Bihar PCS-J Mock Test-4

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1. What are the 4 objectives mentioned in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?

a. Justice, liberty, equality and fraternity

b. Social, secular, democratic and republic

c. Liberty, equality, fraternity and secular

d. Justice, liberty, federal and democratic

2. If two parties have rights over the same property, equity generally favors:

a. The one who paid more money

b. The one who acquired the interest first

c. The one who files the case first

d. The one who has better legal representation

3. The defence of inevitable accident means:

a. Accident that could not be prevented despite reasonable care

b. Accident caused intentionally

c. Accident caused due to negligence

d. Accident due to statutory authority

4. A right of divorce by "Lian" is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife-

a. Of re-embracing her initial faith

b. Of cruelty

c. Of conversion to other faith

d. Of adultery

5. Article 14 does not encompass: —

a. Equality before law

b. Equal protection of laws

c. Protection against arbitrary action

d. Protection of life and liberty

6. A petition for divorce is ordinarily not maintainable unless:

a. 6 months have elapsed since marriage

b. 1 year has elapsed since marriage

c. 2 years have elapsed since marriage

d. 3 years have elapsed since marriage

7. Under Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 the option of puberty is available to-

a. The husband only

b. The wife only

c. Both the husband and wife

d. Both the husband and wife with prior approval of the guardian

8. The objective of the Article 13 of the Constitution of India is to: —

a. secure paramountcy to the fundamental rights

b. limit the legislative power of the State

c. define the word ‘law’

d. expand the powers of the courts

9. As per section 6 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882, an easement be transferred apart from the dominant heritage

a. can

b. cannot

c. may

d. must

10. Section 21C deals with:

a. Transfer of petitions

b. Documentary evidence

c. Divorce grounds

d. Maintenance

11. Which of the following situations fits Section 8?

a. Agent refuses to return goods to principal

b. Owner sells his own goods

c. Tenant occupies land

d. Landlord sells land

12. In Shia Muslim marriage how many witnesses are compulsorily required?

a. One male and two females

b. Two males

c. No witness

d. Two females

13. The case Bourhill v Young restricted liability for:

a. Nervous shock claims

b. Contract law

c. Criminal law

d. Property law

14. The maxim “Equity will not suffer a wrong to be without a remedy” indicates:

a. The limitation of equity jurisdiction

b. The narrow scope of equitable remedies

c. The width of the scope and basis of equity

d. The supremacy of criminal law

15. A contract of life insurance is a

a. Wagering contract

b. Contingent contract

c. Contract of indemnity

d. Contract of guarantee

16. In a contract in which time is not essence of the contract, the failure to perform the contract before specified time:

a. Contract will become void.

b. The Promisee is entitled to compensation from the promisor for any loss occasioned to him by such failure

c. Contract will become voidable at the option of the promisor

d. Contract will become voidable at the option of the promise

17. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of protection in respect of conviction for offences: —

a. Ex post facto laws - double jeopardy - self incrimination

b. Double jeopardy - ex post facto penal laws - self incrimination

c. Self-incrimination - double jeopardy - ex post factor penal laws

d. Ex post facto laws - self-incrimination - double jeopardy

18. In which of the following Article of the Constitution provision regarding Uniform Civil Code has been given?

a. 43

b. 44

c. 46

d. 47

19. Imposing fetters on discretion means:

a. Authority refuses to exercise discretion independently

b. Authority uses discretion properly

c. Authority consults experts

d. Authority applies rules

20. The power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High Court can be exercised under BNSS on an application of the following: —

a. Solicitor-General of India

b. Attorney-General of India

c. A party interested

d. Either (b) or (c) both

21. One essential of strict liability is:

a. Escape of dangerous substance

b. Contract

c. Consent

d. Criminal intent

22. A is accused of waging a war against the government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attached and jails are broken open. A is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of these facts is relevant because they.

a. constitute a motive for a relevant fact.

b. show preparation for relevant facts

c. are effect of relevant fact

d. form part of a single transaction.

23. 'A' allows an illegal marriage to be solemnized by 'B' a priest in his house. Here:

a. 'B' is liable for abetting the offence

b. 'A' is liable for abetment

c. Both 'A' and 'B' are liable for abetment

d. None of these

24. Which of the following is a requisite for a valid marriage under Muslim Law?

a. Consanguinity

b. Affinity

c. Proposal and acceptance at the time of marriage

d. Fosterage

25. Nervous shock is recognized as:

a. Tortious liability

b. Criminal liability

c. Contractual liability

d. Constitutional liability

26. Notice given to a partner who habitually acts in the business of the firm operates as notice to:

a. The managing partner only

b. The Registrar of Firms

c. The firm

d. Only those partners present at the time

27. Every allegation of fact in the plaint, if not denied specifically except as against a person under disability shall be taken to be

a. untraversed

b. admitted

c. proved

d. none of the above

28. Which out of the following is not a transfer according to Transfer of Property Act?

a. Sale

b. Gift

c. Exchange

d. Abandonment of a claim to property

29. Which Article outlines the term of office of President?

a. Article 57

b. Article 56

c. Article 59

d. Article 60

30. Assertion (A): Section 14 of TPA provides for the Rules against perpetuity.

Reason (R): This rule is based on public policy.

Select the correct from the code given below: —

Code:

a. Both (A) (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

31. Retrospective operation of delegated legislation is allowed when:

a. Court Orders

b. Executive decides alone

c. Parent statute authorizes it

d. Police allow

32. A holder in due course must take the instrument:

a. With knowledge of defects

b. Without sufficient cause to believe there is defect in title

c. With negligence

d. Without signature

33. Section 28A applies to:

a. Only divorce decrees

b. All decrees and orders under the Act

c. Only maintenance orders

d. Only appeals

34. In re Berubari case the Supreme Court held that: —

a. Rule of law is not a part of Constitution

b. Rule of law is a part of Constitution

c. Preamble is not a part of Constitution

d. Preamble is a part of Constitution

35. An indorser who indorses and delivers a negotiable instrument before maturity:

a. Has no liability

b. Is liable to every subsequent holder

c. Is liable only to the bank

d. Is liable only to the payee

36. Section 11 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Foreign instruments

b. Inland instruments

c. Payment in due course

d. Holder

37. If buyer has examined goods, there is no implied condition as to:

a. Price

b. Quantity

c. Defects which such examination ought to have revealed

d. Ownership

38. According to Article 64, who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)?

a. The Prime Minister

b. The Vice President

c. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

d. The President

39. In Preamble of Constitution, word socialist was added by-

a. Section 2 of 42nd Amendment Act

b. Section 3 of 42nd Amendment Act

c. Section 4 of 42nd Amendment Act

d. Section 5 of 42nd Amendment Act

40. This section applies where seller is:

a. Not authorised

b. Authorised or required to send goods to buyer

c. Forced by court

d. Acting without contract

41. A spectator injured during a sports match may be barred from recovery due to:

a. Volenti non fit injuria

b. Necessity

c. Statutory authority

d. Mistake

42. “Saptapadi” refers to:

a. Exchange of garlands

b. Signing marriage register

c. Taking seven steps before sacred fire

d. Blessing by priest

43. Backwardness under Article 15(4): —

a. must be social and educational

b. must be social and not necessarily to be educational

c. must be economic as well as social

d. none of the above is correct

44. Directions of the author may be modified by:

a. Trustee alone

b. Consent of all competent beneficiaries

c. Court order only

d. Government notification

45. The court may rescind a decree of judicial separation:

a. Automatically after one year

b. Only by High Court

c. On application by either party

d. Only by mutual consent

46. Alternatively, breach may be:

a. Void

b. Illegal

c. Severable breach giving rise to claim for compensation only

d. Unenforceable

47. Under the Public Liability Insurance Act, the owner must:

a. Take insurance policy

b. Obtain court order

c. File criminal case

d. Seek government permission

48. Preamble was amended by which amendment?

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 39th Amendment

d. None of these

49. Which cannot be transferred?

a. Mere right to sue on the basis of agreement to sell

b. Right to receive arrears of rent

c. Right to recover decree to amount

d. Right to receive provident funds by will

50. Why is the writ of ‘mandamus’ issued?

a. To direct Public Authority to perform its public duty

b. To Quash quasi-judicial proceedings

c. To Quash illegal appointment in public office

d. To prohibit a person from holding public office

51. If a type of damage is foreseeable but the extent is greater than expected:

a. Defendant is liable

b. Defendant is not liable

c. Court ignores damage

d. Criminal case arises

52. Legitimate expectation arises when:

a. Government promise creates expectation

b. Contract signed

c. Criminal offence occurs

d. Court orders action

53. The short title of the Act under Section 1 is:

a. Small Causes Courts Act, 1887

b. Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887

c. Civil Courts Act, 1887

d. Provincial Civil Courts Act, 1887

54. Confession of an accused is irrelevant and inadmissible when made:

a. While in police custody but in the immediate presence of a Magistrate

b. In consequence of a deception practiced on the accused for the purpose of obtaining it

c. When he was drunk

d. Before a Magistrate, who told him that if he made a full confession, he would be released

55. Adjournment of trial beyond the following day under Section 21B is allowed:

a. Without reason

b. Only on consent of parties

c. Only if court records reasons as necessary

d. Never allowed

56. According to Section 33, when a Court exercises Small Cause jurisdiction and ordinary civil jurisdiction, it shall be deemed:

a. The same Court in all respects

b. Two different Courts

c. A subordinate Court

d. A tribunal

57. One landmark case on delegated legislation is:

a. A.K. Roy v Union of India

b. Donoghue v Stevenson

c. Rylands v Fletcher

d. Ashby v White

58. In which of the following cases hearsay evidence is not admissible?

a. Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the author is dead or cannot be found.

b. Where eye-witness told the facts to another person, statement of that person.

c. If the statement is of a deceased person, when it relates to cause of his death.

d. If the statement is part of the transaction-in-issue.

59. The power of pardon is vested in the:

a. President

b. Prime Minister

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

60. Section 151 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Duty of bailor

b. Care to be taken by bailee

c. Contract of guarantee

d. Delivery of goods

61. Within the meaning of section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, the immovable property does not include: —

a. Only standing timber & grass

b. Only standing timber, house and crops

c. Only standing timber, growing crops or grass

d. Only grass

62. Test Identifications Parade' is: —

a. substantive evidence

b. corroborative evidence

c. no evidence

d. hearsay evidence

63. ‘A’ by settlement deed transfers property to ‘P’ for life, then to ‘S’. ‘S’ dies before ‘P’ dies. On the death ‘P’ the heir of ‘S’ claims the property. Is the claim valid?

a. Valid, since ‘S’ interest is heritable

b. Invalid, since ‘S’ interest is contingent

c. Invalid, since settlement deed is vague

d. None of the above

64. A stipulation with reference to goods may be:

a. Only a condition

b. Only a warranty

c. A condition or a warranty

d. Neither

65. Section 55 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Sale of goodwill after dissolution

b. Settlement of accounts

c. Dissolution by notice

d. Rights of transferee of interest

66. The doctrine of eclipse applies to: —

a. Only to pre-constitutional laws

b. To post-constitutional laws but only in respect of non-citizens

c. To post-constitutional laws but only in respect of citizens.

d. To all laws-pre-constitutional as well as post constitutional

67. Relief against defective execution of power of appointment is granted in equity because:

a. Equity ignores obligations

b. It is the duty of a person to fulfill obligations such as paying debts or providing for children

c. Courts must punish parties

d. Statutory law requires it

68. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure: —

a. fundamental rights to all individuals

b. fundamental duties to citizens of India

c. dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation

d. security of service to the Government servant –

69. Trustee must pay interest where he:

a. Acts honestly

b. Has actually received interest

c. Follows instructions

d. Keeps accounts

70. Under Section 8B(2)(a), where a dispute is referred to mediation, the applicable procedure shall be:

a. Procedure framed under the relevant Act governing mediation

b. Procedure under CPC

c. Procedure determined by arbitral tribunal

d. Procedure determined by parties

71. Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers to:—

a. free and compulsory education for children

b. free and compulsory education to all children of the age six to fourteen years

c. education to children upto six years of age

d. none of the above

72. Section 156 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Mixing of goods without consent (separable)

b. Mixing of goods with consent

c. Duties of bailor

d. Finder’s rights

73. The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with: —

a. State Government

b. President

c. Prime Minister

d. Parliament

74. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our “Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations.” Who was the Judge?

a. Justice Mathew

b. Justice Krishna Iyer

c. Justice Subba Rao

d. Justice H. R. Khanna

75. The new concept of equality as an antithesis of arbitrariness was propounded first by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?

a. Ramakrishna dalmia V. Justice Tendolkar

b. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

c. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

d. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar

76. 'A' who is a citizen of India commits murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. He can be tried and convicted of murder—

a. Only in Uganda

b. Only in that country of which the deceased was a citizen

c. In any one of the above

d. In Delhi

77. Private alienation of property after attachment of the same is—

a. Voidable at the option of the decree holder

b. Voidable at the option of the judgement debtor

c. Void ab initio

d. Void as against all claims enforceable under the attachment

78. In relation to a firm or a partner therein, the term “third party” refers to:

a. Any creditor of the firm

b. Any agent of the firm

c. Any person who is not a partner in the firm

d. Any person having business relations with the firm

79. The doctrine of separation of powers means:

a. Power with judiciary only

b. Power concentrated in one authority

c. Distribution of powers among different organs of government

d. Power with legislature only

80. The case McLoughlin v O’Brian allowed recovery for:

a. Shock after seeing injured family members

b. Property loss

c. Economic loss

d. Contract breach

81. 'X' committed theft in a government building 'Z' a Chowkidar of the building, kept the gate of the building open with the intention of facilitate X's safe retreat with the stolen property and thereby facilitated his retreat. Which one of the following statement is correct? Z' is:

a. Guilty of abetment of theft by intentional aiding

b. Guilty of theft by instigation

c. Not guilty of abetment

d. Guilty of theft

82. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when can an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer for his benefit?

a. Upon his birth

b. Upon completing the majority age

c. Upon his marriage

d. None of the above

83. The facts showing the existence of any state of mind under Section 12 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam relate to: —

a. Intention

b. Knowledge

c. Good faith

d. All of these

84. This rule applies:

a. Always

b. Only by custom

c. Apart from any express contract

d. Only in writing

85. One essential element of malicious prosecution is:

a. Prosecution by defendant

b. Contract

c. Ownership of land

d. Criminal conviction

86. Insanity produced by drunkenness is a

a. Good defense to the crime charged

b. Weak defense to a crime charged

c. Way to reduce the gravity of crime charged

d. Way to increase the gravity of crime charged

87. Section 28A primarily relates to:

a. Procedure of filing petitions

b. Execution stage of matrimonial litigation

c. Grounds of divorce

d. Jurisdiction of courts

88. Example of conversion is:

a. Selling another person's goods

b. Borrowing goods with permission

c. Returning goods safely

d. Protecting goods

89. Six Freedoms under Article 19 of the Constitution are-

a. Sacrosanct and inalienable

b. Absolute without any restriction

c. Subject to reasonable restrictions

d. Both (a) and (c) above

90. Shariat Act, 1937 contains only-

a. 12 sections

b. 6 sections

c. 15 sections

d. 9 sections

91. The power of Parliament of form new States or alternation of areas and boundaries is drawn from: —

a. List I-Union List only

b. List Ill-Concurrent List also

c. The Constitution other than Article 246

d. None of the above

92. The maxim “Ex turpi causa non oritur actio” is related to:

a. Plaintiff the wrongdoer

b. Necessity

c. Mistake

d. Act of God

93. Magistrate by whom the case is heard may award such compensation, not exceeding

a. One hundred

b. Five hundred

c. Three hundred

d. One thousand rupees to be paid to any person groundlessly arrested by the person so causing the arrest.

94. An order of discharge: -

a. Is not a judgement

b. Is not a defence against fresh proceedings without fresh facts and better evidence

c. Take place after formal framing of charges

d. establishes innocence of accused

95. An agent can be appointed by:

a. a minor of sound mind

b. a major of sound mind

c. any person of sound mind

d. any major of sound or unsound mind

96. Which of the following is of the legal consequences of divorce under Muslim Law?

a. The parties acquire the right to contract another marriage.

b. Cohabitation becomes unlawful.

c. Mutual rights of inheritance ceases

d. All of the above

97. A minor can create a trust:

a. Freely without restriction

b. Only orally

c. With permission of a Civil Court of original jurisdiction

d. Only through guardian without court

98. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts, 1999 and 2002 were enacted on the recommendations of

a. Santhanam Committee

b. Malimath Committee

c. Thakkar Committee

d. None of the above

99. ‘A’ transfers Rs. 5,000 to his niece B if she will desert her husband. The transfer is: —

a. Voidable

b. Void

c. Legal

d. Enforceable

100. Decree of divorce under Section 13B takes effect:

a. From date of filing petition

b. From date of first motion

c. From date of decree

d. After 1 year automatically

101. The concept of equal justice and free legal aid is given under Article-

a. 14 of the Constitution of India

b. 16 of the Constitution of India

c. 39-A of the Constitution of India

d. 43-A of the Constitution of India

102. Which of the following is not a legal representative under Section 2(11) of the CPC?

a. Executors and administrators

b. Official assignee or receiver

c. Hindu coparceners

d. Residuary legatees

103. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

a. Fundamental Rights

b. Fundamental Duties

c. Directive Principles of State Policy

d. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

104. When the Magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused?

a. At any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case

b. Offence is lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence

c. Both at any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case and offence is lawfully compounded or is not a cognizable offence

d. At any time after the charge has been framed with respect to cognizable and compoundable offence.

105. In the impeachment of the President, the charge can be preferred by:

a. a resolution with fourteen days' notice moved by one-fourth of the members of the House present and voting

b. a resolution moved in the Rajya Sabha after at least fourteen days' notice passed by one-third members

c. a resolution moved in either House of Parliament after at least fourteen days' notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of the total membership of the House which is passed by a majority of total membership of the House

d. a resolution passed in each House of the Parliament by a majority of total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that House present and voting

106. According to the maxim, a person who has committed inequity:

a. Can always claim equitable relief

b. Shall not obtain equity

c. Must approach criminal courts

d. Can override statutory law

107. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which deals with the right to proceeds for revenue compensation is based on

a. Doctrine of contribution

b. Doctrine of election

c. Doctrine of marshalling

d. Doctrine of substituted security

108. 'Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India?

a. Muslim Penal Law

b. Muslim Law of Evidence

c. Muslim Law of Sales of goods

d. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986

109. Under Section 8B(2)(e), if satisfied about the mediated settlement, the court shall:

a. Refer the matter back to arbitration

b. Pass an order in terms of the settlement

c. Send it to the Supreme Court

d. Dismiss the petition

110. Consideration in a contract of guarantee can be:

a. Only past consideration

b. Only present consideration

c. Only future consideration

d. Anything done or any promise made for benefit of principal debtor

111. Under Section 7, a person entitled to possession of specific movable property may:

a. Recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

b. Recover it through criminal prosecution

c. Recover it through administrative order

d. Recover it through police action

112. Inevitable accident is different from negligence because:

a. There is absence of reasonable care

b. There is presence of negligence

c. It occurs despite reasonable care

d. It involves intentional harm

113. A contract can be discharged:

a. By performance of the contract

b. By frustration of the contract

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Neither (a) nor (b)

114. On which amongst the following days the Constitution of India came into effect?

a. 26th November, 1949

b. 26th January, 1950

c. 26th March, 1950

d. 26th April, 1950

115. Catch up” rule established by the Supreme Court of India relates to which of the following Article of the Constitution?

a. Article 14

b. Article 16(4)

c. Article 15 (4)

d. Article 16(4A)

116. Out of the following agreements which one is not void?

a. Agreement with handicapped person

b. Agreement to restrain a marriage

c. Wagering agreement

d. Agreement without consideration

117. Under traditional contributory negligence rule:

a. Plaintiff recovers full damages

b. Plaintiff recovers partial damages

c. Plaintiff recovers nothing

d. Defendant recovers damages

118. Copy of divorce decree must be given:

a. On payment only

b. Only to petitioner

c. Free of cost to both parties

d. Only to court registry

119. Tender is:

a. an offer

b. an invitation to offer

c. a counter offer

d. a promise

120. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under: —

a. Article 14 of the Constitution

b. Article 16 of the Constitution

c. Article 17 of the Constitution

d. Article 19 of the Constitution

121. When a Court can reject a plaint?

a. Where plaintiff fails to comply with Rule 9

b. Where suit is barred by law

c. Where plaint is not in duplicate

d. All of the above

122. A pledge by a mercantile agent is valid when:

a. He has no possession of goods

b. He acts outside business

c. He acts in ordinary course of business with owner’s consent and pawnee acts in good faith

d. Owner objects later

123. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law?

a. Imam Abu Hanifa

b. Imam Yusuf

c. Imam jafar

d. Imam Ahmed

124. The main objective of Section 5 is to:

a. Increase court supervision over arbitration

b. Minimize judicial interference in arbitration proceedings

c. Allow unlimited appeals in arbitration matters

d. Replace arbitral tribunals with courts

125. A agrees to sell his scooter worth Rs. 10,000 to B for Rs. 5000 only and as consent was obtained by coercion. Here the agreement is

a. Void

b. Valid

c. Voidable

d. Unlawful

126. In the absence of contrary custom, a partner has no implied authority to:

a. Transfer immovable property belonging to the firm

b. Purchase goods on behalf of the firm

c. Employ agents for business

d. Accept payments for the firm

127. A bill of exchange directs:

a. The maker to pay

b. A certain person to pay

c. The government to pay

d. A bank only to pay

128. The concept of foreseeability was emphasized in:

a. Donoghue v Stevenson

b. Wagon Mound Case

c. Rylands v Fletcher

d. Ashby v White

129. Match the following:

A. Mc Gregor v. 1. General Proposal

Mc Gregor

B. Weeks v. Tybald 2. Intention to contract

C. Henderson v.

Stevenson 3. Consideration

D. Currie v. Misa 4. Reasonable notice

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 3 1 4

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 4 2 3 1

130. When is Iddat observed for three months —

a. On the death of husband

b. On the death of husband of pregnant woman

c. On Divorce

d. On Invalid marriage

131. Which one of the following is not an essential element for a valid transfer of property?

a. Competent transferor

b. Transferable property

c. Transferee may not be competent to take the trans- fer

d. Object of transfer must be lawful

132. Consideration means:

a. must have some value in the eyes of law

b. must be real

c. must not be illusory

d. all are correct

133. While granting leave under Section 14, court considers:

a. Only income of parties

b. Interests of children and possibility of reconciliation

c. Property dispute only

d. Caste of parties

134. Which of the following property types is covered under Section 5?

a. Land or buildings

b. Movable goods

c. Money

d. Shares

135. Delegated legislation may sometimes operate:

a. Retrospectively

b. Prospectively only

c. Criminally

d. Contractually

136. A writ of mandamus can be issued: —

a. only against subordinate courts

b. against any person or authority

c. only against tribunals

d. only against the executive bodies.

137. For a valid Muslim marriage-

a. Offer and acceptance must be at the same time.

b. Offer and acceptance must be at the same place.

c. Offer and acceptance must be at the same time and same place.

d. Offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different places.

138. The Supreme Court developed absolute liability to:

a. Protect environment and public safety

b. Reduce liability

c. Promote industries

d. Limit compensation

139. Which one of the following sections of the BNS provides that right of private defence of body extends to causing any harm other than death?

a. Section 37

b. Section 38

c. Section 41

d. Section 39

140. Appeal in case of acquittal by a Magistrate may lie in:

a. High Court

b. Sessions Court

c. C.J.M's Court

d. No appeal lie

141. The ownership in mixed goods is:

a. Fully of bailee

b. Fully of bailor

c. Shared according to respective shares

d. Given to court

142. Receipt of a share of profits by a lender of money advanced to persons engaged in business:

a. Makes the lender a partner

b. Makes the lender a dormant partner

c. Does not of itself make the lender a partner

d. Creates a presumption of partnership

143. If a bill is drawn in a fictitious name and payable to the drawer’s order:

a. The bill becomes void

b. The acceptor remains liable to holder in due course

c. Only the drawer is liable

d. The acceptor is discharged

144. An order or decision which suffers from an error of law apparent on the face of record can be quashed by a writ of: —

a. certiorari

b. mandamus

c. Prohibition

d. quo-warranto

145. Which one of the following is correct?

a. All agreements are contracts once they have been made between the parties for a consideration

b. All agreements are contracts once they have been made between the parties with their free consent

c. All agreements are contracts once they have been made between the competent parties

d. All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract for lawful consideration and lawful object and not expressly declared by law to be void

146. Central Government may specify applicability of Companies Act to certain body corporates by:

a. Circular

b. Resolution

c. Notification

d. Ordinance

147. “Appellate Tribunal” is defined under:

a. Section 2(4)

b. Section 2(5)

c. Section 2(20)

d. Section 2(90)

148. “Appellate Tribunal” means:

a. National Company Law Tribunal

b. Securities Appellate Tribunal

c. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal

d. Debt Recovery Tribunal

149. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal is constituted under:

a. Section 408

b. Section 410

c. Section 149

d. Section 270

150. “Articles” is defined under:

a. Section 2(4)

b. Section 2(5)

c. Section 2(20)

d. Section 2(56)

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