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Bihar PCS-J Mock Test-5
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1. Proceedings under the Hindu Marriage Act are regulated by:
a. Code of Criminal Procedure only
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Indian Evidence Act only
2. Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
a. Creates a substantive offence
b. Is the rule of evidence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
3. Before the commencement of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of immovable property in India was governed by the: -
a. Principles of English Law and Equity
b. Indian Registration Act, 1908
c. British State of Goods Act, 1880
d. Indian Contract Act, 1872
4. A breach of duty occurs when:
a. Defendant acts reasonably
b. Defendant fails to meet required standard of care
c. Plaintiff acts negligently
d. Contract exists
5. A, B and C jointly promise to pay ‘D’ a sum of Rs. 3,000. A & B are untraceable. Is ‘C’ is liable to pay?
a. ‘C’ liable to pay ‘D’ in full
b. ‘C’ liable' to pay ‘D’ in part
c. Liability of ‘C’ does not arise
d. None of these
6. In every criminal trial, when the Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused.
a. Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence can be passed
b. Wrong, it is not required in summons case
c. It is required only before sending the conviction warrant
d. Not required at all in any case
7. According to Section 17(2), if a person becomes liable as a surety under the proviso, the security may be realized as provided under:
a. Section 144 CPC
b. Section 145 CPC
c. Section 151 CPC
d. Section 96 CPC
8. A family custom is valid only if:
a. Approved by court
b. Published in Gazette
c. Not discontinued by the family
d. Followed for 1 year
9. Persons competent to transfer a property have been defined under which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
10. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, defines ‘Notice’?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 5
d. Explanation II of Section 3
11. A child under Section 16 is deemed legitimate if:
a. Marriage is valid only
b. Parents cohabit after decree
c. Child is conceived before annulment decree in voidable marriage
d. Court permits later
12. Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India confers a right on all minorities to establish educational institutions.
Reason (R): The right to establish and administer educational institutions by the minorities is based solely on religion.
a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R)' are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
13. The principle of res judicata does not apply in case of writ Of: —
a. Habeas corpus
b. Mandamus
c. Quo-warranto
d. Prohibition
14. Which of the following is not a tort?
a. Negligence
b. Defamation
c. Breach of contract
d. Nuisance
15. 'A' is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and goals are broken open. 'A' is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of these facts is relevant because—
a. They constitute a motive for relevant fact
b. They show preparation for relevant facts
c. They are effect of relevant facts
d. They form part of the general transaction
16. If a person raises a fist threateningly:
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False imprisonment
d. Nuisance
17. Under Section 7(1), disputes submitted to arbitration may be:
a. Only future disputes
b. Only past disputes
c. Disputes which have arisen or may arise
d. Only contractual disputes
18. Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:
a. Contract of indemnity
b. Contract of guarantee
c. Contract of bailment
d. Contract of agency
19. The provisions of Chapters III and IV apply to Courts invested with Small Cause jurisdiction:
a. Only for administrative purposes
b. So far as regards exercise of that jurisdiction by those Courts
c. Only for appeals
d. Only for execution
20. Which of the following is an example of Act of God?
a. Earthquake
b. Assault
c. Trespass
d. Battery
21. Which property cannot be transferred?
a. A public office
b. A mere chance to succeed
c. A mere right of re-entry
d. All of the above
22. The share of a minor admitted to the benefits of partnership is:
a. Not liable for acts of the firm
b. Liable for the acts of the firm but the minor is not personally liable
c. Personally liable for all acts of the firm
d. Liable only if he participates in management
23. The defence of necessity justifies:
a. Lesser harm to avoid greater harm
b. All types of harm
c. Criminal acts
d. Intentional torts always
24. According to Article 75, who appoints the Prime Minister?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The President
c. The Lok Sabha
d. The Parliament
25. Muta marriage comes to an end by —
a. Talaq
b. Hiba-i-Muddat
c. Talaq-i-Tafweez
d. None of the above
26. The employer is liable for acts done:
a. In course of employment
b. Outside employment
c. Personal acts
d. Independent acts
27. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for power of judicial review of legislative functions?
a. Article 13
b. Article 17
c. Article 18
d. Article 245
28. Which of the following is correct about the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
a. It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution
b. It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights.
c. It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.
d. It is not a part of the Constitution.
29. ‘Rule against perpetuity’ given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not affect any rule of: —
a. Hindu Law
b. Muhammadan Law
c. Christian Law
d. None of the above
30. After a decree of divorce, remarriage is permitted when:
a. Immediately after decree in all cases
b. Only after 6 months
c. No right of appeal exists or appeal time has expired or appeal is dismissed
d. Only after court permission
31. The equality referred to in the maxim does not mean simple equality but:
a. Absolute equality in all matters
b. Equality based on property ownership
c. Proportionate equity
d. Equality only in contracts
32. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has declared Article 15(5) as Constitutional?
a. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
b. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
c. State of Madras v. Champakai Dorairajan
d. T.MA. Pai Foundations v. State of Karnataka
33. Exceptions to the doctrine of ‘privity of contract’ do not include:
a. beneficiaries under a charge
b. equitable mortgage
c. estoppel
d. marriage settlement
34. Knowledge of imprisonment by the plaintiff is:
a. Essential always
b. Not always necessary
c. Never relevant
d. Criminal rule
35. Which one of the following is not essential condition for application of Res Judicata?
a. Previous suit was finally heard and decided by the Court of Competent Jurisdiction
b. Previous suit must be pending before a Court
c. Parties in previous and the subsequent suits must be the same
d. Subject matter of previous and the subsequent suits must be the same
36. Section 47 of BNSS provides that every person arrested without warrant shall be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence. What is the effect of non-compliance of these provisions?
a. It shall not render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal
b. Even if the provisions of this section are overlooked, error may be corrected later.
c. It shall render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal and shall enable the person arrested move for habeas-corpus to obtain his release
d. It is simply a procedural error and the provisions of this section are not very material
37. Right of life does not include Right to die was held in the case of: —
a. K Rathinam v. Union of India
b. State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
c. Chennaagdeshwar v. State of Andhra Pradesh
d. Smt. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
38. To ensure fairness and accuracy in a Test Identification Parade, the requirement is
a. parading persons of a social Status
b. parading persons of same or similar physical appearance along with the suspect
c. parading be done in presence of all the witnesses simultaneously
d. none of these
39. In which one of the following cases, has the Supreme Court observed that judicial review is a basic structure of the Constitution?
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. S.P. Mittal v. Union of India
c. Maneka Gandhi, v. Union of India
d. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
40. The maker of a promissory note is bound to:
a. Transfer the instrument
b. Pay the amount at maturity according to the apparent tenor of the note
c. Accept the instrument
d. Negotiate the instrument
41. Separation of powers doctrine was given by:
a. Montesquieu
b. Dicey
c. Bentham
d. Austin
42. A person is “insolvent” when he:
a. Commits fraud
b. Ceases to pay debts in the ordinary course of business or cannot pay debts as they become due
c. Is declared bankrupt by court only
d. Defaults once
43. For divorced women not subject to menstruation "Iddat period" means…………………lunar month of her divorce-
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Nine
44. Whether a transfer can be made in favour of an unborn person?
a. Yes, by machinery of trust
b. Yes
c. Guardian has got to be appointed first
d. None of the above
45. Surety is discharged if:
a. The creditor changes his address
b. The creditor performs his duty
c. The creditor does any act or omission that discharges the principal debtor
d. The debtor refuses to pay
46. The provision in the BNSS which may be invoked by a civil court is Section
a. 349
b. 350
c. 379
d. 250
47. The Doctrine of Eclipse is in regard to Article: —
a. 105
b. 245
c. 246
d. 13
48. For abetment
a. It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed successfully
b. It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed though unsuccessfully
c. It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
d. Both (a) & (b)
49. There is a fire in a particular locality. 'A', who sees this fire, pulls down houses of others, in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading and with the purpose of saving human life and property. In this case:
a. 'A' will be guilty of the offence of mischief as he pulls down houses of Others
b. 'A' will not be criminally liable as he wanted to bring benefit to others
c. 'A' will not be liable for any offence as he has done it for preventing other more dangerous harms to persons and their properties
d. ‘A’ will be guilty as he intentionally - caused damage to the property of
50. There is an implied warranty that the buyer shall:
a. Receive goods only
b. Inspect goods
c. Resell goods
d. Have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods
51. Which one among the following statements is correct?
a. The powers of High Courts under Article 227 of the Constitution of India can be ousted
b. No one can be subjected to narcoanalysis test without his consent
c. All India Services can be created under Article 312 and 320 of the Constitution of India
d. Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction in civil matters.
52. If the plaintiff comes to nuisance area later, the defence is called:
a. Volenti non fit injuria
b. Coming to nuisance
c. Res ipsa loquitur
d. Absolute liability
53. Doctors are judged by:
a. Ordinary person standard
b. Professional skill standard
c. Criminal law
d. Strict liability
54. Right of accused to speedy trial is a fundamental right under which Article of the Constitution of India?
a. 21
b. 32
c. 226
d. None of the above
55. The right of private defence can be exercised to protect:
a. Person and property
b. Reputation
c. Contract
d. Employment
56. Which one of the following ingredients is not necessary for contract
a. Proposal
b. Acceptance
c. Consideration
d. Property
57. The term “law” in Section 4 includes:
a. Only Indian law
b. Only statutory law
c. Customary law
d. Law of foreign country where immovable property is situated
58. An agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. enforceable
59. If a party who has obtained and order to amend the pleading under CPC, if not amended, after expiration of how many days shall not be permitted to amend the same without the leave of the court?
a. 15 days
b. 90 days
c. 14 days
d. 30 days
60. A purpose not expressly forbidden but defeating law is:
a. Valid
b. Enforceable
c. Unlawful
d. Optional
61. Article 15(3) of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for: —
a. reservation in employment for freedom fighters
b. women and children
c. reservation in employment for physically handicapped persons
d. relaxation of minimum qualifying marks for admission to those belonging to SC and ST category
62. What kind of property is transferable?
a. Right of re-entry
b. Public Office
c. Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
d. Pension
63. In India right to education is a: —
a. constitutional right
b. statutory right
c. fundamental right
d. common law right
64. An agent can avoid personal liability if he:
a. Mentions that he signs as agent or does not intend personal liability
b. Signs secretly
c. Gets witness signature
d. Gets court approval
65. Another important case on Rule of Law is:
a. Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain
b. Donoghue v Stevenson
c. Bolam v Friern Hospital
d. Ashby v White
66. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Article 16(4-A) providing for reserva¬tion in promotions is a enabling provision?
a. Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
b. M. Nagraj v. Union of India
c. State of Kerala v. NM. Thomas
d. TM. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
67. This section applies where price is to be fixed by:
a. Buyer
b. Seller
c. Third party valuation
d. Court
68. The 'fact in issue' means
a. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
b. fact, the existence or non-existence of Which is disputed by the parties
c. fact, the existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
d. All of the above
69. Where the wife is not pregnant, the period of iddat in case of death of husband is —
a. Three months.
b. Three months and ten days
c. Four months and ten days
d. There is no iddat period in such cases
70. Which of the following directive principles is a socialistic principle?
a. Equal pay for equal work to all
b. Protection of the health of the workers
c. Prevention of concentration of wealth and the means of production
d. all the above
71. Marriage without customary rites:
a. Is always valid
b. Is invalid
c. Depends on court discretion
d. Valid only after registration
72. What is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem?
a. Sing and stand respectfully
b. Stand respectfully
c. Sing the same
d. To bow
73. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 covers: —
a. Movable Property
b. Immovable Property
c. None
d. (a) and (b) both
74. The ‘equal protection of Laws’ in Article 14 has been taken from: —
a. British Constitution
b. American Constitution
c. Australian Constitution
d. None of the above
75. This section does not affect duties or liabilities of:
a. Parties as owners
b. Parties as bailees of each other’s goods
c. Court officers
d. Carriers
76. Consider the following statements and point out which of them is correct?
1. An Agreement made without consideration is void.
2. Consideration should have some value in the eyes of the law.
3. Consideration has to be adequate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 2
77. One major objection to administrative law was based on:
a. Property Law
b. Criminal justice
c. Rule of law
d. Contract law
78. A Talaq can be effected —
a. orally by spoken words
b. In writing
c. Only (a) and not (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)
79. The maxim 'volenti non fit injuria' has been incorporated in which section of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 25
b. Section 28
c. Section 30
d. None of the above
80. Section 23 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:
a. Grounds of divorce
b. Decree in proceedings
c. Jurisdiction of courts
d. Maintenance orders
81. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Article 31 A-Acquisition of estates
b. Article 31B-Exercise of police power
c. Article 32—Appointment of Chief Justice of India
d. Article 148-Attorney General of India
82. In case of actual receipt of interest, trustee must:
a. Pay penalty
b. Return principal
c. Account for interest received
d. Pay double interest
83. Natural justice principles are:
a. Flexible
b. Rigid
c. Criminal rules
d. Contractual rules
84. Assertion (A): The court can allow right of private defence even if not pleaded by the accused.
Reason (R): Accused claims it as a matter of right.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
85. Select the most appropriate: —
Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides all persons:
a. equality before law
b. reservation
c. equality before law and equal protection of law
d. freedom of religion
86. The Supreme Court has held that right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of every citizen within the meaning of Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of India in the case of: —
a. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
b. Abhay Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
c. Union of India v. Naveen Jindal
d. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
87. If the first mortgagee does not possess the legal estate, the third mortgagee who pays him:
a. Gains priority over the second mortgagee
b. Gains equal priority
c. Does not gain priority over the second mortgagee
d. Automatically becomes first mortgagee
88. Every prior party to a negotiable instrument is liable to:
a. Payee
b. Drawee
c. Holder in due course
d. Bank
89. Iddat is a period during Which a Muslim woman is prohibited from marrying on dissolution of marriage:
a. By death
b. By divorce
c. Only (a) and not (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
90. During the continuance of the firm, the transferee of a partner’s interest:
a. May inspect the books of the firm
b. May demand detailed accounts from partners
c. Must accept the account of profits agreed to by the partners
d. May participate in management decisions
91. Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:
a. Conditions of marriage
b. Ceremonies for a Hindu marriage
c. Void marriages
d. Divorce
92. Curative petition aims to:
a. Prevent miscarriage of justice
b. Punish criminals
c. Transfer property
d. Create laws
93. If necessary under Section 13(1)(c), the purchaser may require:
a. Registration of property
b. Transfer of mortgage
c. Conveyance from mortgagee
d. Government approval
94. Decree means:
a. an order adjudicating claims
b. informal expression of an adjudication
c. formal expression of an adjudication but shall not include any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
d. none of the above
95. According to Article 52, who is the head of the Indian state?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The President
c. The Chief Justice of India
d. The Vice-President
96. The doctrine of vicarious liability is mainly based on:
a. Employer’s control
b. Ownership
c. Property rights
d. Criminal law
97. Sunni Muslims consider "Muta Marriage" as —
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Invalid
98. The acceptor of a bill at or after maturity must pay:
a. The holder on demand
b. Only the bank
c. The government
d. The drawer
99. When the agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation the agreement is
a. illegal
b. unenforceable
c. void
d. voidable
100. The case of Penn v. Baltimore involved:
a. A mortgage dispute
b. A boundary dispute regarding land in America decided by an English court
c. A criminal offence in England
d. A trust dispute in Scotland
101. Subject to contract between the partners, a firm constituted for a fixed term is dissolved:
a. By notice of a partner
b. By expiry of the term
c. By decision of majority partners
d. By order of the Registrar
102. Under Order IV Rule 1, sub rule (1) of CPC, a suit is instituted when:
a. A copy of plaint is presented to the court
b. A plaint in duplicate is presented to the court
c. A plaint in triplicate is presented to the court
d. The court taken the plaint in consideration
103. It has observed by the Supreme Court of India that the world ‘socialist’ in the Preamble enables the court to lean more and more in favour of nationalization and State ownership of industry in: —
a. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
b. Excel wear v. Union of India
c. A.B.S.K. Sangh (Bjiilway) v. Union of India
d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
104. The case Rylands v Fletcher was decided in:
a. 1868
b. 1932
c. 1950
d. 1905
105. The standard of care in negligence is that of:
a. A reasonable person
b. A perfect person
c. A judge
d. A lawyer
106. Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India?
a. Freedom of speech and expression
b. Freedom to from associations or union
c. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
d. Freedom of self determination
107. Section 23 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:
a. Calculation of maturity when instrument is payable months after date or sight
b. Payment in due course
c. Negotiation
d. Holder
108. Section 24 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:
a. Effect of notice to acting partner
b. Admission of partners
c. Registration of firms
d. Dissolution of partnership
109. Justice Mahmood clarified that dower (mahr) is an essential aspect of a Muslim marriage contract, not a price paid for the marriage. This was held in which case?
a. Abdul Kadir v. Salima (1886) ILR 8 All. 149
b. Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 36
c. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985
d. Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740
110. Balaji Raghwan v. Union of India AIR 1996 SC 770 is related with which of the following Article of the Constitution of India?
a. 25
b. 29
c. 18
d. 12
111. When one co-surety is released by the creditor:
a. All co-sureties are discharged
b. Other co-sureties are also discharged
c. Other co-sureties remain liable
d. Contract becomes void
112. Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Recovery of possession
b. Defences in suits for relief based on contract
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Immovable property Section 2
b. Charges Section 100
c. Marshalling by Section 56
subsequent purchaser
d. Mortgaged Debt Section 134
114. Which of the following is the most important sources of Muslim Law?
a. Qiyas
b. Ijmaa
c. Sunnah
d. Quran
115. Traditionally, “coming to nuisance”:
a. Always a defence
b. Not a valid defence
c. Criminal offence
d. Contract rule
116. Subject to contract between the partners, a partner taking part in the conduct of the business:
a. Is entitled to remuneration
b. Is entitled to remuneration only if profits arise
c. Is not entitled to remuneration
d. Is entitled to remuneration decided by majority
117. A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 if B will marry to A’s daughter C. C was dead at the time of the agreement. The agreement is
a. invalid
b. voidable
c. void
d. valid
118. Union of India v. Maddala Thathaiah is an illustration, where the tender was in the form of
a. Public offer
b. Standing offer
c. Specific offer
d. General offer
119. Where there are co-sureties for the same debt:
a. Only one surety is liable
b. All sureties pay different amounts
c. Co-sureties are liable to contribute equally
d. Sureties are not liable
120. The words ’Secular' and 'Socialist' were added to the Indian Constitution in 1975 by amending the-
a. Preamble
b. Directive Principles
c. Fundamental Rights
d. All of them
121. The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once: —
a. Is a principle of natural justice
b. Is contained in the BNS
c. Is contained in the Constitution of India
d. Is a principle evolved by the Courts
122. Confessional statement of the accused in custody, when admissible: —
a. If relates to commission of crime by himself
b. If relates to commission of crime only by the co-accused,
c. Leading to discovery of a fact
d. Relates to preparation of crime
123. Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a
a. sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years
b. sentence for life imprisonment
c. death sentence
d. sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years
124. The court must be satisfied that:
a. Marriage is void
b. Averments in petition are true and marriage was solemnized
c. Parties are financially independent
d. Parties are not Hindu
125. Section 12(4) applies when:
a. A separable part of contract can be specifically performed
b. Contract is indivisible
c. Contract is illegal
d. Contract is void
126. Which one of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with the “direction for accumulation”?
a. Section 14
b. Section 17
c. Section 19
d. Section 18
127. Which interest is not transferable?
a. Vested interest
b. Contingent interest
c. Mere spes successionis
d. Interest of the lessee
128. Which one of the following correctly describes the provision of Article 32 of the Constitution of India?
a. The technicalities of the principle of res-judicata are irrelevant while dealing, with fundamental rights under Article 32
b. A person aggrieved by the decision of High Court in a writ petition under Article 226 may approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 on the same facts
c. The right to approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 is a Fundamental Right
d. A writ petition under Article 32 is a curative petition
129. Contravention of Section 5(iii) (age condition) is punishable with:
a. Simple imprisonment up to 1 month
b. Rigorous imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹1 lakh or both
c. Life imprisonment
d. No punishment
130. The mediated settlement under Section 8A(2)(h) shall be enforceable in the manner specified under:
a. Section 34
b. Section 35
c. Section 36
d. Section 37
131. If the main petition already stands disposed of, the mediated settlement shall be listed before:
a. Supreme Court
b. Referral court
c. Arbitrator
d. Mediation centre
132. A fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action is permissible
a. where a suit is dismissed under Order 9, Rule 8
b. where a suit is dismissed under Order 9, Rule 3.
c. where the suit abates under Order 22, Rule 3(2).
d. where the plaintiff abandons the suit under Order 23, Rule 1(1)
133. Under Which Section of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam the words "facts not otherwise relevant, because relevant" are provided?
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 12
d. Section 14
134. Nudum Pactum means
a. without consideration
b. invalid contract
c. void contract
d. voidable contract
135. Which one of the following facts constitutes a Contingent Contract?
a. A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B’s house is burnt
b. Where a salt lake was offered by way of lease on deposit of a sum of money within a specified period
c. Acceptance of a tender for up to 1000 tons of coal to be supplied as and when any order is placed during the financial year
d. When a bank offers a locker to its customer subject to the condition that the customer makes a fixed deposit of rupees one lac with the bank before the end of the month.
136. A contract of marriage between A and B is made in joke and without any specific intention. Such marriage is valid under —
a. Hanafi Law
b. Shia Law
c. Shafi and Maliki Law
d. Hanabali Law
137. An unlawful compulsory labour is deemed to be a practice of “untouchability” when any person compels other person to do—
a. scavenging
b. removing any carcass
c. sweeping
d. all of the above
138. Which Article of the Constitution enables the State to have a special drive for unfilled reserved vacancies of a year?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15(4)
c. Article 16(4)
d. Article 16 (4B)
139. Anticipatory bail can be granted to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of having committed a non- bailable offence under…………..
a. Section 480 BNSS
b. Section 482 BNSS
c. Section 488 BNSS
d. Section 490 BNSS
140. The defence of prescription means:
a. Long continuous use for 20 years
b. Court order
c. Government permission
d. Criminal law
141. Assertion (A): Part III and Part IV of the Constitution of India are supplementary to each other.
Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are enforceable.
a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
142. “Sapinda relationship” extends up to:
a. 2nd generation (mother) and 4th (father)
b. 3rd generation (mother) and 5th (father)
c. 4th generation (mother) and 6th (father)
d. Unlimited generations
143. A bequest made to a person who causes the death of the testator intentionally, under Sunni Law is-
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Valid to the extent of 1 /3 share of the deceased
d. None of the above
144. A bailee can retain the goods when:
a. He has not done any work
b. He has rendered services involving labour or skill
c. He refuses to return goods
d. Owner demands goods
145. The maxim relating to vigilance does not apply where cases are governed by:
a. Constitutional law
b. Statutes of limitation
c. Criminal procedure
d. International treaties
146. “Articles” means the articles of association of a company as originally framed or:
a. Dissolved
b. Altered from time to time
c. Converted into memorandum
d. Registered abroad
147. “Company” is defined under:
a. Section 2(20)
b. Section 2(42)
c. Section 2(54)
d. Section 2(69)
148. “Company” means a company incorporated under:
a. This Act only
b. Previous company law only
c. This Act or any previous company law
d. Foreign law only
149. “Foreign company” is defined under:
a. Section 2(20)
b. Section 2(42)
c. Section 2(47)
d. Section 2(90)
150. A foreign company means a company incorporated:
a. In India
b. Outside India
c. Under special Act only
d. By State Government only
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