Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test

 

1. The right to ‘equality before the law’ contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India is available to: —

a. natural persons only

b. legal persons

c. citizens of India

d. all persons whether natural or legal

 

2. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on:

a. 01.07.2002

b. 01.04.2002

c. 04.01.2002

d. 01.06.2002

 

3. Muta marriage is a concept in —

a. Hindu Law

b. Mohammedan Law

c. Contract Act

d. Special Marriage Act

 

4. The purpose of administrative assistance under Section 6 is to:

a. Resolve disputes between parties

b. Facilitate the conduct of arbitral proceedings

c. Review arbitral awards

d. Supervise arbitral tribunals

 

5. Under Section 3, the term “banker” also includes:

a. Insurance companies

b. Cooperative societies

c. Post Office Savings Bank

d. Reserve Bank of India only

 

6. “No one is allowed to enrich himself at the expense of another.” This principle is known as:

a. quantum meruit

b. quantum valeat

c. quasi-contract

d. nudum pactum

 

7. Section 4 expressly states that specific relief cannot be granted for:

a. Mere enforcement of a penal law

b. Enforcement of civil rights

c. Enforcement of property rights

d. Enforcement of contractual rights

 

8. Which one of the following essentials of contract does not find place in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

a. Competency of Parties

b. Real consideration

c. Intention of contract

d. Lawful object

 

9. In which of the following circumstances, a woman in exercise of her right of private defence of the body can cause death of the perpetrator?

a. When a man demands or requests for sexual favors.

b. When a man attempts to throw or administer acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension of grievous hurt.

c. When a man captures the image of a woman engaged in a private act.

d. When a man follows a woman to foster personal interaction.

 

10. Transfer of trust-property to trustee is required unless:

a. Trust is oral

b. Trust is registered

c. Trust is declared by will or author is himself trustee

d. Trust is charitable

 

11. Section 52 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Rescission of partnership contract for fraud or misrepresentation

b. Sale of goodwill after dissolution

c. Settlement of accounts between partners

d. Restraint of trade agreements

 

12. In which of the following cases, a Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India has held that “whenever a person complains and claims that there is a violation of any provision of law or a Constitutional provision, it does not automatically involve breach of fundamental right for the enforcement of which alone Article 32 of the Constitution is attracted”:—

a. Ramdas Athwale v. Union of India

b. Mulchand v. State of M.P.

c. K.P. Choudhary v. State of M.P.

d. State of Kerala v. KM. Cheria Abdulla

 

13. Petition for declaring marriage void may be filed by:

a. Only husband

b. Only wife

c. Either party to the marriage

d. State Government

 

14. Re Polemis case established the rule of:

a. Reasonable foreseeability

b. Direct consequence

c. Absolute liability

d. Strict liability

 

15. Quo Warranto means:

a. By what authority

b. Produce body

c. Hear other side

d. Command authority

 

16. The test to decide whether something attached to the earth has to be regarded as immovable or not, depends on any one of the following?

a. The decree or mode of annexation

b. Place of annexation

c. The object of annexation

d. Both (a) and (c)

 

17. The Code of Civil Procedure mentioned in Section 33 is:

a. Act 12 of 1882

b. Act 13 of 1882

c. Act 14 of 1882

d. Act 15 of 1882

 

18. The liability under Public Liability Insurance Act is based on:

a. No fault principle

b. Criminal liability

c. Contract law

d. Constitutional law

 

19. Section 5 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam does not include which one of the following?

a. Occasion

b. Cause

c. Purpose

d. Effect

 

20. According to Section 2(1)(h), “party” means:

a. Any witness in arbitration

b. Any arbitrator

c. A party to an arbitration agreement

d. Any person interested in the dispute

 

21. Which of the following gifts is not valid?

a. Gift in future

b. Conditional gift

c. Gift based on wagering contract or contingent contract

d. All of the above

 

22. Under Muslim Law, the only natural guardian is-

a. Father

b. Mother

c. Grand-father

d. Grand-mother

 

23. The Last Opportunity Rule is also known as:

a. Last Clear Chance Rule

b. Final Decision Rule

c. Direct Consequence Rule

d. Absolute Liability Rule

 

24. Section 2 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Definitions

b. Application of Act

c. Conditions of marriage

d. Restitution of conjugal rights

 

25. In disputes over property transfer where both parties have equal equities, the party who succeeds is:

a. The one with moral advantage

b. The one with legal right

c. The one who files the case first

d. The one who pays more money

 

26. “Article 21A-Right to education to all children of the age of six — fourteen years” has been inserted — the Constitution by: —

a. The Constitution43rd Amendment Act, 1977

b. The Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002

c. The Constitution 70th Amendment Act, 1992

d. The Constitution 74th Amendment Act, 1992

 

27. "Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution." This was described by-

a. Granville Austin

b. A. V. Dicey

c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

d. K. C. Wheare

 

28. According to Supreme Court of India Jat community of various States is: —

a. backward class under Article 16(4)

b. not backward class under Article 16(4)

c. mainly socially backward class

d. not politically organized class

 

29. According to Article 75, ministers hold office during the pleasure of:

a. The Prime Minister

b. The Parliament

c. The President

d. The Supreme Court

 

30. Reasonable and probable cause refers to:

a. Honest belief in guilt based on reasonable grounds

b. Personal hatred

c. Court order

d. Government decision

 

31. Admission is

a. a conclusive proof of the fact stated therein

b. not a conclusive proof but operates only as estoppel

c. a weak piece of evidence

d. an evidence on which the Court can act

 

32. The test for medical negligence is known as:

a. Donoghue test

b. Bolam test

c. Rylands test

d. Ashby test

 

33. Section 26 of the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887 originally dealt with:

a. Appeals from decrees

b. Amendment of the Second Schedule to the Code of Civil Procedure

c. Revision of decrees

d. Finality of decrees

 

34. In a summons case, at the time of appearance of the accused before the Magistrate, it is unnecessary to:

a. state the particulars of the offence of which he is accused

b. Frame a formal charge

c. Ask him whether he pleads guilty

d. Ask him whether he has any defence to make

 

35. Where a change occurs in the constitution of a firm, the mutual rights and duties of partners in the reconstituted firm:

a. Automatically terminate

b. Remain the same as they were immediately before the change, as far as may be

c. Must be renegotiated in every case

d. Are determined by the Registrar

 

36. The remedies for breach of contract are:

a. Punitive damages

b. Nominal damages

c. Compensatory damages

d. Exemplary damages

 

37. Amount under Section 24 is determined based on:

a. Only petitioner’s wish

b. Only respondent’s wish

c. Income of both petitioner and respondent

d. Court fees only

 

38. The Hindu Marriage Act applies to Hindus domiciled:

a. Only within India

b. Only outside India

c. Both within India and outside, if domiciled in territories where Act extends

d. Nowhere outside India

 

39. When the holder enters into a contract with the acceptor which would discharge other parties under the Indian Contract Act:

a. All other parties are discharged automatically

b. Holder may reserve his right to charge other parties

c. The bill becomes void

d. Court decides liability

 

40. During the term of 'Muta Marriage'-

a. The wife has a right to divorce.

b. The husband has a right to divorce.

c. Husband and wife both have a right to divorce.

d. Neither the husband nor the wife has a right

 

41. Section 23 applies to:

a. Only divorce petitions

b. All proceedings under the Act

c. Only maintenance cases

d. Only appeals

 

42. The basic characteristic of a Federal Constitution is that the Constitution: —

a. is written

b. provides for division of powers in writing

c. provides for separation of powers

d. is written and provides for separation of powers

 

43. Rule against perpetuity is not applicable to a case where: —

a. Property is transferred for the benefit of the public

b. Interest in property is created “generation after generation”

c. Transfer of property purport to be effective be-yond minority of ultimate transferee, who is not in existence at the date of transfer

d. Contingent interest are created by transfer

 

44. Settlement under Section 2(b) may relate to:

a. Movable property

b. Immovable property

c. Both movable and immovable property

d. Only immovable property

 

45. Consider the following objectives stated in the Preamble of the Constitution: —

1. Equality of Status and of opportunity

2. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual

3. Justice, social, economic and political

4. Liberty of thought, expression and belief

What is the correct order in which these find places in the Preamble?

a. 4-3-2-4

b. 2-3-1-4

c. 1-4-3-2

d. 3-4-1-2

 

46. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India is related to liberty of press?

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

 

47. The person who delivers the goods is called:

a. Bailee

b. Bailor

c. Agent

d. Creditor

 

48. Article 32 provides:

a. Contract law

b. Criminal law

c. Property law

d. Remedy for fundamental rights

 

49. When an accused does not have sufficient means to engage pleader the Sessions Court may assign a pleader for his defense at the expense of the State. It is ensured by which Section of the BNSS?

a. Section 301

b. Section 341

c. Section 340

d. Section 305

 

50. Absolute liability was developed in India in:

a. M.C. Mehta v Union of India

b. Donoghue v Stevenson

c. Ashby v White

d. Blyth v Birmingham

 

51. Safeguards against the arrest and detention are provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?

a. Article 25

b. Article 22

c. Article 14

d. Article 19

 

52. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact when: —

a. He actually knows the fact

b. by May have knowledge about the fact

c. Could with reasonable care know the fact

d. Is not at all aware of the fact

 

53. While determining damages for breach of contract, which of the following are taken into account?

a. Motive

b. Indirect loss

c. Means or remedying the inconvenience caused by non-performance.

d. All of these

 

54. One limitation of the maxim is that the court considers:

a. The entire life history of the plaintiff

b. Only the conduct related to the particular suit

c. The political views of the plaintiff

d. The wealth of the defendant

 

55. An act done by a partner binds the firm if it is done:

a. Only with written consent of all partners

b. In the firm name or in a manner expressing or implying an intention to bind the firm

c. Only through the managing partner

d. Only after registration of the firm

 

56. This section applies where tax is:

a. Fixed

b. Imposed, increased, decreased or remitted after contract

c. Negotiated

d. Waived

 

57. In which section the rule against perpetuity was propounded?

a. Section 12

b. Section 13

c. Section 14

d. Section 15

 

58. The death of the surety results in:

a. Automatic discharge of all liabilities

b. Revocation of continuing guarantee for future transactions

c. Revocation for past transactions

d. No effect on guarantee

 

59. A contract by post is concluded at the place

a. from where the offer had been made

b. from where the acceptance had been posted

c. where the acceptance had been received

d. where the goods are to be delivered

 

60. The Court may dissolve a firm if a partner becomes:

a. Insolvent

b. Of unsound mind

c. Unemployed

d. Retired

 

61. "Khyar-ul-bulugh" means-

a. Option of puberty

b. A form of dower

c. A form of valid marriage

d. Infinity dower

 

62. Under which one of the following sections of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the doctrine of 'Res gestae' has been dealt with

a. Section 5

b. Section 4

c. Section 7

d. None of the above

 

63. Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is related to the

a. doctrine of election

b. doctrine of Cypres

c. doctrine of accretion

d. doctrine of apportionment

 

64. A contract of Insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event falls under the category?

a. Contingent contract

b. Contract of indemnity

c. Contract of guarantee

d. Quasi-contract

 

65. The Constitution of India secures to all its citizens-

a. Justice and Equality

b. Liberty

c. Fraternity

d. All of the above.

 

66. Section 7 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 deals with:

a. Who may create trusts

b. Subject of trust

c. Beneficiary

d. Trustee

 

67. If notice of re-sale is not given, seller:

a. Can recover damages

b. Cannot recover damages

c. Can rescind contract

d. Can sue carrier

 

68. A contract of guarantee may be:

a. Only written

b. Only oral

c. Either oral or written

d. Registered only

 

69. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. A cheque upon a banker is a document

b. A power-of-Attorney is a document

c. A writing containing directions or instructions is a document

d. A map or plan, which is intended not to be used as evidence, is a document

 

70. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’, is a: —

a. Directive Principle of State Policy

b. Statutory provision in Labor-Law

c. Fundamental Right

d. Matter of State to pass Bill

 

71. A dower debt is-

a. A secured debt

b. An actionable claim

c. A preferential debt

d. A mere right to sue

 

72. Which one of the following statements is more correct?

a. Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368

b. Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended

c. Preamble is the part of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made

d. Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective resolution

 

73. The definition of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution applies to: —

a. Part III and Part IV of the Constitution

b. Only Part III of the Constitution

c. Only Part IV of the Constitution

d. None of the above

 

74. What is a reasonable hour is:

a. Question of law

b. Fixed by statute

c. Question of fact

d. Fixed by court

 

75. Conversion is a ground for divorce when:

a. Party changes caste

b. Party ceases to be Hindu by conversion

c. Party changes residence

d. Party changes name

 

76. Negligence in tort law refers to:

a. Intentional wrongdoing

b. Breach of legal duty to take care

c. Criminal act

d. Contract breach

 

77. Which Indian case applied the Bolam test?

a. Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab

b. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India

c. MC Mehta v Union of India

d. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala

 

78. Which Article deals with the executive power of the Union?

a. Article 52

b. Article 53

c. Article 54

d. Article 55

 

79. Flood caused by extraordinary rainfall is an example of:

a. Act of God

b. Negligence

c. Battery

d. Trespass

 

80. Which of the following do not convey title?

a. Registered exchange deed

b. Registered will

c. Registered gift deed

d. Registered sale deed

 

81. “The ‘plaint’ should be filed in duplicate’, this rule was inserted by:

a. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976

b. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002

c. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2000

d. None of the above

 

82. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A): 'X' and 'Y' had independently entertained the idea to kill 'Z' Accordingly each of them separately inflicted wounds on 'Z' who dies in consequence. 'X' and 'Y' are liable for murder with the aid of Section 3(5) BNS.

Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act is done by him alone.

Codes:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

 

83. The phrase “It extends to the whole of India” refers to:

a. Territorial application of the Act

b. Subject matter jurisdiction

c. Financial jurisdiction

d. Appellate jurisdiction

 

84. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, defines ‘Notice’?

a. Section 2

b. Section 3

c. Section 5

d. Explanation II of Section 3

 

85. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child who is:

a. Under 9 years of age.

b. Under 7 years of age

c. Under 12 years of age

d. Under 16 years of age

 

86. A pledge by a person in possession under a voidable contract is valid when:

a. Contract is rescinded

b. Pawnee acts in bad faith

c. Contract is not rescinded and pawnee acts in good faith without notice

d. Owner objects

 

87. State which of the following statements is correct?

a. The American doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights is part of the Indian Constitution

b. No person can waive his fundamental rights un-der the Indian Constitution as they are sacrosanct and no individual can tinker with them.

c. A non-citizen can waive his fundamental rights

d. A citizen can waive his fundamental rights which are for his individual benefit.

 

88. Assertion (A): Right to education is a Fundamental Right.

Reason (R): Our Constitution has no provision for education before making to education as  Fundamental Right.

Code:

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

89. Under section 468, the period of detention undergone by a convict cannot be set off during:

a. investigation of the case

b. trial of the case

c. enquiry of the case

d. another case

 

90. The word Property is defined in which Section of Transfer of Property Act: —

a. Section 1

b. Section 2

c. Section 3

d. None of these

 

91. Mother's right to have the custody of minor child is known as-

a. Hizanat

b. Sadqah

c. Khula

d. Pre-emption

 

92. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution'?

a. In re: Golaknath case

b. In re: Maneka Gandhi

c. In re: Swan Singh

d. In re: Keshwananda Bharti

 

93. Injury implied in the purpose makes it:

a. Lawful

b. Conditional

c. Valid

d. Unlawful

 

94. Multifariousness means

a. Mis-joinder of causes of action

b. Mis-joinder of parties

c. Non-joinder of parties

d. Mis-joinder of causes of action as well as parties.

 

95. If a servant commits a tort while on a “frolic of his own”:

a. Employer is liable

b. Employer is not liable

c. State is liable

d. Court is liable

 

96. Which among the words appears first in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

a. Liberty

b. Equality

c. Justice

d. Fraternity

 

97. Which one of the following is not an immovable property?

a. Right to ferry

b. A decree which gives right to sell the immovable property of husband

c. Life interest of widow in the income of immovable property of her husband

d. Right to receive annual payment from any village

 

98. By which man a Muslim lady may legally marry?

a. Hindu

b. Muslim

c. Kitabiya

d. None of the above

 

99. A cheque must be drawn on:

a. Any person

b. A specified banker

c. A government authority

d. A company

 

100. Mistake as a defence in tort:

a. Always excuses liability

b. Is generally not a defence

c. Completely bars liability

d. Always reduces damages

 

101. A firm is compulsorily dissolved by the adjudication of:

a. Any one partner as insolvent

b. All partners or all partners but one as insolvent

c. The managing partner as insolvent

d. Majority of partners as insolvent

 

102. Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with:

a. Custody of children

b. Appeals from decrees and orders

c. Void marriages

d. Maintenance

 

103. The overriding effect of the Act is:

a. Prospective only

b. Retrospective for all purposes

c. Applicable to matters covered by the Act

d. Limited to urban areas

 

104. Which Article of our Constitution provides the right to freedom of speech and expression to the citizens of India?

a. Article 18

b. Article 19

c. Article 17

d. Article 20

 

105. A continuing guarantee under Section 130 is:

a. Irrevocable absolutely

b. Revocable as regards future transaction

c. Revocable absolutely

d. Either (a) or (b)

 

106. Consent of plaintiff may act as:

a. Defence to nuisance

b. Criminal offence

c. Contractual obligation

d. Strict liability

 

107. Which one of the following Sections of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 prohibits the male police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?

a. Proviso to Section 41(1)

b. Proviso to Section 42(2)

c. Proviso to Section 43(1)

d. None of the above

 

108. The purpose of separation of powers is to:

a. Prevent concentration of power

b. Increase executive power

c. Strengthen contracts

d. Strengthen criminal law

 

109. On re-sale, new buyer acquires:

a. Conditional title

b. No title

c. Good title as against original buyer

d. Void title

 

110. A master asks his servant to sell his bike to him at a price less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of:

a. coercion

b. fraud

c. mistake

d. undue influence

 

111. What is 'iddat' period prescribed for a widow un¬der Muslim law?

a. Four months and ten days

b. Four months

c. Three months and ten days

d. Three lunar months

e. None of these

 

112. According to the Constitution of India, pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights are: —

a. void

b. voidable

c. required to be examined by the courts

d. none of the above

 

113. An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one or more of the parties and not of other or others under- Section 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act is called:

a. A valid contract

b. An illegal contract

c. A void contract

d. A voidable contract

 

114. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: —

       List-I                              List-II

(Constitution)                    (Subject)

A. Article 17                   1. Maternity relief

B. Article 42                   2. Abolition of

                                           untouchability

C. Article 21                   3. Freedom of Press

D. Article 19                   4. Protection of life and

                                            personal liberty

code

    A B C D

a. 3 4 2 1

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 4 3 1

d. 2 1 4 3

 

115. A transfer a farm to B for his life with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. What will be effect of his life interest of farm?

a. Loses

b. Secures

c. Conditional loss

d. Conditional secure

 

116. In nuisance, damage may be:

a. Physical damage to property

b. Discomfort or inconvenience

c. Health hazards

d. All of the above

 

117. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organize Village Panchayats?

a. Article 40

b. Article 41

c. Article 42

d. Article 43

 

118. Through which amendment of the Constitution of India, Sikkim was included in the Union of India?

a. 36th Amendment

b. 35th Amendment

c. Seventh Amendment

d. Fifth Amendment

 

119. According to the text, Bangladesh has not recognized the distinction between:

a. Criminal and civil rights

b. Legal and equitable interests

c. Public and private law

d. Constitutional and statutory law

 

120. The knowledge of forged indorsement at the time of acceptance results in:

a. Discharge of acceptor

b. Liability of acceptor continuing

c. Cancellation of bill

d. Liability of indorser only

 

121. A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a fifth wife, such a marriage shall be —

a. Void

b. Valid

c. Irregular

d. Voidable

 

122. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will. Factual Situation: Ram, Shyam and Vipin were friends. Vipin was in love with Anita and wanted to marry her. One day she told him that her marriage was fixed with a rich NRI and that he should not disturb her again in future. Vipin, who became depressed, told this to his friends. Ram suggested that they should go to a nearby Bar and drink some Beer so that Vipin could relax. As Vipin was not habituated to drinks, initially he declined but later at the bar Ram told Vipin to take a little Whisky, which he did hesitatingly. After a while Vipin became totally intoxicated and started to say that Anita ditched him. Shyam, who was also drunk then said, "If you are so worried, go and kill her". A little while later all three friends parted company. Vipin went straight to Anita's hostel, called her out and shot her.

a. Vipin is not liable for murdering Anita as he did not realize the seriousness of the act as he was drunk.

b. Vipin is not liable for the murder as he was forced to drink Whisky when the initial suggestion was to take Beer.

c. Vipin and his friends are jointly liable for murdering Anita as the suggestion to 'kill her' developed in the group.

d. Vipin is liable for murdering Anita as he was under the influence of a drink, which he took voluntarily.

 

123. ‘A’ and ‘B’ sue ‘C’ for Rs. 1000.

a. ‘C’ cannot set off debt a debt due to him from ‘A alone.

b. ‘C’ can set off debt due to him from A’ alone as a matter of right.

c. ‘C’ can set off debt due to him from A’ alone with prior permission of the Court.

d. None of the above

 

124. Equitable estoppel arises when:

a. A person commits fraud in court

b. A party makes a promise by words, conduct, or negligence that another relies upon

c. A contract is written in statutory form

d. Property is transferred by inheritance

 

125. Which of the following is correct under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

a. An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication of the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards

b. All agreements are contracts but all contracts are not agreements

c. A person who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind, may not make a contract when he is of sound mind

d. The communication of a revocation is complete, as against the person to whom it is made, when it is put into a course of transmission to the person to whom it is made, so as to be out of the power of the person who makes it.

 

126. Under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure Code,

a. non-exercise of jurisdiction vested in a court

b. irregular exercise of jurisdiction vested in the court

c. exercise of jurisdiction not vested in a court

d. all of the above

 

127. Writ of Quo Warranto is related with: —

a. Illegal detention of a person

b. Want of Jurisdiction or a court

c. Illegal holder of a Public Office

d. None of the above

 

128. 'Document' produced for the inspection of the court includes—

1. A written document

2. A caricature

3. An electronic record

4. An inscription on stone.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes:

a. 1 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

 

129. The “laying procedure” requires:

a. Rules to be placed before legislature

b. Rules to be placed before court

c. Rules to be placed before police

d. Rules to be placed before executive

 

130. Assertion (A): Article 15 of the Constitution of India is a particular application of    the right to equality.

Reason (R): Articles 14,15 and 16 of the Con-situation of India collectively lay down the principles of equality and prohibition of discrimination.

a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

131. A man gifts his property to a temple, subject to the condition, on the death of his wife. What is created by the transaction?

a. Spec successionis

b. Contingent interest

c. Vested interest

d. None of the above

 

132. Section 16 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Negotiation

b. Holder

c. Indorsement in blank and in full

d. Ambiguous instrument

 

133. Contributory negligence occurs when:

a. Defendant alone is negligent

b. Plaintiff also contributes to his own injury

c. Court commits error

d. Government causes harm

 

134. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination between citizen on the basis of: —

a. Religion and caste only

b. Religion, race and caste only

c. Religion, caste and sex only

d. Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

 

135. A void marriage under Section 11:

a. Requires court declaration to become void

b. Is void ab initio though may be declared by court

c. Is valid until divorce

d. Is void only after 1 year

 

136. Which one of the following Sections of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the language and contents of judgement?

a. Section 353

b. Section 393

c. Section 355

d. Section 356

 

137. Which of the following conditions makes a marriage void?

a. Age requirement

b. Mental disorder

c. Existing spouse at the time of marriage

d. Lack of registration

 

138. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution of India: —

a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

b. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

c. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

d. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

 

139. The UNCITRAL Model Law mentioned in the Preamble relates to:

a. Domestic arbitration procedure

b. International commercial arbitration

c. Criminal arbitration disputes

d. Judicial review of arbitral awards

 

140. A continuing guarantee is a guarantee which:

a. Applies to a single transaction only

b. Extends to a series of transactions

c. Is always written

d. Is always oral

 

141. In P & O Steam Navigation case, the government was held:

a. Liable

b. Not liable

c. Criminally liable

d. Absolutely liable

 

142. According to Dicey, administrative law refers to:

a. Law governing administration

b. Law governing contracts

c. Law governing criminal offences

d. Law governing property

 

143. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Under Section 28 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 consent is said to be a free consent when

a. Given by a child above 12 years of age

b. Given by a person under fear of injury

c. Given by a person of unsound mind

d. Given under misconception of fact

 

144. Who is known as the architect of the Constitution of independent India?

a. Jawaharlal Nehru

b. Rajendra Prasad

c. S. Radhakrishnan

d. B.R. Ambedkar

 

145. “Right to Work” in the Constitution can be traced in: —

a. Fundamental Rights

b. Directive Principles of State Policy

c. Preamble of the Constitution

d. None of the above

 

146. A foreign company must have:

a. No place of business in India

b. Place of business in India

c. Registered office in India compulsorily

d. Indian shareholders only

 

147. “Independent director” is defined under:

a. Section 2(42)

b. Section 2(47)

c. Section 2(54)

d. Section 2(69)

 

148. “Independent director” refers to director under:

a. Section 149(6)

b. Section 135

c. Section 96

d. Section 270

 

149. “Managing director” is defined under:

a. Section 2(47)

b. Section 2(54)

c. Section 2(56)

d. Section 2(69)

 

150. A managing director is entrusted with:

a. Judicial powers

b. Audit powers

c. Substantial powers of management

d. Legislative powers 

 

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