Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test

 

1. Exemption from personal appearance in the court is provided under

a. Section 133 of CPC

b. Section 132 of CPC

c. Section 143 of CPC

d. Section 142 of CPC

 

2. Post-decisional hearing was discussed in:

a. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India

b. Donoghue v Stevenson

c. Rylands v Fletcher

d. Wednesbury case

 

3. A Muslim can divorce his wife-

a. Whenever he so desires without assigning any cause

b. Whenever he so desires but only with a cause

c. Whenever he so desires without assigning any cause but only in the presence of the wife

d. Either (b) or (c)

 

4. The indorsement must appear to be made:

a. By bank officer

b. By the same hand as the drawer’s signature

c. By government officer

d. By court authority

 

5. A person may become a partner with another person in:

a. Only general business of the firm

b. Particular adventures or undertakings

c. Only businesses registered under the Act

d. Only commercial ventures approved by partners

 

6. Section 14 applies to:

a. Only mutual consent divorce

b. All divorce petitions under the Act

c. Only judicial separation

d. Only void marriages

 

7. A custom inconsistent with provisions of this Act:

a. Prevails over the Act

b. Is void only if declared by court

c. Ceases to have effect

d. Applies partially

 

8. Marriage by a Muslim with his real sister is-

a. Void

b. Voidable

c. Valid

d. Invalid

 

9. Damages allowed under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, are

a. liquidated damages

b. compensatory damages

c. penal damages

d. none of the above

 

10. ‘A’ proposes by letter to sell a house to ‘B’ at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when:

a. ‘A’ posts the letter

b. A’ has completed the writing of letter

c. A’ gets information about the posting of the letter

d. ‘B’ receives the letter

 

11. Res ipsa loquitur means:

a. Act of God

b. The thing speaks for itself

c. Burden of proof

d. Natural justice

 

12. On which of the following grounds may the writ of certiorari be issued?

a. When the inferior tribunal has the jurisdiction to decide the matter but the finding is erroneous not being an error apparent on the face of the record.

b. When the inferior tribunal acts in contravention of the rules of natural justice

c. When the cause of action arises out of a contract not involving the violation of any statutory or constitutional provision

d. If the act done by the inferior body/authority is an executive or ministerial act.

 

13. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, a High Court can transfer any case?

a. Section 20

b. Section 12

c. Section 24

d. Section 15

 

14. Sovereignty under Constitution belong to

a. the President

b. the Parliament

c. the People

d. the Executives, Judiciary and Legislature

 

15. Article 43A which deals with the participation of workers in management of industries was added in constitution by . —

a. 44th Amendment

b. 45th Amendment

c. 42nd Amendment

d. 7th Amendment

 

16. The number of days of grace allowed is:

a. Two days

b. One days

c. Three days

d. Seven days

 

17. Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Judicial separation

b. Divorce by mutual consent

c. Divorced persons when may marry again

d. Void marriages

 

18. In the formation of a Contract which is not among the three essentials:

a. Damages

b. Consideration

c. Offer

d. Acceptance

 

19. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is correctly matched?

a. Condition restraining alienation - Section 9

b. Rule against perpetuity - Section 14

c. Conditional Transfer - Section 25

d. None of the above

 

20. Section 20 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 deals with:

a. Trustee to prevent waste

b. Accounts

c. Investment of trust-money

d. Beneficiary rights

 

21. Under Section 2(4), Part I will not apply where its provisions are:

a. Procedurally inconvenient

b. Inconsistent with the other enactment or rules made thereunder

c. Opposed by either party

d. Declared invalid by government

 

22. A bidder may retract his bid:

a. After sale

b. Before announcement of completion

c. After payment

d. After delivery

 

23. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is concerned with the transfer of benefit to unborn child?

a. Section 13

b. Section 14

c. Section 15

d. Section 16

 

24. In which of the following cases die Supreme Court called Article 22 of the Constitution as ‘'Ugly provision of the Constitution?

a. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

b. Keshvananda Baharti v. State of Kerala

c. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India

d. A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras

 

25. Public nuisance generally:

a. Affects the public at large

b. Affects one individual only

c. Is contractual

d. Is criminal only

 

26. If a railway company causes nuisance while exercising statutory power, it:

a. May claim statutory authority

b. Is always liable

c. Cannot defend itself

d. Must compensate automatically

 

27. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes the term of the office of the Vice President?

a. Article 55(1)

b. Article 67

c. Article 54

d. Article 55

 

28. Section 28A of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Appeals from decrees

b. Enforcement of decrees and orders

c. Custody of children

d. Maintenance pendente lite

 

29. Right of private defence of property does not extend to causing death against the offence of

a. Robbery

b. House breaking by night

c. Trespass

d. Mischief by fire of building used for custody of property

 

30. A sentence of death by a lower court

a. must be confirmed by High Court

b. must be confirmed by Supreme Court

c. must be confirmed by President

d. is operational if no appeal is made to High Courts

 

31. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, A promises B to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against B for robbery, and B promises to restore the value of the things taken. The agreement is:

a. valid

b. invalid

c. void

d. voidable

 

32. Section 34 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Liability of drawee

b. Acceptance by several drawees not partners

c. Liability of indorser

d. Holder

 

33. Transfer of property means: —

a. Transfer between living being

b. Transfer between living person and trust

c. Transfer between legal persons

d. Includes all

 

34. A holder must be entitled to receive or recover the amount due from:

a. Government

b. Parties to the instrument

c. Only the drawer

d. Only the bank

 

35. Damage is considered too remote when:

a. It is directly caused

b. It is reasonably foreseeable

c. It is not foreseeable

d. It is intentional

 

36. The idea of forming the Constituent Assembly of India was contained in the-

a. Cripps Proposals

b. Cabinet Mission Plan

c. Govermment of India Act, 1935

d. Simon Commission Report

 

37. The chapters and sections of the Transfer of Prop¬erty Act which relate to contracts shall be taken as part of Contract Act and supplemental to: —

a. the Specific Relief Act

b. Indian Registration Act

c. the Sale of Goods Act

d. the Partition Act

 

38. If such person fails to give public notice within the prescribed six months:

a. He ceases to have any rights in the firm

b. He becomes a partner in the firm automatically

c. His share is forfeited

d. The firm stands dissolved

 

39. Connection with the right of a private defence of body give the correct response:

a. This right is not available against an unsound person

b. This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age

c. This right is available against any person

d. This right is not available against parents

 

40. A contract implied by law is known as:

a. contingent contract

b. quasi-contract

c. expressed contract

d. implied contract

 

41. In respect of transfer of property, under Transfer of Property Act, which of the following statement is not true?

a. Transfer can be done immediately or in future

b. Transfer of property can be done to one or more living persons

c. One cannot transfer property to one self

d. None of them

 

42. Under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins when

a. Charges are framed

b. Accused appears

c. Witnesses are examined

d. None of the above

 

43. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence?

a. Jaidev v. State

b. Ram Rattan v. State

c. Guljar Singh v. State

d. Rajesh Kumar v. Dharamveer

 

44. The Hindu Marriage Act came into force on:

a. 26 January 1950

b. 15 August 1947

c. 18th May, 1955

d. 1 January 1956

 

45. In case of an order instrument, holder in due course is:

a. Drawer

b. Payee or indorsee

c. Drawee

d. Bank officer

 

46. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. An agreement is void unless it is duly supported by adequate consideration

b. In a valid contract, there can be an oral promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor

c. Under Indian Law, consideration need not move at the desire of the promisor

d. Indian Law does not recognize past consideration

 

47. The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was: —

a. 448 Articles and 12 Schedules

b. 440 Articles and 9 Schedules

c. 395 Articles and 12 Schedules

d. 395 Articles and 7 Schedules

 

48. The writ of Habeas corpus means: —

a. To produce the body of a person illegally detained before a Court

b. Respect the Human Rights of a person

c. Stop the violation of a right of a man

d. None of the above

 

49. Ravi was suffering from delusion. One night he considered his own son as a leopard and attacked him with an axe, thinking by mistake of fact that he was justified in killing the son whom he did not regard to be a human being but a dangerous animal. Ravi is guilty of:

a. No offence as he has defence of mistake of fact in good faith

b. Murder

c. No offence as he has the defence of insanity

d. Culpable homicide

 

50. Statement No. 1: Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any Court.

Statement No. 2: Directive Principle of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.

a. Both the statements are true

b. Both the statements are false

c. Statements No. 1 is true but Statement No. 2 is false

d. Statement No. 2 is true but Statement No. 1 is false

 

51. Proportionality doctrine originated mainly in:

a. Germany

b. England

c. India

d. France

 

52. Which one is not a source of Muslim Law?

a. The Quran

b. Shariat

c. Hadis

d. Ijmaa

 

53. According to Article 13(3) of the Constitution of India, Law includes: —

a. any ordinance, order, bye-law rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law

b. any ordinance, order, bye-law, customs or usages

c. any rules, regulations or notifications in India

d. any law made by delegated authority in the country

 

54. The main purpose of nuisance law is:

a. Protect property enjoyment

b. Protect criminal law

c. Protect contracts

d. Protect trade

 

55. While deciding cases of terrorists, which procedure is to be followed?

a. Procedure established by law

b. Procedure established by the Constitution

c. Both (a) and (b) above

d. None of the above

 

56. Under Section 23A, the respondent may:

a. Only deny allegations

b. Only file appeal

c. File counter-claim for relief under the Act

d. Only seek maintenance

 

57. The court may secure attendance of the expert for:

a. Giving evidence

b. Filing appeal

c. Signing decree

d. Cancelling contract

 

58. By the third pronouncement (utterance) of 'Talaq', which kind of 'Talaq' becomes effective?

a. Talaq-e-Hasan

b. Talaq-e-Ahsan

c. Talaq-e-Tafweez

d. None of the above

 

59. An implied condition or warranty may be annexed by:

a. Court order

b. Agreement

c. Usage of trade

d. Statute only

 

60. Procedural control refers to:

a. Following required procedure in making delegated legislation

b. Criminal prosecution

c. Contract enforcement

d. Judicial decision

 

61. CPC applies to Hindu Marriage Act proceedings:

a. Only in appeals

b. Only in Supreme Court

c. Subject to Act provisions and High Court rules

d. Not applicable

 

62. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in: —

a. Bhikaji Narain v. State of Madhya Pradesh

b. Bashesharnath v. Income Tax Commissioner

c. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar

d. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

 

63. “Autre fois Acquit’ principle is related to: —

a. Retrospective operators

b. Double Jeopardy

c. Ex post Facto Law

d. Self-incrimination

 

64. Condition restraining alienation under section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act?

a. makes the transfer invalid

b. makes the condition invalid but transfer remains valid

c. makes the condition as well as transfer both in-valid

d. None of the above

 

65. An inscription on a metal plate or stone is a document:

a. Wrong

b. Right

c. Documents always on paper only

d. There are only archaeological things

 

66. Who is the head of the Council of Ministers?

a. The President

b. The Prime Minister

c. The Vice-President

d. The Attorney General

 

67. Section 12 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam makes relevant the facts which show the existence of:

a. any state of body or bodily feeling

b. any state of mind

c. either state of mind or of body or bodily feeling

d. a particular state of mind and a state of body

 

68. Condition restraining alienation of property is given under

a. Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act.

b. Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act.

c. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act.

d. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act.

 

69. The proceedings before a criminal court are vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is not empowered by law to do so

a. issues search warrant erroneously but in good faith.

b. holds inquest under section 196 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 erroneously but in good faith.

c. tries an offender summarily.

d. All of these

 

70. A command asking a public authority to perform its public duty is called the writ of: —

a. Habeas corpus

b. Quo warranto

c. Mandamus

d. Prohibition

 

71. If prosecution ends in conviction:

a. Action for malicious prosecution generally fails

b. Plaintiff automatically wins

c. Defendant is liable

d. Court pays damages

 

72. Members of a Hindu Undivided Family carrying on a family business as such are:

a. Partners in that business by operation of law

b. Not partners merely by reason of such status

c. Partners only if profits are shared equally

d. Automatically deemed partners after registration

 

73. A private person may sue for public nuisance if:

a. He suffers special damage

b. Government allows

c. Court orders

d. Contract exists

 

74. An earlier equitable interest may be defeated by:

a. A later equitable interest

b. A legal interest acquired bona fide without notice

c. A verbal agreement

d. A moral claim

 

75. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed-

a. There is remedy in the court

b. There is no remedy by Judicial proceedings

c. There is remedy in Lok Adalat

d. There is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate

 

76. Warrant may be issued in lieu or in addition to summons "Recording of reasons in writing" is a condition precedent.

a. Is this statement true

b. Is this statement not true

c. Depends on discretion of Court

d. There is no such provision

 

77. Res-judicata means

a. Staying the suit during pendency of the previous suit between the same parties involving similar issues

b. Not trying the suit if suit involving similar issues between similar parties is decided

c. Bar to further suit

d. Expending trial of the suit

 

78. In which of the following case, majority judgement of the Supreme Court held that Aadhar not only gave them a unique identity but also a life dignity?

a. Justice K S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India.

b. B. L. Kapoor v. State of Karnataka

c. Joseph v. Union of India

d. None of the above

 

79. Section 8 applies to possession or control of:

a. Immovable property

b. Movable property

c. Intellectual property

d. Agricultural land

 

80. Collusion between parties under Section 23:

a. Is permitted

b. Bars relief (except Section 11 petitions)

c. Is irrelevant

d. Is mandatory

 

81. Order II, Rule 2 of CPC does not apply to

a. application for execution

b. writ petitions

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of the above

 

82. Ratable distribution of legacies is an application of the maxim:

a. Equity aids the vigilant

b. Equality is equity

c. Equity follows the law

d. He who seeks equity must do equity

 

83. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Rule against perpetuity     Section-14

b. Conditional transfer          Section-24

c. Vested Interest                  Section-19

d. Contingent Interest           Section-21

 

84. The doctrine of vicarious liability is based on:

a. Social convenience

b. Control of employer over employee

c. Risk distribution

d. All of the above

 

85. Malicious prosecution means:

a. Lawful prosecution

b. Prosecution instituted with malice and without reasonable cause

c. Criminal punishment

d. Contract breach

 

86. The term ‘Justice’ in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is a resolution for: —

a. equal distribution of wealth

b. economy in the administration of justice

c. socio-economic and political revolution

d. cheap justice of the poorer

 

87. Which statement is wrong regarding “agency” under the Indian law of contract?

a. Principal should be competent to contract

b. The authority of agent may be expressed or implied

c. Consideration is necessary to create an agency

d. Guardian of a minor can appoint an agent for him

 

88. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?

a. Article 22(1)

b. Article 22(3)

c. Article 212

d. Article 22(4)

 

89. 'Carry forward' rule was held to be 'ultra vires’ in the case of-

a. Devdasan v. Union of India

b. B.N. Timri v. State of Mysore

c. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

d. Balaji v. State of Mysore

 

90. What is the minimum age requirement for becoming the President of India?

a. 30 years

b. 35 years

c. 40 years

d. 45 years

 

91. Lending money to a borrower at high rate of interest, when money market is tight, renders the agreement of loan

a. void

b. valid

c. voidable

d. illegal

 

92. The proviso applies when:

a. Goods are not delivered

b. Price is fixed

c. Contract is cancelled

d. Goods or part thereof are delivered and appropriated by the buyer

 

93. The Bombay High Court followed the Privy Council decision in the case of:

a. Ram Coomar v. Macqueen

b. Dada Honaji v. Babaji

c. Waghela Rajsanji v. Shekh Masluddi

d. Norris v. Chambres

 

94. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression.

Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against him-self.

a. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true

b. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false

c. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.

d. None of the above

 

95. Investment may be made on mortgage of:

a. Movable property

b. Immovable property pledged under Land Improvement Act, 1871

c. Government bonds only

d. Shares

 

96. The expert may be examined regarding:

a. His opinion or report

b. Criminal matters

c. Government policy

d. Court procedure

 

97. What is the significance of Article 69 in the Indian Constitution?

a. It specifies the procedure for electing the Vice President.

b. It deals with the oath or affirmation of the Vice President.

c. It outlines the Vice President's role as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

d. It defines the powers of the President during a state of emergency.

 

98. The burden of proof in negligence initially lies on:

a. Defendant

b. Plaintiff

c. Police

d. Court

 

99. Bias rule protects:

a. Impartial justice

b. Criminal law

c. Property law

d. Contract law

 

100. Absolute liability allows:

a. No defences

b. Limited defences

c. All defences

d. Criminal defence

 

101. Acknowledgement of paternity once made under Muslim Law —

a. Cannot be revoked

b. Can be revoked

c. Can be revoked by previous permission of capable judiciary

d. None of the above

 

102. In whose custody, the Muslim illegitimate children will be kept?

a. Father

b. Mother

c. Both father

d. Maternal grandmother

 

103. The Preamble to the Constitution of India: —

a. Contains the Resolution to constitute India into inter alia a Socialist Republic, since the framing of the Constitution

b. The word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment with effect from 3rd January, 1977

c. Never contained the word ‘Socialist’

d. The word ‘Socialist’ was dropped by the 42nd Amendment.

 

104. Under Section 8(2), the application for reference to arbitration must be accompanied by:

a. Copy of the plaint

b. Original arbitration agreement or a duly certified copy

c. Tribunal order

d. Court fee receipt

 

105. Which one of the following conditions is not essential for a valid gift (Hiba) under Muslim Law?

a. Registration

b. Acceptance

c. Delivery of possession

d. Declaration

 

106. Under Article 16 the words 'any employment of office' applies-

a. Only to public employments

b. Private employments

c. Both public and private employments

d. None of the above

 

107. Marriage is Muslim Law —

a. A Sacrament

b. A Civil Contract

c. A Sacrament and a Civil Contract both

d. A Social Status

 

108. After dismissal of suit under Order 9, Rule 8 of CPC, a fresh suit on the same cause of action, under Order 9 Rule. 9 of C.P.C.

a. Is barred

b. Is not barred under any circumstances

c. Is not barred subject to law of limitation

d. None of the above

 

109. Detinue differs from conversion because:

a. Detinue involves wrongful detention

b. Conversion involves wrongful use

c. Both A and B

d. None

 

110. A co-surety who is released by the creditor:

a. Is free from all responsibilities

b. Is still responsible to other co-sureties

c. Has no obligations

d. Becomes principal debtor

 

111. Comparative negligence means:

a. Plaintiff shares responsibility

b. Defendant alone responsible

c. Court responsible

d. Government responsible

 

112. Doctrine of proportionality means:

a. Punishment must be proportionate to misconduct

b. Punishment must be harsh

c. Punishment must be secret

d. Punishment must be political

 

113. The obligation to restore advantage in a void agreement is provided by:

a. Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

b. Section 60 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

c. Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

d. Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

 

114. Under Section 36 of the BNS the right of private defence is also available against

a. Person of unsound mind

b. An intoxicated person

c. A person who does not have maturity of understanding

d. All of the above

 

115. Whether a gift with condition not to transfer the gifted property is legal?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Yes, only with the permission of court

d. None of the above

 

116. “A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession” is provided in which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

a. Section 18

b. Section 19

c. Section 20

d. Section 21

 

117. Among Muslim which school does not mention minimum amount of dower?

a. Hanafi

b. Maliki

c. Shafei

d. None of the above

 

118. A trust of immoveable property can also be created by:

a. Agreement

b. Will

c. Delivery of possession

d. Court decree

 

119. Preamble of the Constitution was amended and the words “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic” were substituted for “Sovereign Democratic Republic “ vide: —

a. 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11-2006

b. 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17-6-1995

c. 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3-1-1977

d. 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20-6-1979

 

120. Section 3(3) provides that this section does not apply to written communications relating to:

a. Arbitration proceedings

b. Conciliation proceedings

c. Proceedings of any judicial authority

d. Institutional arbitration rules

 

121. If an accused voluntarily consents for brain mapping and narco-analysis, then such information is relevant under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

a. Section 7

b. Section 17

c. Section 23

d. Section 30

 

122. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence when made:

a. To a police officer

b. To a magistrate having competent jurisdiction

c. To a Village Sarpanch with a request to save him from police

d. Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer

 

123. Protective Discrimination is constitutionally valid in view of

a. 15(4) and 16(4)

b. Article 15(4) and 20(2)

c. Article 15 (4) and 21

d. None of the above

 

124. Another exception to the maxim arises when:

a. Legal rights exist

b. Equal equities exist but no legal right is present

c. The court has jurisdiction

d. The parties are relatives

 

125. Under Section 12(1), the officer who may be appointed to a Court of Small Causes is called:

a. Clerk

b. Registrar

c. Superintendent

d. Court Officer

 

126. Receipt of a share of profits by a previous owner as consideration for sale of goodwill:

a. Automatically creates partnership

b. Does not of itself make him a partner

c. Makes him a sleeping partner

d. Makes him a partner only if he participates in management

 

127. Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal and secondly, Under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal the:

a. first set of promise is a contract, but the second is a void agreement.

b. first set of promise is voidable but the second set is a void agreement.

c. entire set of promises is void.

d. entire set of promises is valid.

 

128. The Constitution defines and determines the relation between

a. Various institutions and the areas of Government

b. Executive, the legislative and the Judiciary

c. Central Government, State Government and the Local Governments

d. All the above

 

129. The doctrine of remoteness determines:

a. Whether duty exists

b. Whether breach exists

c. Whether damage is too remote to be compensated

d. Whether contract exists

 

130. The surety is discharged when:

a. The creditor sues the debtor

b. The principal debtor is released by the creditor

c. The debtor makes payment

d. The contract is written

 

131. Where co-sureties are bound in different sums:

a. They are not liable

b. Only one surety is liable

c. They are liable equally up to the limits of their obligations

d. They pay unequal amounts always

 

132. Absolute liability originated in:

a. England

b. India

c. USA

d. Germany

 

133. After divorce, a Muslim woman can validly re¬-marry:

a. Immediately after divorce

b. After observing the Iddat period

c. Has to wait for one year

d. None of the above

 

134. One of the following Articles describes the Republic of India as a Union and not as a federation though the words are “India, that is, Bharat, shall be a Union of States,”.

a. Article 1

b. Article 2

c. Article 3

d. Article 4

 

135. Under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 the Court cannot award damages

a. equal to the amount stated in the contract

b. less than the amount stated in the contract

c. more than the amount stated in the contract

d. none of the above

 

136. Setting up breach of warranty does not prevent buyer from:

a. Rejecting goods

b. Suing for damages if further damage is suffered

c. Cancelling contract

d. Avoiding contract

 

137. “Transfer of Property” does not include?

a. Sale

b. Lease

c. Will

d. Gift

 

138. A partner does not have implied authority to:

a. Acquire immovable property on behalf of the firm

b. Sell goods of the firm

c. Collect debts of the firm

d. Enter ordinary business contracts

 

139. When goods are mixed with the bailor’s consent:

a. Goods must be separated

b. Bailor loses ownership

c. Both bailor and bailee share interest proportionately

d. Bailee becomes owner

 

140. Section 29(2) preserves:

a. Only criminal rights

b. Right recognised by custom or special enactment for dissolution of marriage

c. Only appeal rights

d. Only custody rights

 

141. Section 35 of the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887 deals with:

a. Abolition of Courts

b. Continuance of proceedings of abolished Courts

c. Appeals from decrees

d. Jurisdiction of Registrar

 

142. The Court may compel the attendance of any person to whom summons have been issued under the provisions of BNSS and for that purpose

a. issue a warrant, attach and sell his property

b. issue a warrant only

c. issue a warrant, attach and sell his property and order him to furnish security

d. issue a warrant, attach and sell his property and order him to surrender

 

143. A rustic woman in apprehension of assault and maltreatment makes a confession for murder of her mother-in- law at the Village Panchayat. Whether this confession is admissible?

a. As extra-judicial confession

b. Inadmissible due to involuntariness

c. As supporting evidence to the fact deposed by the other witness

d. Partly admissible

 

144. Fair trial in a criminal case is guaranteed in the constitution of India by Article: —

a. 14

b. 20

c. 21

d. 32

 

145. Restitution of conjugal rights aims to:

a. End marriage

b. Compel cohabitation legally

c. Punish spouse

d. Grant maintenance

 

146. The Companies Act, 2013 is:

a. Act No. 25 of 2013

b. Act No. 18 of 2013

c. Act No. 15 of 2012

d. Act No. 21 of 2013

 

147. The Companies Act, 2013 received assent on:

a. 15th August, 2013

b. 26th January, 2013

c. 29th August, 2013

d. 1st April, 2014

 

148. The Companies Act, 2013 was enacted in the ______ Year of the Republic of India.

a. Sixtieth

b. Sixty-second

c. Sixty-third

d. Sixty-fourth

 

149. The Companies Act, 2013 was enacted by:

a. Supreme Court

b. Parliament

c. SEBI

d. Central Vigilance Commission

 

150. The object of the Companies Act, 2013 is:

a. To consolidate and amend the law relating to companies

b. To regulate criminal procedure

c. To govern partnership firms

d. To regulate banking transactions only 

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