the person committing it.

4. Inducing mistake as to subject matter.

Which of the above amount to fraud?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 4

29. If defendant pleads truth as defence, burden shifts to:

a. Defendant

b. Plaintiff

c. Court

d. Government

30. While deciding custody under Section 26, court must consider:

a. Only financial status of parents

b. Wishes of minor children wherever possible

c. Religion of parents

d. Caste of parties

31. Contingent contract is defined in

a. Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

b. Section 46 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

c. Section 37 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

d. None of the above

32. A Nikah solemnized in the absence of Qazi is-

a. Valid

b. Void

c. Irregular

d. None of the above

33. Clause (d) of Section 8 deals with:

a. Wrongful transfer of possession from the plaintiff

b. Contract breach

c. Ownership dispute

d. Registration dispute

34. Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains provisions relating to-

a. contingent interest

b. conditional transfers

c. transfer to unborn person

d. none of the above

35. Under Section 8(3), arbitration proceedings may:

a. Begin only after the court decides the application

b. Not commence until the suit is dismissed

c. Be commenced or continued even if the application under Section 8(1) is pending

d. Begin only after tribunal appointment

36. The most important element of negligence is:

a. Duty of care

b. Consent

c. Contract

d. Ownership

37. According to Sunni Law, the chief sources of Muslim Law are:

a. Quran, Judicial Precedents, Ijma, Qiyas

b. Quran, Hadis, Ijma, Qiyas

c. Ijma, Hadis, Custom, Legislation

d. Quran, Equity, Ahdis, Ijma

38. The Vice-President can be removed from his office before expiry of his term by the—

a. President

b. Members of the Council of States passed a resolution

c. Member of the Rajya Sabha

d. The Supreme Court.

39. The indorser must compensate the holder if:

a. Notice of dishonour is given to or received by him

b. Court orders it

c. Bank demands it

d. Drawer refuses payment

40. The indemnity-holder is entitled to recover from the promisor:

a. Only damages

b. Only costs

c. Only compromise amount

d. Damages, costs, and sums paid under compromise

41. The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 came into force on:

a. 1st January, 1932

b. 8th April, 1932

c. 1st October, 1932

d. 26th January, 1950

42. The Supreme Court of India ruled that a divorced Muslim wife is entitled to maintenance under the secular provisions of Section 144 of the BNSS, regardless of whether she has already received payment under Muslim personal law. Consider the statement.

a. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985 SC 945

b. Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 362

c. Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740

d. None of the above

43. Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or when the happening of the event becomes: —

a. Possible

b. Impossible

c. Probable to happen

d. All of the above

44. The Preamble of Constitution of India includes all the following except: —

a. Equality of status

b. Adult Franchise

c. Fraternity

d. Justice

45. The first Constituent Assembly's meeting held on 9-12-46 was presided over by-

a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

b. Shri jawaharLal Nehru

c. Shri jawaharLal Nehru

d. None of the above

46. “The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal State with subsidiary unitary features.”

a. Sir Ivor Jennings

b. A.V. Dicey

c. Prof K.C. Wheare

d. S.A. Desmith

47. The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called

a. bailment

b. mortgage

c. pledge

d. charge

48. The surety will be discharged due to forbearance if:

a. Law requires it

b. Court orders it

c. There is a contract to the contrary

d. Debtor refuses to pay

49. In Rylands v Fletcher, the defendant constructed:

a. A reservoir

b. A bridge

c. A railway line

d. A dam

50. Protection of title depends on:

a. Trustee’s choice

b. Nature and value of trust-property

c. Court discretion only

d. Beneficiary request

51. Which one of the following statements regarding Sections 3(5) and 190 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is correct?

a. Common intention and common object are the same

b. Both are distinct offences in themselves

c. Section 3(5) enunciates a mere principle of liability and creates no offence while Section 190 creates a specific offence

d. Sections 3(5) and 190 are mutually helping Sections

52. Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides for-

a. minority rights

b. equality before law

c. abolition of tides

d. right to education

53. No transfer of property can operate to create an interest which is to take effect after the life time of one or more persons living at the date of such transfer. These provisions come under: —

a. Rules against retrospective transfer only

b. Rules against perpetuity

c. Rules against prospective transfer

d. None of the above

54. According to Article 67, when does the term of a Vice President expire?

a. When he is appointed as President

b. When he is elected to the Lok Sabha

c. After a period of 5 years

d. When he is impeached

55. Which Section of the CPC lays down the rule of res sub judice?

a. Section 15

b. Section 13

c. Section 11

d. Section 10

56. Which of the following instruments cannot be treated as a promissory note?

a. Bank-note

b. Currency-note

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Demand draft

57. The assignment of future property for consideration is treated in equity as:

a. Void transaction

b. A contract to assign property

c. A criminal act

d. A mortgage

58. Against which of the following offences the right to private defence of property extend to voluntary causing of death?

a. Theft

b. Mischief by fire

c. Robbery

d. All these

59. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, which had crushed the husband at a little distance. She had not seen the accident herself. The husband died of heart attack a day later. Can wife's evidence be taken of what the injured husband said to her after the accident?

a. Yes, it being a dying declaration

b. No, it is merely a hearsay evidence

c. No, because it is a privileged communication

d. Yes, it being a part of res-gestae

60. Chapter II of the Transfer of Property Act shall not be deemed to effect any rule of: —

a. Mohammedan Law

b. Christian Law

c. Parsi Law

d. None of the above

61. The court may grant alternate relief:

a. In all divorce cases

b. Except where divorce is based on certain specified grounds

c. Only with consent of parties

d. Only after 5 years

62. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that polygraph test conducted under compulsion is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

a. Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)

b. Aruna R Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)

c. Rattan Lai v. State of Punjab (1965)

d. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954)

63. In Indian Law, a wagering contract is:

a. treated as voidable

b. treated as void

c. treated against public policy

d. treated as valid

64. A pledge is:

a. Sale of goods

b. Bailment of goods as security for debt or performance of promise

c. Gift of goods

d. Transfer of ownership

65. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment:

a. Is guaranteed to all citizens of India

b. Is guaranteed to all residents of India

c. Is available to persons of Indian origin irrespective of citizenship

d. Is not provided for in the Constitution

66. Fair comment defence applies to:

a. Facts

b. Opinions on matters of public interest

c. Contracts

d. Property rights

67. Which of the following is not a ground for the court to order separate trials under Order 2 Rule 6 C.P.C.

a. Delay in the trial

b. Embarrassment of the trial

c. Inconvenience

d. None of the above

68. The rules in Sections 20 to 24 are:

a. Mandatory rules

b. Rules for damages

c. Rules for ascertaining intention of parties as to time of passing of property

d. Rules for delivery

69. Which of the following mode of transfer of property is not covered by Transfer of Property Act, 1882-

a. Sale

b. Mortgage

c. Testamentary disposition

d. Exchange

70. Under Transfer of Property Act what Property may be transferred?

a. A mere right to sue.

b. Public Office

c. The chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an. estate.

d. Any property transfer of which is not barred by law.

71. Section 14 contains a proviso allowing early filing on ground of:

a. Mutual consent

b. Exceptional hardship or exceptional depravity

c. Cruelty only

d. Desertion only

72. Right to representation means:

a. Right to vote

b. Right to lawyer

c. Right to contract

d. Right to property

73. According to Article 75, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to:

a. The President

b. The Prime Minister

c. The house of the people

d. The Rajya Sabha

74. Section 44 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Dissolution by agreement

b. Dissolution by Court

c. Compulsory dissolution

d. Dissolution by notice

75. The principle related to delay and equitable relief is also recognized under:

a. Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act

b. Section 73 of the Contract Act

c. Section 10 of CPC

d. Section 115 of the Evidence Act

76. If a Sunni muslim marry with a Kitabiya girl, the marriage is —

a. Valid

b. Invalid

c. Void

d. Irregular

77. A sickman makes a bequest, and being unable to speak from weakness gives a nod with his head, and he dies without regaining the power of speech, the bequest is-

a. Void

b. Irregular

c. Valid

d. None of the above

78. Admission can be: —

a. formal only

b. informal only

c. either formal or informal

d. none of these

79. The conduct to be relevant under Section 6 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, it:

a. must be previous

b. must be subsequent

c. may be either previous or subsequent

d. none of the above

80. Married women obtained full rights over their property under:

a. Law of Property Act, 1925

b. Law Reform (Married Women and Tortfeasors) Act, 1935

c. Married Women Property Act, 1882

d. Transfer of Property Act, 1882

81. Natural justice may be excluded when:

a. Statute explicitly excludes it

b. Emergency situations

c. Public interest requires

d. All of the above

82. Judicial Review of the 9th Schedule of the Constitution has been made permissible by which of the following case decided by the Supreme Court?

a. Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

b. M. Nagraj v. Union of India

c. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

d. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu

83. The Specific Relief Act mainly deals with:

a. Equitable remedies in civil law

b. Criminal offences

c. Taxation matters

d. Constitutional remedies

84. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with the third person is:

a. A principal

b. A pawnor

c. An agent

d. A bailor

85. Contributory negligence implies:

a. Fault of defendant only

b. Fault of plaintiff only

c. Fault of both plaintiff and defendant

d. Fault of court

86. The attestation of document means-

a. The attesting witness is aware of contents of the document.

b. The attesting witness seen the executant sign or affix mark.

c. Received from the executant a personal acknowledgement of his signature.

d. Both the attesting witness seen the executant sign or affix mark and received from the executant a personal acknowledgement of his signature.

87. Under Section 182 of the Contract Act 1872, National Textile Corporation Ltd. is:

a. a Government department

b. an agent of the Central Government

c. not an agent of the Central Government

d. an agent of the Central Government if the President consents

88. Under Section 36 of the BNS a person can claim right of Private defence against:

a. A child below 7 years of age

b. A person of unsound mind

c. One who is acting under a mistake of fact

d. All of the above

89. Which one of the following is not essential for a valid marriage under Muslim Law?

a. Offer and acceptance

b. Competent parties

c. Fosterage

d. Free consent

90. Section 62 of Contract Act relates to the

a. Novation

b. Agency

c. Breach

d. Compensation

91. If there is no escape, then:

a. Rylands rule does not apply

b. Strict liability applies

c. Criminal law applies

d. Contract law applies

92. The scope of tort law includes protection of:

a. Rights in rem

b. Rights in personam

c. Both

d. None

93. The doctrine of Wednesbury unreasonableness originated in:

a. India

b. England

c. USA

d. France

94. Section 27 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Holding out

b. Liability of firm for misapplication by partners

c. Transfer of partner’s interest

d. Dissolution of firm

95. The main purpose of Section 20 is:

a. To define marriage

b. To ensure factual clarity and prevent collusion

c. To fix jurisdiction

d. To provide punishment

96. If the month of maturity has no corresponding day:

a. The first day of the month is taken

b. The second day is taken

c. The last day of that month is taken

d. The instrument becomes void

97. The exclusive jurisdiction of a Court of Small Causes under Section 16 operates within:

a. Entire State

b. Local limits of its jurisdiction

c. Territorial jurisdiction of High Court

d. National jurisdiction

98. The Wagon Mound case introduced the test of:

a. Direct consequences

b. Reasonable foreseeability

c. Absolute liability

d. Strict liability

99. Delivery to a carrier for transmission to buyer is:

a. Not delivery

b. Conditional delivery

c. Prima facie deemed delivery to buyer

d. Void delivery

100. The Act applies to which of the following by religion?

a. Only Hindus

b. Hindus, Buddhists, Jainas, and Sikhs

c. Only Hindus and Sikhs

d. All religions without exception

101. Article 32 was called:

a. Heart and soul of Constitution

b. Basic law

c. Criminal code

d. Property law

102. Which of the following case is known as Fundamental Right Case?

a. ADM Jabalpur Case

b. Keshavananda Bharti Case

c. Golaknath Case

d. Maneka Gandhi Case

103. A trust may be created for:

a. Any purpose

b. Any lawful purpose

c. Only charitable purpose

d. Only religious purpose

104. The Section provides the procedure for proving previous conviction or acquittal

a. Section 353 of BNSS

b. Section 334 of BNSS

c. Section 295 of BNSS

d. Section 364 of BNSS

105. Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:

a. Arbitration agreement

b. Extent of judicial intervention

c. Appointment of arbitrators

d. Enforcement of arbitral awards

106. Exception arises where buyer makes known:

a. Price

b. Quantity

c. Particular purpose

d. Delivery time

107. Section 16(b) bars relief where the plaintiff:

a. Performs contract fully

b. Becomes incapable of performing his part

c. Registers the contract

d. Pays consideration

108. Preamble is the part of Constitution: —

a. Yes

b. No

c. Maybe

d. May not be

109. Under Section 7(1), the authority whose sanction is required before fixing times of sitting is:

a. High Court

b. District Court

c. State Government

d. Magistrate

110. Which of the following is correct regarding consideration for guarantee?

a. It must move to the surety

b. It may move to the principal debtor

c. It is not required

d. It must be in writing

111. Under Muslim Law, a married woman shall be entitled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of marriage on the ground that 'where about of husband have not be known for a period of four years', as provided under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 in —

a. Section 2(i)

b. Section 2(ii)

c. Section 2(iii)

d. Section 2(iv)

112. A male teacher during, examination, while conducting search, put his hands in the pocket of “the pant of a girl candidate thinking her to be a boy. Here the teacher, under the BNS,' has committed the offence under Section

a. 74

b. 115

c. 79

d. No offence

113. Rule against perpetuity is a: —

a. Rule against transfer of property

b. Rule favouring transfer of property

c. Rule fixing the maximum period of time for which vesting of property can be postponed

d. includes all

114. Right to legal representation refers to:

a. Right to counsel

b. Right to property

c. Right to vote

d. Right to religion

115. 'M', the mother of a Muslim minor daughter contracted her in marriage in the life time of the father who has become an apostate. The marriage is —

a. Bad in law

b. Irregular

c. Valid

d. Void

116. Absolute privilege applies to:

a. Parliamentary proceedings

b. Judicial proceedings

c. Statements by judges

d. All of the above

117. The Supreme Court of India held that the right to life includes the right to enjoy unpolluted air and water was made in one of the following cases: —

a. Francis Coralie v. the Administrator, Union Territory of Delhi

b. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra, Dehradun v. State of Uttar Pradesh

c. S.jagannath v. Union of India (ShrimpCulture Case)

d. Subash Kumar v. State of Bihar

118. Time limit for filing appeal under Section 28 is:

a. 30 days

b. 60 days

c. 90 days from decree or order

d. 1 year

119. Which Fundamental Right is available to all per-sons?

a. Right to form Union

b. Protection of life and personal liberty

c. Right to assemble peaceably

d. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

120. In case there is a conflict between the Preamble and other provisions of the Constitution, which will prevail over the other: —

a. Preamble will prevail

b. Other provision will prevail

c. Both will go side by side

d. Interpretation of the Supreme Court will prevail

121. The person for whose benefit the trust is created is:

a. Trustee

b. Agent

c. Beneficiary

d. Settlor

122. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?

Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 3(5) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, means:

1. Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act

2. Implication of a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the group

3. A desire of several persons to commit an act without contemplating the consequences

Item B: Within the meaning of Section 190 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly's means:

1. In relation to common intention of the group

2. In order to attain the common object

3. In relation to a common object

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. 1 and 2 of both items

b. 1 and 3 of both items

c. 2 alone of both items

d. 3 along of both items

123. Where a firm constituted for a fixed term continues business after expiry of that term, the mutual rights and duties of partners remain the same as before the expiry:

a. Without any qualification

b. Subject to approval of the Registrar

c. So far as they are consistent with the incidents of partnership at will

d. Only if a fresh agreement is executed

124. A judicial authority shall refer parties to arbitration unless it finds that:

a. Arbitration proceedings are inconvenient

b. The arbitration agreement is voidable

c. Prima facie no valid arbitration agreement exists

d. The tribunal lacks expertise

125. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the: —

a. Italian Constitution

b. Canadian Constitution

c. French Constitution

d. Constitution of USA

126. Transfer of Property Act came into force on: —

a. July01,1882

b. August01,1882

c. September 01,1882

d. October 01,1882

127. According to section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the provisions of some sections shall not apply in the case of transfer of property for the benefit of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health safety or any other object beneficial to mankind. These sections are: —

a. 13,14,15 & 16

b. 14,16 & 17

c. 14,16,17 & 18

d. 14,15 & 20

128. As per Section 124, a contract of indemnity is a contract:

a. To perform the promise of a third party

b. To compensate for loss caused by conduct of promisor or another person

c. To sell goods at a future date

d. To share profits

129. In which of the trials hearing of the accused an sentence is not necessary?

a. Trial before a Court of Session

b. Trial of warrant cases

c. Trial of summons cases

d. All of these

130. The defence of necessity applies when:

a. An act is done to prevent greater harm

b. An act is done intentionally

c. An act is done negligently

d. An act is done illegally

131. The consequences of non-compliance with the order to answer interrogatories or for discovery or inspection of documents have been dealt with under

a. Order XI, Rule 12 of the Civil Procedure Code

b. Order XII, Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code

c. Order XI, Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code

d. Order XII, Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code

132. Tort law belongs to which branch of law?

a. Criminal law

b. Civil law

c. Constitutional law

d. Administrative law

133. Section 5 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Admission of partners

b. Partnership arising from contract and not from status

c. Registration of partnership

d. Rights of partners

134. If petitions are filed in different district courts:

a. Both courts decide separately

b. Earlier petition is dismissed

c. Later petition is transferred to court of earlier petition

d. Supreme Court decides

135. Defamation means:

a. Injury to property

b. Injury to reputation

c. Injury to person

d. Injury to contract

136. The nature of Revision under Code of Civil Procedure is that

a. it operates as a stay of the proceeding

b. it operates as a stay of proceedings and suit both.

c. it operates as a stay of suit.

d. it shall not operate as a stay of the suit or proceedings except where such suit or proceedings is stayed by the High Court.

137. Which of the following can be issued against private individual as well as public authority?

1. Habeas corpus

2. Mandamus

3. Prohibition

Select the correct answer given above

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

138. The concept of judicial review in India is inspired by the Constitution of-

a. Britain

b. France

c. USA

d. Switzerland

139. The person named in the instrument to whom the money is directed to be paid is called:

a. Holder

b. Drawer

c. Payee

d. Indorser

140. Right to information is essential part of Article: —

a. 19(l)(a)

b. 21

c. 19(l)(g)

d. None of these

141. Maitland stated that equity came to:

a. Eliminate legal rules

b. Supplement and explain the law

c. Punish offenders

d. Restrict judicial discretion

142. Which statement is correct regarding revocation of continuing guarantee?

a. It cancels liability for past transactions

b. It cancels all liabilities

c. It affects only future transactions after notice

d. It is not allowed by law

143. Defamation in spoken form is called:

a. Libel

b. Slander

c. Battery

d. Assault

144. For creating an interest in favour of an unborn person, which of the following is essential?

a. Creation of a prior life interest in favour of living persons

b. Unborn person must be born before the termination of last prior life interest

c. Absolute interest is to.be given to unborn person

d. All of the above

145. Section 6 of BNSS provides

a. Territorial jurisdiction

b. Classes of criminal courts

c. Jurisdiction of criminal courts

d. Power of magistrate

146. Corporate legal personality means:

a. Company and members are the same person

b. Company has no legal existence

c. Company is a separate legal entity distinct from its members

d. Company exists only during the life of shareholders

147. Which of the following is regarded as the first feature of corporate personality?

a. Common seal

b. Perpetual succession

c. Independent corporate existence

d. Transferability of shares

148. The case which established the principle of separate legal entity is:

a. Foss v Harbottle

b. Ashbury Railway Carriage Co. v Riche

c. Donoghue v Stevenson

d. Salomon v Salomon & Co. Ltd.

149. In Salomon v Salomon & Co. Ltd., it was held that:

a. Company has no legal personality

b. Shareholders and company are the same

c. Company is a separate legal person

d. Directors are owners of company assets

150. One effect of independent corporate existence is that:

a. Company property belongs to shareholders personally

b. Company cannot sue or be sued

c. Company can hold property in its own name

d. Directors become owners of company debts

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