Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test

 

1. Relief under Section 23A is available:

a. Automatically in all cases

b. Only on proof of specified matrimonial fault

c. Only on consent of petitioner

d. Only in maintenance cases

 

2. Assault means:

a. Physical injury

b. Threat of immediate force

c. Damage to property

d. Contract breach

 

3. When the drawee of a bill signs his assent upon the bill and delivers it or gives notice of such signing, he becomes the:

a. Drawer

b. Holder

c. Acceptor

d. Indorser

 

4. Under Article 3 of Constitution the Parliament may by law form a new state. No Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in Parliament except on recommendation of-

a. Prime Minister

b. President

c. Speaker

d. Any Member of Parliament

 

5. A person has “notice” when:

a. He hears from others

b. He actually knows the fact

c. It is published publicly

d. It is recorded in court

 

6. In the Nash v. Inman case, the issue was:

a. Minor’s liability

b. Frustration

c. Fraud

d. Misrepresentation

 

7. Another essential element of malicious prosecution is:

a. Absence of reasonable and probable cause

b. Contract breach

c. Property damage

d. Ownership rights

 

8. A trustee must not:

a. Act prudently

b. Protect trust-property

c. Follow instructions

d. Set up title adverse to beneficiary

 

9. Transfer of Property for the benefit of an unborn person can be made by: —

a. creation of a prior interest in favour of a living person for any period

b. vesting the right directly to the unborn

c. creation of a prior interest in favour of a living person till the existence of unborn person

d. either to the unborn or to a living person

 

10. Read the following:

The maxim "Actus me invito factus non est mens actus" finds application in Section 32 BNS.

The maxim "de minimis non curat lex" has been incorporated in Section 33 of BNS

Of the above:

a. (1) is true but (2) is false

b. (1) is false but (2) is true

c. Both (1) and (2) are true

d. Both (1) and (2) are false

e. None of these

 

11. If a property is transferred with the conditions that an interest created therein for benefit of the transferee shall cease on his becoming insolvent such a condition is void under which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act?

a. Section 10

b. Section 11

c. Section 12

d. Section 13

 

12. Relief under Section 23 is denied if petitioner:

a. Has children

b. Is educated

c. Is taking advantage of own wrong or disability

d. Has no income

 

13. Which of the following doctrines is associated with this maxim?

a. Doctrine of performance and satisfaction

b. Doctrine of eclipse

c. Doctrine of severability

d. Doctrine of pith and substance

 

14. Which one of the following is not an essential characteristic of a federal Constitution?

a. Distribution of Powers

b. Supremacy of the Constitution

c. Presidential form of Government

d. A written Constitution

 

15. The intimation under Section 59 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

a. must be implied

b. must be expressed

c. may be either expressed or implied

d. none of the above

 

16. Section 7 applies when a Judge is the Judge of:

a. Only one Court of Small Causes

b. Two or more Courts of Small Causes

c. A High Court and Small Cause Court

d. A District Court and Small Cause Court

 

17. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?

a. National Council of Educational Research and Training

b. Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies

c. Indian Oil Corporation

d. High Court of Delhi

 

18. Parliamentary control over delegated legislation means:

a. Control exercised by judiciary

b. Control exercised by legislature

c. Control exercised by executive

d. Control exercised by police

 

19. In Bangladesh, a judge cannot create an exception to the limitation period based on:

a. Criminal law

b. Administrative rules

c. Principles of equity

d. Contractual agreements

 

20. If the indorser signs his name only, the indorsement is called:

a. Conditional indorsement

b. Restrictive indorsement

c. Special indorsement

d. Blank indorsement

 

21. The Supreme Court of India ruled that a child born from an irregular marriage between a Muslim man and a Hindu woman is considered legitimate and has the right to inherit their father's property. This was held in which case?

a. Mohammed Salim v. Shamsudeen & Ors. (2019) 4 SCC 130

b. Md. Sonu @ Sonu v. The State of Jharkhand &

c. Shaikh Taslim Shaikh Hakim vs The State of Maharashtra And Another, 2022

d. Razia v. State of U.P. (2022)

 

22. The overriding effect under Section 4 operates:

a. Absolutely without exception

b. Subject to express provisions of the Act

c. Only when court directs

d. Only for customs

 

23. In nervous shock cases, courts distinguish between:

a. Primary and secondary victims

b. Plaintiff and defendant

c. Owner and occupier

d. State and citizen

 

24. In the Highwaymen Case, the court refused relief because:

a. The case was filed too late

b. The cause of action arose from an illegal activity

c. The plaintiff lacked written evidence

d. The robbery was not proven

 

25. A suit dismissed under Order IX, Rule 8 of C.P.C. for non-appearance of the plaintiff can be restored under:—

a. Order IX, Rule 9

b. Order IX, Rule 10

c. Order IX, Rule 11

d. None of the above

 

26. The State shall endeavor to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines as laid down in-

a. Article 38 of the Constitution

b. Article 42 of the Constitution

c. Article 48 of the Constitution

d. Article 52 of the Constitution

 

27. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has recognised "Transgender persons" to be persons of "Third gender"?

a. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

b. NALSAR University Hyderabad v. Union of India

c. State 'Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

d. Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naaz Foundation

 

28. Section 23 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Effect of admissions by a partner

b. Authority of partners

c. Registration of firms

d. Dissolution of partnership

 

29. The doctrine “Delegatus Non Potest Delegare” means:

a. A delegate cannot further delegate

b. Legislature cannot legislate

c. Courts cannot interpret law

d. Executive cannot act

 

30. Under Muslim Law, a bequest can validly be made to a child in womb, So long it is born from the date of Will within the period of-

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 9 months

d. 10 months

 

31. The person whose liability is discussed in Section 41 is:

a. Drawer

b. Holder

c. Acceptor

d. Indorser

 

32. Where goods are in possession of third person, delivery is complete when:

a. Goods are inspected

b. Third person acknowledges holding goods on behalf of buyer

c. Goods are paid for

d. Goods are transported

 

33. The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under: —

a. Article 40

b. Article 43

c. Article 42

d. Article 41

 

34. The case A.K. Kraipak v Union of India established:

a. Natural justice applies to administrative actions

b. Courts cannot review administration

c. Executive supremacy

d. Criminal liability

 

35. Which Provision of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 says, "nothing is an offence which is done by accident"?

a. Section 17 of BNS

b. Section 16 of BNS

c. Section 18 of BNS

d. None of the above

 

36. The Act extends to:

a. Only North India

b. Only South India

c. Whole of India

d. Only Union Territories

 

37. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to Doctrine of self-incrimination?

a. Article 20(1)

b. Article 22

c. Article 20 (3)

d. Article 20 (2)

 

38. A party under CPC may object to answer in interrogatory if it is:

a. Scandalous and irrelevant

b. Mala fide and immaterial

c. Privileged

d. All of these

 

39. Which one of the following agreements is induced by undue influence?

a. A applies to a banker for loan at a time when there is stringency in the money market. The banker declines to make the loan except at an unusually high rate of interest. A accepts the loan on these terms

b. B, a rich man, donates all his properties to a charitable trust leaving nothing for himself and his family members

c. A, at the age of sixty-five years, executes a deed of gift in favor of his only grandson gifting him all his properties to the exclusion of his wife, sons and daughters

d. A, enfeebled by disease or age, is induced by B’s influence over him as his medical attendant, to agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his professional services

 

40. India, that is Bharat, shall be

a. the Union of Union territories

b. a Union of States

c. the territories of any State

d. the Union of territories specified in the Second Schedule

 

41. An order passed by a Magistrate under Section 491 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, is appealable to

a. Session Judge

b. District Magistrate

c. High Court

d. Supreme Court

 

42. The binding force behind the Directive Principles of State Policy is : —

a. Public Opinion

b. Government

c. Constitution

d. Administration

 

43. Which one of the following offences may not be tried summarily?

a. Offences punishable with imprisonment upto three years

b. Offences under Section 331(3) and 331(4) of BNS

c. Theft, under Sections 303, 305 and 306 of BNS where the value of the property stolen does not exceed two hundred rupees

d. Abetment of any of the foregoing offences

 

44. Rule against perpetuity is applicable to: —

a. movable property only

b. immovable property only

c. both, movable and immovable properties

d. transfer for benefit of public

 

45. The mother owes Rs. 10,000 to her daughter. But the Limitation Act has barred this debt. The mother signs a written promise to pay Rs. 3,000 on account of the debt. In this case which one of the following is correct?

a. There is no contract as the debt is already barred by limitation and so it cannot be revived by a subsequent promise.

b. There is no contract because the mother has promised to give only a part of the debt.

c. This is a contract because there is a natural love and affection relation and the promise, is in writing and signed.

d. This is enforceable against the mother because such a promise is valid and binding under the Indian Contract Act.

 

46. A Muslim goes to any country of the world —

a. With his personal law

b. Without his personal law

c. Leaving his personal law in his country

d. With an object of obeying the laws of the country concern which includes personal law

 

47. Right to free and compulsory education to children between six and fourteen years of age is provided by which Article of the Constitution?

a. Article 21A

b. Article 14

c. Article 21

d. Article 45

 

48. Which Article deals with the matter related to election of President and Vice President?

a. Article 71

b. Article 72

c. Article 73

d. Article 74

 

49. Condition restraining alienation of property is given under

a. Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act.

b. Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act.

c. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act.

d. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act.

 

50. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the proceedings to alter or amend the proceedings to

a. either party

b. to plaintiff only

c. to defendant only

d. to only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant

 

51. Where seller delivers less quantity than contracted, the buyer may:

a. Accept only

b. Reject the goods

c. Sue only

d. Resell goods

 

52. The UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules referred to in the Preamble were adopted in:

a. 1975

b. 1980

c. 1985

d. 1995

 

53. The conclusive part of Article 31C, i.e. “and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy” was struck down by the Supreme Court in the case of: —

a. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab. AIR 1967 SC ,1643

b. Minerva Mills v U0I, AIR 1980 SC 1789

c. Bhim Singh v. UOI, AIR1981 SC234

d. Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461.

 

54. Section 15 permits remarriage when appeal:

a. Is filed and pending

b. Is filed but dismissed

c. Is not decided yet

d. Is stayed

 

55. Public Interest Litigations are entertained by the Supreme Court under: —

a. Article 19

b. Article 36

c. Article 32

d. Article 131

 

56. The abetment of abetment is an offence. It can be directly deducible from:

a. Section 45, BNS

b. Section 46, BNS

c. Section 49, BNS

d. Section 50, BNS

 

57. The expert may also be questioned regarding:

a. Manner of inspection conducted by him

b. Court’s judgment

c. Government decisions

d. Criminal investigation

 

58. Where trust involves discretion, trustee must be:

a. Minor

b. Beneficiary

c. Competent to contract

d. Court-appointed

 

59. Consider the following statements:

1. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.

2. as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither1 nor 2

 

60. Difference between a contract and social agreement is that of:

a. consideration

b. intention to create legal relationship

c. consensus ad idem

d. certainty of performance

 

61. The primary source of Muslim law is-

a. Quran

b. Hadees

c. Ijma

d. Qiyas

 

62. According to Section 8 explanation, the court may presume:

a. Damage is easy to calculate

b. Damage is extremely difficult to ascertain

c. Damage is irrelevant

d. Damage must be proved immediately

 

63. What are the main sources of the Muslim Law?

a. Quran

b. Sunnat and Ahadis

c. Ijma and Qiyas

d. All of the above

 

64. The President of India is elected

a. Directly

b. Indirectly

c. Indirectly by secret ballot

d. indirectly by secret ballot and by proportional representation system by means of single transferable vote.

 

65. The Kasturi Lal case involved:

a. Police negligence

b. Railway accident

c. Hospital negligence

d. Industrial accident

 

66. A wife may seek divorce if the husband is guilty of:

a. Theft

b. Cruelty only

c. Rape, sodomy, or bestiality

d. Desertion only

 

67. Which of the following Facts is relevant under Section 8 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

a. Those facts which are introductory in nature

b. Those facts which help to certain identification and article of a person

c. Those facts which depict relation between parties

d. Those facts from which inference of conspiracy can be traced

 

68. Malice in malicious prosecution means:

a. Personal ill-will or improper motive

b. Criminal punishment

c. Court order

d. Contract breach

 

69. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution recognizes the Doctrine of Double Jeopardy?

a. Article 22(2)

b. Article 21(2)

c. Article 20(2)

d. None of them

 

70. The person who gives the guarantee is called:

a. Creditor

b. Principal debtor

c. Surety

d. Agent

 

71. Section 17 applies to marriages solemnized:

a. Before commencement of the Act

b. After commencement of the Act

c. Only during appeal period

d. Only in court marriages

 

72. Which of the following are “immovable property” under the Transfer of Property Act?

Select the correct answer by using the code below: —

1. The equity of redemption

2. A hut

3. Mortgage debt

4. Right to recover maintenance allowance charged on immovable property

a. 1 and 2

b. 1,2and3

c. 1 and 4

d. 2 only

 

73. The Directive Principles of State Policy are: —

a. Justiciable

b. Non Justiciable

c. Not all are justiciable but some are

d. Justiciable so for do not conflict with Fundamental Rights

 

74. Under the Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be governed by the provision of Section 144 BNSS may be given by the parties —

a. Either jointly or separately

b. Separately

c. Jointly

d. None of the above

 

75. Which of these cannot be lawfully transferred as per Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

a. Salary of public officer

b. Machinery attached to land

c. Property yielding income

d. Paddy field

 

76. Which one of the following is a newly added ground for rejection of a plaint under Order 7 Rule 11 of C.P.C.?

a. Non-disclosure of cause of action

b. Under valuation of relief claimed

c. Barred by any law

d. Plaint not filed in duplicate

 

77. Which one of the following is considered as a Supreme source of power?

a. Supreme Court of India

b. Parliament of India

c. President of India

d. Constitution of India

 

78. The concept of remoteness helps courts determine:

a. Scope of damages recoverable

b. Criminal punishment

c. Ownership rights

d. Constitutional validity

 

79. Pursuant to a Constitutional amendment, "cooperative society" finds a place among fundamental rights in-

a. Article 19(1)(a)

b. Article 19(1)(b)

c. Article 19(1)(c)

d. None of the above

 

80. Trespass to goods requires:

a. Direct interference

b. Contract

c. Criminal act

d. Court order

 

81. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by at least-

a. One witness

b. Two witnesses

c. Three witnesses

d. Four witnesses

 

82. It is the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health as specified in-

a. Article 41 of the Constitution

b. Article 43 of the constitution

c. Article 47 of the Constitution

d. Article 50 of the Constitution

 

83. Section 24 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Calculation of maturity when instrument is payable days after date or sight

b. Holder in due course

c. Negotiation

d. Payment

 

84. Fill in the blanks: "When the question is whether a man is alive or dead, and it is shown that he was alive within, the burden of proving that he is dead is on the person who affirms it."

a. 3 years.

b. 7 years.

c. 20 years.

d. 30 years.

 

85. Whether a weapon is a deadly weapon is a question of:

a. Law

b. Fact

c. Opinion of the expert witness

d. Opinion of the judge

 

86. Reservation of seats, in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by: —

a. Article 15(4) of the Constitution

b. Article 16(4) of the Constitution

c. Article 29(2) of the Constitution

d. Article 14 of the Constitution

 

87. Rescission of the Contract means:

a. the renewal of original contract

b. cancellation of contract

c. alteration of contract

d. substitution of new contract in place of earlier one

 

88. Section 1 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:

a. Definitions

b. Short title, extent and commencement

c. Arbitration agreement

d. Appointment of arbitrators

 

89. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a. Counterfeit Section 2(4)

b. Valuable security Section 2(8)

c. Document Section 2(31)

d. Omission Section 2(34)

 

90. To which of the following sections 5 to 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 apply?

a. Transfers of movable property only

b. Transfers of immovable property only

c. Transfers of property whether movable or immovable

d. Specific transfer and not to general principles of transfer of property

 

91. The Act applies to industries handling:

a. Hazardous substances

b. Agricultural goods

c. Domestic products

d. Food items

 

92. “A” promises to obtain for “B” an employment in the public service and “B” promises to pay Rs. 1000 to “A”. The agreement is

a. Legal

b. Can be enforced at the option of the parties

c. Void

d. None of the above

 

93. If the firm is dissolved or the transferring partner ceases to be a partner, the transferee becomes entitled to:

a. Participate in management

b. Receive the share of the assets of the firm to which the transferring partner is entitled

c. Demand dissolution of the firm

d. Become a partner automatically

 

94. In Blyth v Birmingham Waterworks Co., negligence was defined as:

a. Breach of contract

b. Failure to do what a reasonable person would do

c. Intentional harm

d. Criminal act

 

95. The decrees or orders subject to revision under Section 25 must be those made by:

a. District Court

b. High Court

c. Court of Small Causes

d. Revenue Court

 

96. The maxim “Equity imputes an intention to fulfill an obligation” means that:

a. Equity ignores obligations of parties

b. A person is presumed to do what he is legally bound to do

c. Equity cancels obligations automatically

d. Equity focuses only on written contracts

 

97. The essential of valid gift under Muslim Law is-

a. Delivery of possession of the property

b. The declaration by the donor

c. The acceptance by the donee.

d. All of the above

 

98. In Donoghue v Stevenson, the plaintiff found:

a. A stone in bottle

b. A dead rat

c. A decomposed snail

d. Broken glass

 

99. Evidence means and includes

a. statements before police

b. statements in pleadings

c. statements of witness required to be made before the Court

d. all of the above

 

100. The Vice President shall be elected by

a. total members of both the Houses of the Parliament

b. elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament

c. total members of the Rajya Sabha

d. elected members of the Rajya Sabha

 

101. Section 138 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Discharge of surety

b. Release of one co-surety

c. Continuing guarantee

d. Contract of indemnity

 

102. Point out incorrect response—

The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence shall be—

a. Six months if offence is punishable with fine only

b. One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year

c. Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years but not exceeding three years

d. Five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence

 

103. Reasonable foreseeability means:

a. Damage that could reasonably be predicted

b. Damage that is imaginary

c. Damage caused intentionally

d. Damage caused by God

 

104. ‘A’ lets the farm to ‘B’ on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The lease is void under:—

a. Section 23 of T.P.A.

b. Section 24 of T.P.A.

c. Section 25 of T.P.A.

d. None of the above

 

105. Which Indian artist decorated the hand written copy of the Constitution?

a. Mihir Sen

b. S.N. Banergi

c. Mukesh Bandhopadhyaya

d. Nand Lal Bose

 

106. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable:—

a. Where the transfer is by way of sale

b. Where the transfer is by way of gift

c. Where the transfer is by way of exchange

d. Where the transfer is by way of lease

 

107. If substituted performance has already been obtained:

a. Specific performance may still be granted

b. Specific performance cannot be granted

c. Contract becomes void

d. Court must grant damages

 

108. Contract of Insurance is contract of:

a. Guarantee

b. Indemnity

c. Bailment

d. Quasi-contract

 

109. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, objection to jurisdiction as to the place of suing shall not be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court. Unless such objection was taken

a. in the court of first instance.

b. at the earliest possible opportunity.

c. and there has been a consequent failure of justice.

d. when all the conditions of (a), (b). and (c) are fulfilled.

 

110. Publication in defamation means:

a. Writing a statement

b. Communicating statement to third person

c. Speaking privately

d. Court proceedings

 

111. Which of the following would be a valid transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

a. A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour

b. A gives Rs. 500 to B on condition that he shall marry A’s daughter C. At the date of the transfer C was dead

c. A transfer Rs. 500 to B on condition that she shall murder C

d. A transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and

e. E. E dies, B marries with the consent of C and D

 

112. Which among the following is described as 'Lawyers' Paradise?

a. Constitution of India

b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

c. Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

d. Supreme Court of India

 

113. Wakf can be made by—

a. A Muslim only

b. A Hindu only

c. Both Hindu and Muslim

d. Neither by Hindu nor by Muslim

 

114. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a public Prosecutor if he has been in practice for not less than

a. Seven years

b. Three years

c. Ten years

d. None of the above

 

115. In Muslim Law when husband and wife both desire separation, the transaction is known as —

a. Mubarat

b. Talak-in-bain

c. Muta

d. None of the above

 

116. Section 18 applies when there is contravention of which condition of Section 5?

a. Clause (i) only

b. Clause (ii) only

c. Clause (iii), (iv) and (v)

d. All clauses of Section 5

 

117. A sells, by auction, to his daughter, a horse which ‘A’ knows to be unsound and ‘A’ says nothing about the horse’s unsoundness:

a. this a fraud (because of fiduciary relationship)

b. this not a fraud

c. this is misrepresentation

d. none of these

 

118. By a Parliamentary legislation, the district courts were empowered to enforce the fundamental rights of citizens in service matters. The legislation is

a. invalid

b. invalid if the decisions of the district courts are subject to appeal before the Supreme Court

c. valid

d. valid even if the powers of other courts are ousted

 

119. When in a Muslim marriage 'Mehr' is unspecified, the wife is entitled to get —

a. Mehr-i-Muajjal

b. Mehr-i-Muwajjal

c. Mehr-i-Misl

d. All of the above

 

120. Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens:

a. are void if the impossibility of the event is known to the parties at the time when it is made

b. are void if the impossibility of the event is not known to the parties to agreement at the time when it is made

c. are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made

d. are voidable at the option of the parties

 

121. Unless a contrary intention appears, property acquired with money belonging to the firm is deemed to have been acquired:

a. For the partner purchasing it

b. For the managing partner

c. For the firm

d. For creditors

 

122. Judicial review mainly protects:

a. Rule of law

b. Arbitrary rule

c. Executive supremacy

d. Police authority

 

123. Judicial review means-

a. To review the judgment of one High Court Judge by another High Court Judge

b. To review one's own judgment

c. Testing the judgment of High Court by Supreme Court

d. Testing the action of Executive by Judiciary

 

124. “Creamy layer" rule excluding the well placed members of a caste from reservation was first laid down in the case of-

a. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar

b. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

c. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

d. Minerva Mills v. Union of India.

 

125. If satisfied about the mediated settlement, the court shall:

a. Refer the matter back to arbitration

b. Pass an order in terms of the settlement

c. Send it to the High Court

d. Reject the petition

 

126. Partners are liable for torts committed by:

a. Employees only

b. Other partners during business

c. Judges

d. Customers

 

127. Under section 5 of Transfer of Property Act living person includes: —

a. individual human being only

b. company only

c. company or association or body of individuals

d. none of the above

 

128. Fundamental Right are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?

a. Part II

b. Part III

c. Part IV

d. Part V

 

129. If losses remain after exhausting profits and capital, they shall be paid:

a. From firm goodwill

b. By partners individually in the proportions in which they share profits

c. By creditors

d. By the managing partner

 

130. Trivial inconvenience usually:

a. Constitutes nuisance

b. Does not constitute nuisance

c. Is criminal offence

d. Creates strict liability

 

131. Judicial action refers to:

a. Decisions taken by courts

b. Decisions taken by executive

c. Decisions taken by legislature

d. Decisions taken by police

 

132. Trespass to goods refers to:

a. Direct interference with movable property

b. Damage to land

c. Assault

d. Defamation

 

133. The protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is: —

a. available to citizens only

b. available to any person

c. not available to enemy alien

d. not available to a person arrested under a preventive detention law

 

134. Section 35 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Liability of indorser

b. Liability of holder

c. Liability of drawee

d. Liability of maker

 

135. A contract which is valid initially, however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract-

a. remains valid.

b. becomes voidable when it ceases to be enforceable.

c. becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable.

d. becomes void since inception.

 

136. Section 6 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Mode of determining the existence of partnership

b. Registration of firms

c. Rights of partners in accounts

d. Dissolution of firms

 

137. When the offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, maximum term of imprisonment that can be awarded in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:

a. One-half of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence

b. One-fourth of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence

c. One-eighth of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence

d. One-sixth of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence

 

138. Wife loses maintenance under Section 25 if:

a. She becomes employed

b. She remarries or is not chaste

c. She shifts residence

d. She files appeal

 

139. The primary purpose of registration under Section 8 is:

a. To validate marriage

b. To facilitate proof of marriage

c. To solemnize marriage

d. To grant divorce

 

140. Which of the following is not ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution?

a. National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT)

b. A Nationalized Bank

c. Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh

d. Griha Kalyan Kendra

 

141. Which of the following cases upheld ‘secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word ‘secular’ was inserted in the Preamble?

a. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

b. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

c. Waman Rao v. Union of India

d. Samatha v. State of A.R

 

142. Under Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 'admission' can be made by: —

a. party to the suit

b. a counsel of the party

c. person interested in the subject- matter

d. all the above

 

143. Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation

a. Section 39 of BNSS

b. Section 40 of BNSS

c. Section 37 of BNSS

d. Section 38 of BNSS

 

144. Under Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the transferee is entitled to the benefits of insurance covered against the loss or damage by

a. Fire

b. Encroachment

c. Natural calamity

d. None of the above

 

145. What is the term used to describe a guarantee which is intended to cover a number of transaction over a period of time?

a. Ordinary guarantee

b. Specific guarantee

c. Continuing guarantee

d. Subsequent guarantee

 

146. A person acting merely in professional capacity shall:

a. Be treated as promoter

b. Not be treated as promoter

c. Become managing director

d. Become contributory

 

147. “Tribunal” means:

a. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal

b. Securities Appellate Tribunal

c. National Company Law Tribunal

d. Supreme Court

 

148. National Company Law Tribunal is constituted under:

a. Section 408

b. Section 410

c. Section 149

d. Section 270

 

149. “Winding up” is defined under:

a. Section 2(90)

b. Section 2(94A)

c. Section 270

d. Section 272

 

150. “Winding up” includes liquidation under:

a. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

b. SEBI Act

c. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

d. Insurance Act, 1938 

 

Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test