Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test

 

1. Which of the following conviction is appealable?

a. Conviction by a High Court in a case wherein accused pleaded guilty

b. Conviction in petty cases by High Court with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment

c. Conviction in petty cases by court of Session with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment

d. Conviction in petty cases passed by a Magistrate of the first class only with a fine of one hundred rupees

 

2. The reasoning in the above example is that equity treats the purchase of land as:

a. Invalid

b. Unnecessary

c. Already completed

d. Illegal

 

3. All agreements are contract if:

a. They are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract

b. For a lawful consideration and with a lawful object

c. Not expressly declared to be void

d. All of the above

 

4. According to the Constitution of India, Uniform Civil Code is

a. a fundamental right

b. a statutory right

c. a directive principle of state policy

d. a state subject

 

5. Courts review delegated legislation to ensure:

a. It does not exceed statutory power

b. It replaces constitution

c. It removes legislature

d. It removes judiciary

 

6. Under Section 2(1)(a), “arbitration” means:

a. Arbitration administered only by permanent arbitral institutions

b. Arbitration conducted only by courts

c. Any arbitration whether or not administered by a permanent arbitral institution

d. Arbitration conducted by government authorities

 

7. A contract of guarantee is a contract to:

a. Compensate for loss

b. Perform the promise or discharge liability of a third person in case of default

c. Transfer ownership

d. Share profits

 

8. Section 14 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Property of the firm

b. Settlement of accounts

c. Dissolution of partnership

d. Registration of firms

 

9. A right to future maintenance in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined: —

a. can be transferred

b. cannot be transferred

c. can be sold

d. can be vested

 

10. Section 154 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Duties of bailor

b. Unauthorized use by bailee

c. Finder’s rights

d. Contract of guarantee

 

11. Admission by agents are:

a. Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions

b. Admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances

c. Never admissible in criminal proceedings

d. Both (a) and (c)

 

12. The words not defined in the Specific Relief Act shall be understood according to:

a. The Indian Contract Act

b. The Indian Succession Act

c. Transfer of Property Act

d. None of the above

 

13. Order passed under Section 497 BNSS is

a. an interlocutory order

b. a final order

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of the above

 

14. The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of: —

a. Constituent Assembly of Free India

b. Constitution of India

c. Indian Independence Act

d. People of India

 

15. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a. Writ of prohibition:  available against public servant only

b. Writ of quo warranto: available against subordinate courts only

c. Writ of habeas corpus:  available against private individual as Well as state

d. Writ of certiorari: available against autonomous body only

 

16. Section 34 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Insolvency of a partner

b. Death of a partner

c. Dissolution of firm

d. Expulsion of partner

 

17. Defence of necessity is not available to excuse killing of someone to protect the life of many. This principle which is followed in India was laid down earlier by the Queens Bench Division in the following case.

a. R. v. Moore

b. R. v. Dudely and Stepens

c. R. v. Davis

d. R. v. Mc'pherson

 

18. After divorce, a Muslim woman —

a. Can immediately marry

b. Cannot remarry

c. Can marry only after completion of Iddat

d. None of the above

 

19. After declaration of Waqf, the property becomes vested in —

a. God

b. Wakif

c. Mutwalli

d. Jointly on all of the above

 

20. Which of the following doctrines is associated with the application of the maxim “He who seeks equity must do equity”?

a. Doctrine of election

b. Doctrine of eclipse

c. Doctrine of pith and substance

d. Doctrine of severability

 

21. The Supreme Court has held that prostitutes are entitled to a life of dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. The statement is: —

a. True

b. False

c. Partly correct

d. None of the above

 

22. Prohibition applies when:

a. Proceedings completed

b. Proceedings still pending

c. Criminal trial

d. Contract dispute

 

23. Provision based on doctrine of acceleration under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is: —

a. Section 29

b. Section 28

c. Section 27

d. Section 30

 

24. The estate of a partner adjudicated insolvent is not liable for acts of the firm done after:

a. Dissolution of the firm

b. His adjudication as insolvent

c. Notice by partners

d. Settlement of accounts

 

25. The words, "Unity and integrity of the Nation" were incorporated in the preamble of the Constitution of India by which Amendment?

a. 41st Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 43rd Amendment

d. 44th Amendment

 

26. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Clause (4B) was added to Article 16 of the Constitution?

a. 80th

b. 82nd

c. 81st

d. 85th

 

27. A decree for execution cannot be sent to a:

a. Foreign court

b. Court outside India established by the authority of Central Government

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. Neither (a) nor (b)

 

28. An instrument is an inland instrument when it is:

a. Drawn or made in India

b. Payable in India

c. Drawn upon a person resident in India

d. All of the above

 

29. The person who commits a tort is called:

a. Plaintiff

b. Tortfeasor

c. Defendant

d. Accused

 

30. The maturity of a promissory note or bill of exchange is:

a. The date on which it is drawn

b. The date on which it falls due

c. The date of acceptance

d. The date of endorsement

 

31. Administrative adjudication became necessary because:

a. Growth of welfare state

b. Increase in technical disputes

c. Need for quick decisions

d. All of the above

 

32. A proposal cannot be revoked:

a. by failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance

b. by lapse of the time prescribed in the proposal for its acceptance

c. by insanity of the proposer, if the fact of insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance

d. after the communication of its acceptance is complete

 

33. In Muslim Law-

a. Payment of Mehar is necessary

b. Payment of Mehar is not necessary

c. Meher is to be paid on demand before marriage

d. Meher is determined after marriage

 

34. Which decision of the Supreme Court has dealt with the right of a prisoner to a speedy trial and legal aid?

a. Kharak Singh a State of U.P.

b. A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras

c. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secy., State of Bihar

d. Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar

 

35. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any part of the territory of India?

a. Article 19(1) (a)

b. Article 19(1) (d)

c. Article 19(1) (e)

d. Article 19(1) (g)

 

36. Maintenance decree against husband can be a ground for divorce if:

a. Wife lives with husband

b. Cohabitation resumes immediately

c. No cohabitation for one year after decree/order

d. Husband pays maintenance regularly

 

37. No person has fundamental right to:

a. basic education

b. practice a profession

c. form association

d. approach the High Courts for enforcement of his fundamental rights

 

38. The Vidyawati case involved negligence of:

a. Government driver

b. Judge

c. Minister

d. Contractor

 

39. Section 169 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Rights of bailee

b. Finder’s right to sell goods

c. Duties of bailor

d. Contract of guarantee

 

40. According to section 3 of the Transfer Property Act, 1882 ‘instrument’ means: —

a. testamentary instrument

b. non-testamentary instrument

c. both (a) & (b)

d. None of the above

 

41. A Muslim woman need to observe iddat in which of the following?

a. Muta marriage

b. Irregular marriage

c. Valid marriage

d. All of the above

 

42. Select the right option based on following Assertion-Reason:

Assertion (A): The principal of equality before law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances.

Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances.

Code:

a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

43. Revocation of a continuing guarantee is done by:

a. Filing a case

b. Giving notice to the creditor

c. Informing the principal debtor only

d. Writing a contract again

 

44. Basic structure cannot be changed. This principal of law relates to

a. Civil Procedure Code

b. BNSS

c. Constitution of India

d. Indian Contract Act

 

45. 'Electronic Record' under BNS is defined in:

a. Section 29

b. Section 2(8)

c. Section 2(5)

d. Section 2(7)

 

46. ‘Res judicata’ does not apply to:

a. between co-plaintiffs

b. between co-defendants

c. public interest litigation

d. writ of habeas corpus

 

47. The two main kinds of nuisance are:

a. Public and Private

b. Civil and Criminal

c. Personal and Property

d. Legal and Illegal

 

48. Joint and several liability means:

a. Plaintiff can recover full damages from any defendant

b. Plaintiff must sue all defendants

c. Court pays damages

d. Government pays damages

 

49. The five writs are:

a. Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Quo Warranto

b. Mandamus, Appeal, Review

c. Habeas Corpus, Review

d. Mandamus, Contract

 

50. The method of proportional representation is adopted in the election of

a. Prime Minister

b. President

c. Governor

d. Chief Justice of India

 

51. Which one of the following is not the way of Termination of Citizenship?

a. By renunciation

b. By acquisition

c. The tour journey of another State for few months

d. By deprivation

 

52. When the promisor offers to perform his obligation to the promisee, it is called:

a. novation

b. tender of performance

c. offer of performance

d. both (b) and (c)

 

53. For the purpose of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 who from amongst the following, may determine the language of each Court in the State other than the High Court?

a. The High Court of the State

b. The Supreme Court of India

c. The State Government

d. The Legislative Assembly of the State

 

54. 'Equality before law' is a fundamental right en-shrined in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India-

a. Article 13

b. Article 16

c. Article 14

d. Article 19

 

55. A cheque is:

a. A promissory note drawn on a bank

b. A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker

c. A government instrument

d. A demand draft

 

56. Section 23A applies in proceedings for:

a. Only divorce

b. Divorce, judicial separation, or restitution of conjugal rights

c. Only annulment

d. Only maintenance

 

57. The Presidency Small Cause Courts Law Amendment Act which repealed Section 26 is:

a. Act 8 of 1888

b. Act 9 of 1888

c. Act 10 of 1888

d. Act 11 of 1888

 

58. The foreseeability test asks whether:

a. Damage was intentional

b. Damage could reasonably be anticipated

c. Damage was criminal

d. Damage was contractual

 

59. That there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place—

a. Is a fact

b. Is an opinion

c. Is a document

d. Is a motive

 

60. In Muslim Law, Divorce by lien is a right avail¬able to the —

a. Wife only

b. Husband only

c. Both husband and wife

d. Neither husband nor wife

 

61. A proposed beneficiary may renounce his interest by:

a. Disclaimer addressed to trustee

b. Court order

c. Oral statement only

d. Registration

 

62. The term of office of the President of India is

a. 5 years form date of his election

b. 5 years from date of his entering upon his office

c. 7 years from date of his election

d. 7 years from date of his entering upon his office

 

63. The word Property is defined in which Section of Transfer of Property Act: —

a. Section 1

b. Section 2

c. Section 3

d. None of these

 

64. Who was the first Indian Governor General of free India?

a. Sri C. Rajagopalachari

b. Lord Mountbatten

c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

d. None of these

 

65. 'Dower' is —

a. a. A mark   of respect to the wife

b. b. A consideration to the marriage

c. c. An essential incidence of marriage

d. d. All of the above

 

66. The right of lien allows the bailee to:

a. Sell the goods

b. Destroy the goods

c. Retain the goods until payment for services is made

d. Transfer ownership

 

67. Act of God refers to:

a. Natural forces beyond human control

b. Human negligence

c. Mistake of law

d. Statutory authority

 

68. Section 4(b) refers to:

a. Only Hindu customs

b. Only personal laws

c. Any other law inconsistent with the Act

d. Only state laws

 

69. The buyer shall bear risk of:

a. Loss due to seller’s fault

b. Transit delay

c. Deterioration necessarily incident to course of transit

d. Theft

 

70. On Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the President has power to suspend the Fundamental Rights except the right secured by: —

a. Articles 19 and 20

b. Articles 20 and 21

c. Articles 21 and 22

d. Articles 19,20 and 21

 

71. Which of the following is true and correct regarding Art. 14 of the Constitution of India?

a. It forbids class legislation

b. It allows reasonable classification

c. Both. It forbids class legislation and allows rea-sonable classification

d. None of these

 

72. Comparative negligence allows courts to:

a. Divide fault among parties

b. Eliminate damages

c. Punish plaintiff

d. End case immediately

 

73. If the main petition in which the reference was made is pending, the referral court shall:

a. Continue arbitration

b. Dispose of the petition in terms of the settlement

c. Refer the matter to mediation again

d. Send it to the tribunal

 

74. Under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the defense of 'Consent' is not available in cases of

a. Consent to cause death

b. Consent to cause grievous hurt

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

 

75. The word “tort” means:

a. Agreement

b. Wrong

c. Duty

d. Compensation

 

76. Partition of immovable property is

a. an exchange

b. a transfer

c. a gift

d. none of the above

 

77. A, B and C as sureties for D, enter into three several bonds, each in a different penalty, namely, A is the penalty of Rs. 10,000, B is that of Rs. 20,000 and C in that of Rs. 40,000 conditioned for D’s duly accounting to M. D makes default to the extent of Rs. 30,000. The liabilities of A, B and C are:

a. only A is liable to pay

b. only B is liable to pay

c. only C is liable to pay

d. A, B and C are each liable to pay

 

78. The Supreme Court of India has adopted new approach for the interpretation of the concept ‘Equality’ in : —

a. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ati. Sarkar

b. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

c. Keshavanananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

d. State of Karnataka v. Appa Balulngale

 

79. The first State in Independent India which was created on linguistic basis was-

a. Gujarat

b. Kerala

c. Andhra Pradesh

d. Haryana

 

80. Which one of the following sections of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam defines admission?

a. Section 16

b. Section 15

c. Section 17

d. Section 18

 

81. Permission for filing divorce before one year can be granted by:

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court rules / court as per rules

c. District Collector

d. Police authority

 

82. The liability of an indorser arises when the instrument is:

a. Negotiated

b. Accepted

c. Dishonoured by drawee, acceptor or maker

d. Registered

 

83. In the light of provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, a minor

a. can transfer a property

b. cannot transfer a property

c. can accept transfer of property in his favour

d. both (b) and (c)

 

84. When the day of maturity of a promissory note or bill of exchange is a public holiday:

a. Payment is made on next day

b. Payment is made on same day

c. Instrument is deemed due on the next preceding business day

d. Instrument becomes void

 

85. A contract with or by a minor is a:

a. Valid contract

b. Void contract

c. Voidable contract-

d. Voidable at the option of either party

 

86. Whether a Muslim may give 'Talaq' in the state of intoxication or under pressure?

a. Yes, recognized under the 'Sunni' Muslim Law

b. Yes, recognized under the 'Shia' Muslim Law

c. Yes, according to the 'Ismailiya' Law

d. Yes, according to the "Usuli' Law

 

87. Clause (c) of Section 8 applies when:

a. Damages are easy to calculate

b. Actual damage is extremely difficult to ascertain

c. Property is immovable

d. Property is government owned

 

88. Lien is lost by:

a. Delivery

b. Waiver thereof

c. Payment only

d. Inspection

 

89. A person acts dishonestly when he does anything:

a. With mens rea

b. With wrong motive

c. With intention to cause wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another

d. With intent to defraud

 

90. All civil courts have jurisdiction to try—

a. All suits of a civil nature

b. All suits of civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is expressly not barred

c. All suits of civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is impliedly not barred

d. All suits of civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred

 

91. ‘Decree holder’ means any person in whose favor a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made. This definition of the term ‘decree holder’ is mentioned under:

a. Section-2(2), C.P.C.

b. Section-2(3), C.P.C.

c. Section-2(4), C.P.C.

d. Section-2(d), C.P.C.

 

92. The Act extends to:

a. Only mainland India

b. Whole of India including Andaman and Nicobar Islands

c. Only Union Territories

d. Only states excluding islands

 

93. The freedom of Press in India is : —

a. available to the people under the laws of the Parliament

b. specifically provided in the Constitution of India

c. implied in the right of freedom of expression

d. available to the people under executive orders

 

94. Which one of the following is Directive Principle of State Policy?

a. To organize Village Panchayats

b. Right to education

c. Right to property

d. Right to move Supreme Court

 

95. According to Section 55 of the Contract Act, if time is not the essence of the contract:

a. The contract becomes void

b. The contract becomes illegal

c. The promisee is entitled only to damages

d. The contract is automatically cancelled

 

96. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice it is called a writ of: —

a. Certiorari

b. Mandamus

c. prohibition

d. Habeas Corpus

 

97. Section 15(fa) relates to:

a. Amalgamation of LLPs

b. Sale of goods

c. Lease agreements

d. Mortgage contracts

 

98. Under Muslim Law, a divorce by Khula is a di¬vorce with the consent and at the instance of —

a. Husband

b. Wife

c. Kazi

d. Husband and wife

 

99. Transfer of property is NOT applicable to: —

a. gifts of movable property

b. exchange

c. lease

d. sale of goods

 

100. Right to equality are in Article: —

a. 14-18

b. 18-19

c. 20-21

d. 32

 

101. Which of the following is prohibited without the consent of the President of India according to Article 18?

a. Conferment of title

b. Accepting any title from foreign State

c. Accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any foreign State

d. All of the above.

 

102. One defence to strict liability is:

a. Act of God

b. Negligence

c. Intention

d. Criminal act

 

103. Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Permanent alimony

b. Maintenance pendente lite and expenses of proceedings

c. Divorce by mutual consent

d. Judicial separation

 

104. The writ of Certiorari can be issued against: —

a. A person exercising purely administrative powers

b. Against a Minister

c. Against any Quasi-Judicial or Judicial authority

d. None of the above

 

105. While exercising the power of revision under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the High Court cannot

a. discharge the accused

b. acquit the accused

c. grant bail to the accused

d. convert a finding of acquittal into one of conviction

 

106. Which one of the following cases does not relate to intoxication?

a. D.P.P. v. Beard

b. Basudeo v. State of Pepsu

c. R. v. McNaughten

d. R. v. Tandy

 

107. According to Section 7(4)(b), an arbitration agreement may be evidenced through:

a. Exchange of letters

b. Telex or telegrams

c. Other telecommunication including electronic communication

d. All of the above

 

108. Contributory negligence means:

a. Defendant alone negligent

b. Plaintiff also negligent

c. Judge negligent

d. No negligence

 

109. In Penn v. Baltimore, the English court granted the remedy of:

a. Injunction

b. Specific performance

c. Damages

d. Cancellation of contract

 

110. Where a firm is not dissolved on death of a partner, the estate of the deceased partner is:

a. Liable for all future acts

b. Not liable for acts of the firm done after his death

c. Liable for acts only with consent

d. Liable only for contractual obligations

 

111. Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called: —

a. Conditional Transfer

b. Transfer by Interest

c. Absolute Transfer

d. Contingent Transfer

 

112. In such case, goods shall be:

a. Merchantable

b. Durable

c. New

d. Reasonably fit for such purpose

 

113. Which one of the following sections of the Trans¬fer of Property Act, 1882 says that “a transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law”?

a. Section 8

b. Section 5

c. Section 7

d. Section 9

 

114. Mutta marriage is allowed in which one of the following Schools of Muslim Law?

a. Hanafi

b. Ithna Ashari

c. Ismailis

d. Hanabali

 

115. In mutual consent divorce, consent must not be:

a. Written

b. Registered

c. Obtained by force, fraud, or undue influence

d. Delayed

 

116. A is accused of receiving stolen goods while knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to sell them below their value. He may

a. not prove this statement

b. prove if it is relevant otherwise than an admission

c. prove it as it is explanatory of conduct influenced by facts in issue

d. None of the above

 

117. Joint negligence occurs when:

a. One person negligent

b. Multiple persons negligent together

c. Court negligent

d. Government negligent

 

118. Which one of the following is not transfer by the act of parties under Transfer of Property Act?

a. Succession

b. Sale

c. Mortgage

d. Gift

 

119. Investment must be made in:

a. Any business

b. Personal accounts

c. Real estate only

d. Authorized securities

 

120. Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Judicial separation

b. Divorce

c. Void marriages

d. Maintenance

 

121. The term res gestae is equivalent to facts mentioned in Section 4 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. It implies:

a. Things done in the course of a transaction

b. Fact in issue and surrounding circumstances

c. Acts talking for themselves

d. All of the above

 

122. Section 21C overrides:

a. Only Civil Procedure Code

b. Only Criminal Procedure Code

c. Any other law regarding admissibility of documents

d. Only Hindu law customs

 

123. Which statement correctly reflects Section 35?

a. Proceedings automatically terminate if a Court loses jurisdiction

b. Proceedings may continue in the Court which would have jurisdiction to try the suit

c. Only High Court may continue the proceedings

d. Registrar must transfer the suit

 

124. Whom of the following can move the court for plea bargaining?

a. The Police Officer

b. The complainant

c. Only the accused

d. Both the accused or the complainant.

 

125. Assertion (A) : Property is a comprehensive term, and includes copyright.

Reason (R): Transfer of Property Act deals with all kinds of property including patents.

Code:

a. Both (A) (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

 

126. Talak-ul-biddat is—

a. Complete and irrevocable divorce

b. Incomplete and irrevocable divorce

c. Complete and revocable divorce

d. None of these above

 

127. Remedy for trespass to person includes:

a. Damages

b. Injunction

c. Self defence

d. All of the above

 

128. The essential requirement for solemnization is:

a. Registration only

b. Court approval

c. Performance of customary rites and ceremonies

d. Presence of government officer

 

129. Which Article of the Constitution provides for reservation in promotion for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes: —

a. Article 15(4)

b. Article 16(4)

c. Article 16(4A)

d. Article 16(4B)

 

130. Several persons can be joined as plaintiffs, in cases

a. where right arises out of the same act, in favor of such person

b. where any common question of law is involved

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of the above

 

131. “Goods” include things attached to land which are agreed:

a. To remain attached

b. To be severed before sale or under the contract of sale

c. To be mortgaged

d. To be leased

 

132. Which of the following cases is popularly known as "the Mandal case"?

a. TMA Pai Foundation v. Union of India

b. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India

c. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

d. None of the above

 

133. X enters into a contract with Y, for which Y is guilty of fraud. X can :

a. set aside the contract but cannot recover damages

b. only recover damages

c. set aside the contract and can recover damages also

d. none of the above

 

134. Section 28A strengthens:

a. Appeal rights

b. Execution/enforcement mechanism

c. Marriage validity rules

d. Evidence rules only

 

135. No change may be made in the nature of the business of the firm without:

a. Majority consent

b. Registrar's approval

c. Consent of all the partners

d. Court order

 

136. If the bailee uses goods contrary to the terms of bailment:

a. No consequence

b. Bailment ends automatically

c. He is liable to compensate for damage

d. Bailor becomes liable

 

137. The rule against bias ensures:

a. Legislative power

b. Political control

c. Impartial decision making

d. Criminal punishment

 

138. ‘Equal pay for equal work’ to woman is provided in which Act: —

a. Workman Compensation Act

b. Equal Remuneration Act

c. Trade Union Act

d. Industrial Dispute Act

 

139. Under Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 an agreement not to pursue any legal remedy to enforce the right is:

a. Valid

b. Voidable

c. Void

d. Unenforceable

 

140. The Wagon Mound case was decided in:

a. 1961

b. 1932

c. 1920

d. 1945

 

141. The pawnee can retain the goods for:

a. Debt only

b. Debt and interest only

c. Debt, interest, and necessary expenses

d. Expenses only

 

142. The case Hambrook v Stokes Bros expanded liability for:

a. Shock due to fear for children

b. Shock due to property damage

c. Contract breach

d. Professional negligence

 

143. The concept of duty of care was famously established in:

a. Rylands v Fletcher

b. Donoghue v Stevenson

c. Ashby v White

d. Gloucester Grammar School Case

 

144. Section 15(h) deals with contracts entered into by:

a. Promoters of a company before incorporation

b. Government officials

c. Mortgagees

d. Trustees

 

145. Protection in respect of conviction for offences' is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a. Article 22

b. Article 21

c. Article 20

d. Article 19

 

146. “Memorandum” is defined under:

a. Section 2(54)

b. Section 2(56)

c. Section 2(69)

d. Section 2(90)

 

147. “Promoter” is defined under:

a. Section 2(47)

b. Section 2(54)

c. Section 2(69)

d. Section 2(90)

 

148. A promoter includes a person named as such in:

a. Memorandum

b. Prospectus

c. Articles

d. Share certificate

 

149. A promoter includes a person who has control over affairs of company:

a. Directly or indirectly

b. Through court only

c. Through Registrar only

d. Through auditors only

 

150. A person in accordance with whose advice the Board is accustomed to act may be treated as:

a. Auditor

b. Promoter

c. Liquidator

d. Creditor 

 

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