Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test

 

1. The right of stoppage in transit is available to:

a. Buyer

b. Paid seller

c. Unpaid seller who has parted with possession

d. Carrier

 

2. Fine for contravention of Section 5(iv) or (v) may extend to:

a. ₹10,000

b. ₹5,000

c. ₹1,000

d. ₹100

 

3. The correct sequence in formation of contract is:

a. offer, consideration, acceptance, agreement

b. agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance

c. offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration

d. offer, acceptance, consideration, agreement

 

4. ‘A’ lets the farm to ‘B’ on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The lease is void under:—

a. Section 23 of T.P.A.

b. Section 24 of T.P.A.

c. Section 25 of T.P.A.

d. None of the above

 

5. An example of public nuisance is:

a. Obstruction of public road

b. Noise in private house

c. Trespass to land

d. Breach of contract

 

6. Liability of the acceptor continues when:

a. The indorsement is forged and he knew it

b. The holder is negligent

c. The bill is overdue

d. The bank refuses payment

 

7. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance is the essence of:

a. Section 21A of C.P.C.

b. Section 20 of C.P.C.

c. Section 22 of C.P.C.

d. Section 21 of C.P.C.

 

8. The referral court must ensure that the mediated settlement is free from:

a. Arbitration clauses

b. Coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation

c. Judicial review

d. Tribunal interference

 

9. Plea bargaining under Indian law implies:

a. bargain for declaration that the accused is innocent

b. bargain for dilution of the charge

c. bargain for lesser punishment or release on probation on accepting the charge

d. plea for lesser punishment and dilution of the charge

 

10. Section 178A of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Pledge by mercantile agent

b. Pledge by person under voidable contract

c. Rights of pawnor

d. Bailment

 

11. The maximum fine for contravention of registration rules is:

a. ₹10

b. ₹25

c. ₹100

d. ₹500

 

12. According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the following heads?

a. Equality after law

b. Equality of fixed rules of law

c. Equality under law

d. Equality before law

 

13. The adjournment power exercised by the Registrar or chief ministerial officer is originally a power of:

a. State Government

b. High Court

c. The Court itself

d. District Magistrate

 

14. Doctrine of laches means:

a. Equality before law

b. Delay defeats equity

c. Criminal punishment

d. Contract formation

 

15. Which of the following properties has not been recognized by courts as immovable property?

a. Right of way

b. Right to collect rent of immovable property

c. A right of worship

d. Right of fishery

 

16. The Amendment of Transfer of Property Act, 1982 in the year 2002 effective from: —

a. 31st December, 2002

b. 1st July, 2002

c. 30th October, 2002

d. 2nd July, 2002

 

17. Section 27 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Custody of children

b. Disposal of property presented at or about the time of marriage

c. Divorce by mutual consent

d. Maintenance pendente lite

 

18. Every person who is arrested or detained is re-quired to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of: —

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

d. None of these

 

19. Section 5 allows recovery by:

a. A person entitled to possession

b. Any person claiming interest

c. Only government authorities

d. Only registered owners

 

20. The liability of the surety may differ from the principal debtor if:

a. Law requires it

b. Court orders it

c. It is provided otherwise in the contract

d. Creditor decides it

 

21. Entry onto another’s land without permission is:

a. Nuisance

b. Trespass to land

c. Defamation

d. Battery

 

22. In such case, the bailee:

a. Has no liability

b. Must compensate the bailor for loss

c. Shares ownership

d. Transfers goods

 

23. Which case is an example of damnum sine injuria?

a. Ashby v White

b. Gloucester Grammar School Case

c. Donoghue v Stevenson

d. Rylands v Fletcher

 

24. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void?

a. Article 12

b. Article 13

c. Article 11

d. Article 21

 

25. The person specified in an indorsement in full is called:

a. Drawee

b. Drawer

c. Holder

d. Indorsee

 

26. Section 16 does NOT confer rights against:

a. Parents

b. Government

c. Third parties’ property rights

d. Guardians

 

27. A secondary victim is:

a. Person indirectly affected

b. Driver causing accident

c. Judge

d. Doctor

 

28. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A hangman who hangs the convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of

a. Section 19 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Section 14 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. Section 16 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Section 13 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

 

29. In M.C. Mehta case, the court held that industries engaged in hazardous activities have:

a. Absolute duty to ensure safety

b. Limited duty

c. No duty

d. Contractual duty

 

30. Which one of the following statements refers to epistolary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

a. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131

b. Taking cognizance of public interest litigation matters through letters addressed to the Court

c. Enforcement of decrees and orders

d. Supreme Court under Article 142

 

31. Before the commencement of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of immovable property in India was governed by the: -

a. Principles of English Law and Equity

b. Indian Registration Act, 1908

c. British State of Goods Act, 1880

d. Indian Contract Act, 1872

 

32. According to section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the provisions of some sections shall not apply in the case of transfer of property for the benefit of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health safety or any other object beneficial to mankind. These sections are: —

a. 13,14,15 & 16

b. 14,16 & 17

c. 14,16,17 & 18

d. 14,15 & 20

 

33. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet they are: —

a. fundamental in the governance of the country

b. binding on the State

c. enforceable at the instance of the President of India

d. superior of Fundamental Rights

 

34. If a Christian or Jew embraces Islam. His marriage with Christian or Jewish wife is-

a. Dissolved

b. Not dissolved

c. Depends

d. None of the above

 

35. In McLoughlin v O’Brian, the plaintiff saw her injured family at:

a. Court

b. Accident site

c. Hospital

d. Police station

 

36. Section 41 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Forged drawer

b. Liability of acceptor despite forged indorsement

c. Holder in due course

d. Payment in due course

 

37. Which article empowers the Parliament to make provisions for the discharge of the President's functions in any contingency not provided for elsewhere?

a. Article 69

b. Article 70

c. Article 68

d. Article 66

 

38. After the death of the husband, a Muslim wife can retain possession over her husband's property until dower is paid. This is her right of —

a. Pre-emption

b. Recovery

c. Retention

d. Pledge

 

39. Which provision specifically enables the court to pronounce judgment in case the defendant fails to file written statement or subsequent pleadings?

a. Order X, Rule 8 CPC

b. Order VIII, Rule 10 CPC

c. Order XVIII, Rule 8 CPC

d. Order XVIII, Rule 10 CPC

 

40. When was Magna Carta granted in England?

a. 1832

b. 1911

c. 1949

d. 1215

 

41. Breach of contract may be

a. actual only.

b. anticipatory only

c. actual or anticipatory

d. none of above

 

42. Provisions regarding confession made to a police officer is given in which section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.?

a. Section 24

b. Section 23(1)

c. Section 26

d. Section 27

 

43. In which case did the Supreme Court observe “Equality of opportunity admits discrimination with reason and prohibits discrimination without reason”?

a. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

b. Air India v. Nargesh Mirza

c. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib

d. Anwar ali Sarkar v. State of West Bengal

 

44. The condition for transfer of property is that the goods must be:

a. Delivered

b. Paid for

c. Ascertained

d. Inspected

 

45. Which one of the under mentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as right to freedom under Article 19:

a. right to vote

b. right to citizenship

c. right to contest election

d. right to assemble peacefully without arms

 

46. Rule against perpetuity is applicable to: —

a. movable property only

b. immovable property only

c. both, movable and immovable properties

d. transfer for benefit of public

 

47. Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 namely

a. A decree holder

b. Legal representative, if the decree holder is dead

c. A person claiming under decree holder

d. Judgment debtor

 

48. The proceedings which may continue under Section 35 include proceedings:

a. Only before decree

b. Only after decree

c. Both before and after decree

d. Only appellate proceedings

 

49. In the absence of contrary trade usage, the implied authority of a partner does not include the power to:

a. Withdraw a suit filed on behalf of the firm

b. Buy goods for the firm

c. Hire employees for the firm

d. Collect debts due to the firm

 

50. In case the suit has been instated in a court having no jurisdiction, territorial or pecuniary, the plaint is liable to be

a. returned

b. rejected

c. either (a) or (b), (d)

d. none of the above

 

51. ‘A’ contracts to pay ‘B’ a sum of Rs. 10,000 when ‘B’ marries ‘C’. This is a type of under Indian Contract Act, 1872.

a. Contingent contract

b. Vested contract

c. Illegal contract

d. Voidable contract

 

52. A, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his house keeper. In return, B agreed to pay A Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is:

a. valid

b. void

c. void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object

d. unlawful being opposed to public policy

 

53. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by-

a. Supreme Court alone

b. By all courts

c. Supreme Court as well as High Courts

d. None of the Courts

 

54. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in: —

a. the Right to Freedom

b. the Right to Personal liberty

c. the Right to Equality

d. the Right against Exploitation

 

55. X transfers Rs. 5,000 to Y on condition that he shall marry with the consent of A, B and C, Y married without the consent of A, B and C but obtains their consent after the marriage. Y has: —

a. fulfilled the condition

b. not fulfilled the condition

c. substantially complied with

d. none of the above

 

56. The Muslim Women [Protection of Rights on Divorce] Act was enacted in —

a. 1996

b. 1946

c. 1966

d. 1986

 

57. Relief against penalties and forfeitures reflects the equitable principle that:

a. Compensation must always equal the penalty mentioned in the contract

b. The main objective of the contract is performance rather than punishment

c. Contracts must always be terminated upon breach

d. Penalties must always be strictly enforced

 

58. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was-

a. Jawaharlal Nehru

b. Jaiprakash Narayan

c. Rajagopalachari

d. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

 

59. Under Muslim Law, the marriage whether con¬summated or not, Iddat has to be observed in case of —

a. Divorce by husband only

b. Death of husband only

c. Both divorce by husband and death of husband

d. None of the above

 

60. Which one of the following properties may be transferred?

a. Mere easement

b. A right to future maintenance

c. Immovable property

d. A mere right to sue

 

61. The pawnee has a right to retain the goods pledged:

a. for payment of debt interest & all necessary expenses in respect of goods pledged'

b. for payment of debt other than the debt in respect of goods pledged

c. for payment of interest & necessary expenses in respect of goods other than the one pledged

d. all the above

 

62. Under which Article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state?

a. Art. 3

b. Art. 4

c. Art. 5

d. Art. 368

 

63. Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a:

a. bailor

b. surety

c. bailee

d. none of the above

 

64. International commercial arbitration under Section 2(1)(f) relates to disputes arising out of:

a. Criminal relationships

b. Legal relationships considered commercial under Indian law

c. Administrative relationships

d. Constitutional relationships

 

65. Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Factual Situation: A, B, C and D who were unemployed, decided to loot the house of a rich businessman one night. When all of them were about to jump the compound wall, D decided to remain at the gate and warn them, in case of any problem. A, B and C entered the house and took cash and gold ornaments. While coming out of the house B tripped on a rubber hose pipe creating a sound. By this the watchman who had otherwise asleep woke up. B suddenly took the rubber hose and strangled the watchman's neck thus killing him. Later all A, B, C and D were arrested and prosecuted.

a. A, B, C and D are all liable for the robbery. B in addition, is liable for the minder of the Watchman as murdering any one was not in their plan.

b. A, B and C are all liable for the robbery. B in addition, is liable for the murder of the Watchman. D is innocent of both the crimes as he was only guarding at the gate and did not participate in the crimes.

c. A, B, C and D are all liable for the robbery and murder of the Watchman as it was done in order to carry out their common plan.

d. A, B and C are liable for the robbery and murder of the Watchman as it was in fulfillment of their common plan. D is innocent as he did not participate in any of the crimes.

 

66. The Bombay High Court ruled that a family court can legally dissolve the marriage of a Muslim couple by mutual consent under Muslim Personal Law. This was held in which case?

a. Md. Sonu @ Sonu v. The State of Jharkhand & Ors., 2022

b. Shaikh Taslim Shaikh Hakim vs The State Of Maharashtra And Another, 2022

c. Javed v. State of Haryana and Others, 2022

d. Mohammed Salim v. Shamsudeen & Ors. (2019) 4 SCC 130

 

67. Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India guaran-tees the 'right against Self-incrimination' to-

a. A witness

b. An accused

c. Any person

d. None of the above

 

68. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 359 of BNSS is dead, then—

a. Offence cannot be compounded

b. Offence can be compounded by any eye witness

c. Offence can be compounded by the legal representative of such person without the consent of the court

d. legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the court

 

69. Desertion must be for a continuous period of:

a. 1 year

b. 2 years

c. 3 years

d. 5 years

 

70. Reservation of seats in educational Institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by

a. Article 15(5) of the Constitution

b. Article 16(4) of the Constitution

c. Article 29(2) of the Constitution

d. Article 14 of the Constitution

 

71. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?

a. D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat

b. MR Balaji v. State of Mysore

c. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

d. T. Devadasan v. Union of India

 

72. “Escape” in Rylands rule means:

a. Movement of substance outside defendant’s control

b. Movement within property

c. Transfer by contract

d. Intentional damage

 

73. Which maxim means “where there is a right there is a remedy”?

a. Volenti non fit injuria

b. Res ipsa loquitur

c. Ubi jus ibi remedium

d. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

 

74. A partner's implied authority does not empower him to:

a. Admit liability in a suit against the firm

b. Enter into routine contracts for the firm

c. Purchase trading stock

d. Collect money due to the firm

 

75. The words, 'procedure established by law' in Article 21 means-

a. that due process of law must be followed

b. a procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority.

c. the same things as due process of law

d. a law which is reasonably fair and just

 

76. A man is prohibited to marry his daughter on the ground of-

a. Affinity

b. Consanguinity

c. Fosterage

d. None of the above

 

77. Judicial review of delegated legislation ensures:

a. Criminal punishment

b. Unlimited administrative power

c. Removal of courts

d. Protection against misuse of delegated powers

 

78. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of performance of a contract being void, is based:

a. On the theory of implied term

b. On the theory of just and reasonable solution

c. On supervening impossibility or illegality as laid down in Section 56 of Indian Contract Act

d. On the principle of unjust enrichment

 

79. In granting decree, court must also consider:

a. Political status of parties

b. Whether there is any legal ground to refuse relief

c. Religion only

d. Age only

 

80. Standard form of contract is also known as:

a. contract of adhesion

b. unilateral contract

c. specific contract

d. Both (a) and (b)

 

81. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers

b. The Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspiration of the people.

c. The Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution.

d. The Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Constitution

 

82. ‘A' and 'B' are jointly tried for the murder of ‘C. It is proved that ‘A’ said, "B and I murdered C" What is the nature of confession against 'B'?

a. Substantive evidence

b. Only corroborate evidence

c. Hearsay evidence

d. None of these

 

83. When a Muslim mother loses her right of Hizanat- (custody)?

a. By her apostasy

b. By her misconduct

c. By marrying within degree of prohibited relationship

d. All of the above

 

84. If a person purchases property for valuable consideration without notice of a prior equitable right and obtains legal estate, he:

a. Loses priority

b. Gains priority both in equity and at law

c. Must share property equally

d. Cannot claim ownership

 

85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

           List-I                                        List-II

A. Doctrine of                             (1) Taylor v. 

frustration                                        Caldwell

B. Special damages                   (2) Hochester v.

                                                          De la Tour

C. Anticipatory breach              (3) Tim v. Hoffman

of contract                                       dr Co.

D. Cross-offer                            (4) Hadley v.

                                                          Baxendale

Codes:

     A    B   C   D

a. 1    4   2   3

b. 2    4   3   1

c. 3    4   1   2

d. 1   2    3    4

 

86. A agrees to sell to B a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. It turns out that before the day of the bargain the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost. Neither party was aware of these facts. The agreement is:

a. voidable at the option of A

b. voidable at the option of B

c. void

d. valid

 

87. 'Which one of the following' is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

a. Organization of Village Panchayats.

b. Uniform Civil Code for citizens and non-citizens.

c. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.

d. Separation of Judiciary from executive.

 

88. If a partner incurs a penalty by wrongful conduct in the ordinary course of the firm’s business:

a. Only the partner is liable

b. The firm is liable to the same extent as the partner

c. The Registrar becomes liable

d. Liability depends on capital contribution

 

89. According to Section 2(c), “trust” includes:

a. Obligation in the nature of a trust under Chapter IX of the Indian Trusts Act

b. Only express trusts

c. Only charitable trusts

d. Only religious trusts

 

90. The stipulation that facts which enable the court to determine the amount of damages are relevant is incorporated in Section of Bhartiya sakshaya adhiniyam.

a. 10

b. 9

c. 8

d. 11

 

91. The Supreme Court exercises judicial review mainly under:

a. Article 300

b. Article 14

c. Article 32

d. Article 51

 

92. Section 4 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Definitions

b. Application

c. Overriding effect of Act

d. Conditions for marriage

 

93. A retired partner is not liable to a third party who deals with the firm:

a. After public notice only

b. Without knowing that he was a partner

c. Only if the firm is dissolved

d. Only if the firm changes its name

 

94. How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue or the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

a. Six

b. Four

c. Five

d. Three

 

95. "Necessity" as a defense cannot be claimed when the act has been done

a. With good faith

b. Without criminal intent

c. With inherent risk of causing harm

d. For avoiding other greater harm

 

96. Administrative law deals primarily with:

a. Relations between private individuals

b. Powers and functions of administrative authorities

c. Criminal offences

d. Contractual obligations

 

97. Who may bind himself by making, drawing, accepting, indorsing, delivering or negotiating a negotiable instrument?

a. Every person capable of contracting

b. Only bankers

c. Only companies

d. Only government officers

 

98. Partners are required to render true accounts and full information of all things affecting the firm to:

a. Only the managing partner

b. Only the Registrar of Firms

c. Any partner or his legal representative

d. Only the creditors of the firm

 

99. Intoxication is an excusable defense to criminal liability if it is

a. Administered against the will of the offender

b. Administered without the knowledge of the offender

c. Both (a) and (b) above

d. None of the above

 

100. Which of the following is listed as an application of the maxim “He who seeks equity must do equity”?

a. Restitution of benefits and cancellation of transactions

b. Judicial review

c. Doctrine of basic structure

d. Promissory sovereignty

 

101. The following is not immovable property: —

a. Royalty

b. Right to way

c. Right to fishing

d. Right to redemption

 

102. If the defendant proves the statement is true:

a. He is liable

b. He is not liable

c. Plaintiff wins automatically

d. Criminal case arises

 

103. Damage in negligence must be:

a. Remote

b. Hypothetical

c. Actual

d. Intentional

 

104. State which of the following statements is correct: —

a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution

b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure,

c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution,

d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution

 

105. Who may examine the expert in court?

a. Only the judge

b. Only plaintiff

c. Court or parties with permission of the court

d. Only defendant

 

106. Comparative negligence is widely adopted in:

a. Modern legal systems

b. Ancient law

c. Criminal law only

d. Contract law only

 

107. Time limit for disposing Section 24 application is:

a. 30 days

b. 60 days from service of notice

c. 90 days

d. 1 year

 

108. Under which section of BNSS a Police Officer can release an accused on bail in non-bailable case?

a. Section 336

b. Section 367

c. Section 478

d. Section 480

 

109. 'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following?

a. The Indian Council Act, 1909

b. The Government of India Act, 1935

c. The Government of India Act, 1919

d. None of the above

 

110. Article 39(a) of the Constitution of India obliges the State of secure: —

a. an adequate means of livelihood

b. equal pay for equal work for both men and women

c. the material resources are so distributed to serve the common good

d. the health and strength of workers, men and women and the tender age of children are not abused and the citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength

 

111. Steps taken by trustee must be:

a. Arbitrary

b. Optional

c. Reasonably requisite

d. Mandatory in all cases

 

112. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases?

a. Article 71

b. Article 72

c. Article 162

d. Article 77

 

113. Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the very soul of the Constitution.

Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedies against violation of Funda-mental Rights.

Code:

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

114. Minimum period for Muta marriage is —

a. One month

b. One year

c. Three months

d. No minimum period

 

115. Sovereign immunity means:

a. State cannot be sued

b. State always liable

c. State liable for all acts

d. State liable for criminal acts

 

116. Article 20 of the Constitution of India has close relationship with-

a. Article 11 (1) of the Universal Declaration of Hu¬man Rights, 1948

b. Article 16 of the U.N. Covenant on Civil and Po¬litical Rights, 1966

c. Article 15(1) of the Constitution of the United States

d. Article 50 of the Japanese Constitution of 1946

 

117. Which of the following is immovable property?

a. Copyright

b. Profits a prendre

c. Royalty

d. Credit

 

118. Which Article outlines the qualifications for election as President?

a. Article 57

b. Article 58

c. Article 59

d. Article 60

 

119. Judicial review power of Supreme Court forms part of:

a. Basic structure

b. Ordinary law

c. Contract law

d. Property law

 

120. Under the common law rule of intestate succession mentioned in the text, the eldest son inherited the estate:

a. Along with his siblings equally

b. Along with the daughters only

c. To the exclusion of his younger brothers and sisters

d. Only after court approval

 

121. Which of the following is an essential element of a tort?

a. Legal injury

b. Damages

c. Breach of duty

d. All of the above

 

122. A “breach of trust” refers to:

a. Criminal offence only

b. Breach of contract

c. Violation of trustee’s duty imposed by law

d. Failure to register trust

 

123. Acknowledgement of legitimacy about a child made by a Muslim is-

a. Revocable

b. Irrevocable

c. Immaterial

d. None of the above

 

124. Which Section is based on the maxim 'Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem cause' i.e. a man shall not be twice vexed for one and the same cause?

a. Section 337

b. Section 301

c. Section 302

d. Section 303

 

125. A marriage is not invalid under Section 29 merely due to:

a. Age difference

b. Gotra or caste differences

c. Non-registration

d. Lack of consent

 

126. The term “Award and Decree” is used to denote

a. the order of Commissioner of Income Tax

b. the order of Collector passed while recovering the revenue

c. order of Civil Court, Arbitrator, Industrial Court, Cooperative Court etc.

d. final order of Supreme Court

 

127. Section 21 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 deals with:

a. Investment restrictions

b. Mortgage and Government Savings Bank deposit

c. Trustee liability

d. Beneficiary rights

 

128. ‘Public Interest Litigation’ is filed in: —

a. Subordinate Courts

b. High Court or Supreme Court

c. Only Supreme Court

d. Central Administrative Tribunal

 

129. Which statement is correct under Section 138?

a. Releasing one surety discharges all

b. Other co-sureties remain liable and released surety remains liable to them

c. All liabilities end

d. Guarantee becomes void

 

130. Under Section 23(2), court must first:

a. Pass decree

b. Try reconciliation between parties

c. Reject petition

d. Send to appeal

 

131. Section 7(3) provides that an arbitration agreement shall be:

a. Registered

b. In writing

c. Notarised

d. Approved by a court

 

132. In a chain of endorsements, each earlier party is treated as:

a. Surety only

b. Principal debtor for subsequent parties

c. Agent of the bank

d. Witness

 

133. Under the Provisions of the BSA

a. admissions and confessions have the same meaning

b. admissions and confessions have the different meaning

c. admissions are a matter in a criminal trial

d. confessions are a matter in a civil trial

 

134. The period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years is

a. 1 year

b. 2 years

c. 3 years

d. 4 years

 

135. The goods must become so damaged as:

a. To reduce price

b. To delay delivery

c. No longer to answer to their description in the agreement

d. To require replacement

 

136. A having advanced money to his son, B, during his minority, upon B’s coming of age obtains, by misuse of parental influence, a bond from B for a greater influence, a bond from B for a greater amount than the sum due in respect of the advance. A employs

a. coercion

b. fraud

c. undue influence

d. misrepresentation

 

137. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes: —

a. Right to strike

b. Right to collective bargaining

c. Right to lockout

d. None of these

 

138. Which one of the following does not come within the meaning of "Document" under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

a. a writing

b. a map

c. a telephonic talk

d. a word photographed

 

139. The right of lien is available to:

a. Buyer

b. Paid seller

c. Unpaid seller in possession of goods

d. Carrier

 

140. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to: —

a. The Constituent Assembly

b. The Parliament

c. The whole society

d. The people of India

 

141. Nervous shock claims are usually rejected when:

a. Shock results from hearing news later

b. Plaintiff is present at accident

c. Injury is foreseeable

d. Defendant negligent

 

142. Injunction in defamation means:

a. Court order restraining publication

b. Criminal punishment

c. Property seizure

d. Contract enforcement

 

143. Implied and contingent Talaq is not approved by —

a. Maliki

b. Shia

c. Shafei

d. All of the above

 

144. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is:

a. An Act to regulate contracts

b. An Act to define and amend the law relating to the sale of goods

c. An Act to govern immovable property

d. An Act to regulate companies

 

145. Admiralty jurisdiction does not extend over

a. Offences committed on Indian ships on the High seas

b. Offences committed on foreign merchant ships in Indian territorial water

c. Offences committed on foreign warships in Indian territorial water

d. Piracy

 

146. The short title of the Act is:

a. Indian Companies Code, 2013

b. Corporate Regulation Act, 2013

c. Companies Act, 2013

d. Company Governance Act, 2013

 

147. The Companies Act, 2013 consists of:

a. 450 Sections and 25 Chapters

b. 470 Sections and 29 Chapters

c. 480 Sections and 30 Chapters

d. 500 Sections and 32 Chapters

 

148. The Companies Act, 2013 extends to:

a. Whole of Asia

b. Whole of India

c. Union Territories only

d. States only

 

149. Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 came into force at once?

a. Entire Act

b. Section 1 only

c. Section 135 only

d. Section 149 only

 

150. Remaining provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 come into force on dates appointed by:

a. Supreme Court

b. Parliament

c. Central Government by notification in Official Gazette

d. SEBI

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