Bihar PCS-J Mock Test-3

Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test

1. In case wife is petitioner, she may file where:

a. Husband resides only

b. She is residing at the time of petition

c. Marriage took place only

d. Both parties agree

2. Under common law, when a person died intestate owning an estate in fee simple and leaving sons and daughters, the land was inherited by:

a. All children equally

b. The eldest son alone

c. The youngest son

d. The daughters only

3. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. Oral acceptance is a valid acceptance

b. Acceptance must be in writing

c. Acceptance must be communicated

d. Acceptance must be in the prescribed manner

4. The system of Public Interest Litigation has been introduced in India: —

a. through Constitutional Amendments

b. by judicial initiative

c. by political parties

d. by a Parliamentary Act

5. The equality provision viz. Article 14 of the Constitution of India has been influenced by the Constitution of: —

a. U.S.A.

b. Canada

c. Japan

d. Australia

6. Which provision of the Code deals with joinder of causes of action: —

a. Order 2 Rule 3

b. Order 2 Rule 2

c. Order 2 Rule 1

d. Order 1 Rule 2

7. Which of the following fundamental rights is available to both the citizens and non-citizens?

a. The right to six freedoms

b. The right to equality before law

c. Cultural and educational rights

d. the right to equality of opportunity in public employment

8. Which among the following is not a fundamental right: —

a. Right to equality

b. Right to freedom of religion

c. Right to constitutional remedies

d. Equal justice & free legal aid

a. (a),(b)&(C)

b. Only (a)

c. Only (d)

d. Only (b)

9. The general power to transfer suits under section 24 has been granted to:

a. High Court

b. District Court

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Supreme Court

10. Battery means:

a. Threat of force

b. Intentional and direct physical contact

c. Damage to land

d. Contractual breach

11. Which of the following is NOT provided in Section 8?

a. Appointment of Additional Judges

b. Assignment of functions to Additional Judges

c. Withdrawal of business from Additional Judges

d. Qualifications required for Additional Judges

12. A person against whom summons has been issued may be compelled under section 32 of C.P.C. to attend by—

1. Issue of a warrant

2. Attachment and sale of his property

3. Imposing a fine

4. Ordering him to furnish security for his appearance

a. 1 and 4

b. 3 and 4

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 2 and 4

13. In case of transfer of property for the benefit of the public which of the following restrictions shall not apply?

a. Rule against perpetuity

b. Transfer to take effect on failure of prior interest

c. Direction of accumulation

d. All of the above

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Writ) (Matter in dispute)

A. Habeas Corpus 1. Appointment of

a university Teacher

B. Mandamus 2. Custody of a child

by parents

C. Quo Warranto 3. Violation of natural

justice

D. Certiorari 4. Refund of money

illegally collected

access by

taxing authority

code

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 1 4 2 3

d. 2 3 1 4

15. Contributory negligence completely:

a. Bars recovery

b. Reduces recovery

c. Increases damages

d. Creates contract

16. If the indorser adds a direction to pay to a specified person, the indorsement is:

a. In full

b. Conditional

c. In blank

d. Forged

17. Where there are joint debts of the firm and separate debts of a partner, the property of the firm shall first be applied in payment of:

a. Separate debts of partners

b. Debts of the firm

c. Capital of partners

d. Advances made by partners

18. Under Section 2(1)(e), the definition of “Court” expressly excludes:

a. High Court exercising original jurisdiction

b. Principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction

c. Civil Court of a grade inferior to such principal Civil Court and Courts of Small Causes

d. District Court

19. What at is the age of Puberty for a Muslim marriage?

a. 9 years

b. 12 years

c. 15 years

d. 18 years

20. Ultra vires means:

a. Within powers

b. Beyond powers

c. Criminal act

d. Property dispute

21. Section 24 aims to ensure:

a. Punishment of spouse

b. Financial support during litigation

c. Divorce delay

d. Property division

22. Marriage between sapindas:

a. Always valid

b. Always voidable

c. Void unless permitted by custom

d. Valid after registration

23. Sale may be subject to:

a. Fixed price only

b. Reserved or upset price

c. Market price

d. Cost price

24. Section 27 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Capacity

b. Agency

c. Liability of agent

d. Liability of drawer

25. In which case the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986?

a. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985 SC 945

b. Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 362

c. Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740

d. None of the above

26. Section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Particular partnership

b. Partnership at will

c. Dissolution by agreement

d. Registration of firms

27. Section 21B emphasizes:

a. Delay in matrimonial trials

b. Expeditious disposal of matrimonial disputes

c. Criminal punishment

d. Arbitration of disputes

28. The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted under Art. 19(1) (c):

a. Associations

b. Unions

c. Organizations

d. Co-operative Societies

29. The time limit for completing trial under Section 21B is:

a. 3 months

b. 6 months from service of notice on respondent

c. 1 year

d. 2 years

30. Recovery made by the police under proviso of section 23 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam recording the formal arrest of the accused is

a. legal

b. illegal

c. irregular

d. improper

31. What type of Muslim marriage in which is performed temporarily for enjoyment?

a. Batil

b. Sahih

c. Muta

d. Fasid

32. A Sunni marriage without witnesses is-

a. Void

b. Irregular

c. Regular

d. None of these

33. Under the BSA, anything said, done or written by a conspirator when the conspiracy is a foot, is relevant against the co-conspirator on the basis of the doctrine of

a. conspiracy

b. shared knowledge

c. agency

d. secrecy

34. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does not permit the State to make special provision for one of the following which one is that?

a. Socially and educationally backward classes

b. A class of specific religion

c. Only scheduled caste and scheduled tribes

d. None of the above

35. Under Section 26, a corporation may make, indorse or accept negotiable instruments:

a. In all cases

b. Only when authorized by law in force

c. Never

d. Only with court permission

36. Who is not a citizen by domicile?

a. Those who are born in the territory of India.

b. Those whose either mother of father was born in the territory of India.

c. Those who have been ordinarily residing in the territory of India after commencement of Constitution of India, due to his work in India.

d. Who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding commencement of Constitution of India.

37. The growth of administrative law is mainly due to:

a. Expansion of government functions

b. Decline of government

c. Contract disputes

d. Criminal offences

38. Right of a citizen to carry on any occupation, trade or business is a: —

a. Contractual right

b. Right under Transfer of Property Act

c. fundamental Right

d. Right under Partnership Act

39. In which case, the Supreme Court declared that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?

a. Golak Nath case

b. Berubari case

c. Kesavananda Bharati case

d. all the above cases

40. Which one of the following is not a ground on which a reasonable restriction on the right to freedom of speech and expression can be imposed?

a. Security of the State

b. Public Order

c. Morality

d. Public Policy

41. The system of dual citizenship within the country exists in;

a. USA

b. France

c. India

d. UK

42. A Muslim woman can seek divorce if the husband is not traceable for a period of —

a. 7 years

b. 5 years

c. 4 years

d. 3 years

43. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either house of Parliament?

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. One year

d. There is no time limit prescribed

44. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued: —

a. by a superior court to the lower court directing it to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review

b. in the form of an order calling upon a person who has detained another person to bring that person before court and show authority for such detention

c. by a superior court to a subordinate court to do something in the nature of its allotted duty

d. in the form of an order to stop proceedings in a certain case

45. The loss or damage arising from a breach of contract has to be ascertained:

a. At the date of the breach of contract

b. At the date of the making of contract

c. At the date of the frustration of contract

d. None of the above

46. The bailor must disclose:

a. All facts

b. Only minor defects

c. Faults known to him that materially affect use or involve risk

d. Price of goods

47. Section 29 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Liability of legal representative signing

b. Liability of agent

c. Negotiation

d. Holder

48. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India?

a. ex post facto laws

b. Preventive detention

c. Double jeopardy

d. Self-incrimination

49. In which case the Jharkhand High Court ruled that under Muslim Personal Law, a person is presumed to attain puberty at age 15, and upon reaching this age, they have the right to marry whomever they choose without guardian interference, even if their marriage is considered an offense under other laws.

a. Md. Sonu @ Sonu v. The State of Jharkhand & Ors., 2022

b. Javed v. State of Haryana and Others, 2022

c. Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740

d. Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 362

50. A is tried for the murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of B, A produced poison similar to that which was administered to B, is

a. Not relevant

b. Relevant

c. Partly relevant

d. Neither relevant nor irrelevant

51. According to Salmond, a tort is:

a. A civil wrong for which the remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages and which is not exclusively breach of contract or trust

b. A breach of duty fixed by parties

c. A criminal offence punishable by state

d. A violation of constitutional rights

52. Common intention under Section 3(5) implies

a. Similar intention

b. Pre-arranged planning

c. Presence of common knowledge

d. Common design for common object

53. A, is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A drops the child from the house-top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but not intending to kill the child, and intending, in good faith, the child's benefit, and the child dies:

Which of the following offence has been committed by A?

a. Section 106 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023

b. Section 105 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023

c. Section 103 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023

d. A has committed no offence

54. Lien arises when buyer:

a. Delays payment

b. Becomes insolvent

c. Refuses delivery

d. Negotiates price

55. Which jurist defined tort as “breach of duty primarily fixed by law”?

a. Salmond

b. Winfield

c. Austin

d. Holmes

56. An agreement restraining an outgoing partner from carrying on similar business is valid if:

a. Approved by court

b. Restrictions are reasonable

c. Registered with Registrar

d. Made after dissolution only

57. According to Jekyll, M.R., the discretion of the court is governed by:

a. Personal conscience only

b. Arbitrary judicial powers

c. Rules of law and equity

d. Parliamentary sovereignty

58. The manager of wakf is known as-

a. Sajjadanashin

b. Khadim

c. Mutawalli

d. Mujawar

59. Threat to strike is

a. undue-influence

b. mistake

c. coercion

d. no coercion

60. If harm is intentionally caused:

a. Remoteness may not apply strictly

b. Defendant escapes liability

c. Court ignores injury

d. Plaintiff loses case

61. Which one of the following sections of the Trans-fer of Property Act defines ‘Transfer of Property’?

a. Section 2

b. Section 3

c. Section 4

d. Section 5

62. The rule of strict liability allows:

a. Certain defences

b. No defences

c. Criminal punishment

d. Contract enforcement

63. Under Section 23(1), the Court may return the plaint:

a. Only before trial

b. Only after judgment

c. At any stage of the proceedings

d. Only during appeal

64. The rules against perpetuity do not apply to which of the following?

a. Movable properties

b. Charities

c. Immovable properties

d. All of the above

65. The standard of care depends on:

a. Price only

b. Owner’s instructions only

c. Bulk, quality and value of goods

d. Time only

66. Under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the confession before the Magistrate is relevant?

a. Section 24

b. Section 25

c. Section 23(2)

d. Section 27

67. According to Section 2(1)(c), “arbitral award”:

a. Means only the final award

b. Includes an interim award

c. Excludes interim decisions

d. Means only foreign awards

68. The right to equality prevents the State from: —

a. Making any provision for women and children

b. Making 3% reservation for physically handicapped persons

c. Making special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens

d. Giving reservations in public employment to Scheduled Tribes irrespective of any consideration to efficiency of administration

69. Section 3 provides that nothing in the Act shall be deemed to:

a. Deprive any person of any right to relief other than specific performance under any contract

b. Deprive any person of the right to damages

c. Deprive any person of constitutional rights

d. Deprive any person of criminal remedies

70. Section 6 provides remedy when a person is dispossessed:

a. Without his consent and otherwise than in due course of law

b. With his consent

c. Through court decree

d. By lawful eviction

71. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 applies to transfer of property: —

a. made by act to parties

b. by operation of law

c. by a decree or order of a court of competent juris-diction

d. in execution of a decree or order of a Court-of competent jurisdiction

72. Landmark case on consultation requirement is:

a. BS Nehra Case

b. Donoghue v Stevenson

c. Ashby v White

d. AK Roy V UOI

73. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest?

a. Order 1, Rule 1

b. Order 1, Rule 2

c. Order 1, Rule 8

d. Order 1, Rule 9

74. The term 'bail' signifies the conditional release of an accused or arrested person by the

a. Police during investigation, but not by the magistrate during enquiry.

b. Magistrate during inquiry, but not by the court during trial

c. Court during trial, but not during revision

d. Police Magistrate or court during investigation, enquiry or trial

75. The moral idea behind the maxim “He who seeks equity must do equity” is reflected in:

a. Roman constitutional law

b. Scriptures of Islam emphasizing fairness in dealings

c. British parliamentary practice

d. Administrative law principles

76. A confession by an accused made while in police custody, be proved against him only when made in the immediate presence of:

a. A doctor

b. A lawyer

c. A judicial magistrate

d. Family members

77. The doctrine of contributory negligence developed in:

a. England

b. India

c. USA

d. France

78. Which of the following is included in the definition of 'law' as provided in Article 13?

a. Bye-Law

b. Custom having the force of law

c. Usage having the force of law

d. All of the above

79. Which of the following is a legal transfer under the provisions of The Transfer of Property Act?

a. A right to sue

b. A chance of an heir-apparent to succeed

c. An easement apart from dominant heritage

d. Second mortgage of the property

80. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. An agreement, without consideration, in writing and registered, made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation, is a valid contract.

2. If any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, is unlawful, the agreement is a voidable contract.

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. both 1 and 2

d. neither 1 nor 2

81. What is the terminology used to describe a situation when two parties make identical offers to each other in ignorance of each other’s offer?

a. Offer

b. Cross offer

c. Counter offer

d. Conditional offer

82. Mistake of fact in tort law:

a. Is always a defence

b. Is never a defence

c. May sometimes be relevant

d. Is equivalent to consent

83. Which of the following is not a writ mentioned in the Constitution?

a. Quo Warranto

b. Certiorari

c. Prohibition

d. Interrogatory

84. By which Constitutional Amendment has Article 39A been inserted in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

a. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act 1976

b. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978

c. The Constitution (46th Amendment) Act 1982

d. The Constitution (29th Amendment) Act 1972

85. The Court, after the commencement of prosecution evidence, allows the Assistant Public Prosecutor to Withdraw the prosecution. The accused shall be:

a. Released

b. Discharged

c. Acquitted

d. None of the above

86. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Double Jeopardy means: —

a. Trying two persons jointly for the same offence.

b. Trying the same person for two offences at two different times

c. Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence

d. Trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident.

87. A valid contract at the initial stage ceases to be enforceable subsequently due to intervention of unforeseen factors. The contract will:

a. remain valid

b. be voidable at the option of either party to the contract, when it ceases to be enforceable

c. become void since the time of its inception

d. become void since the time it ceases to be enforceable

88. What can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

a. An easement along with the dominant heritage

b. Political pension

c. Spes Successionis

d. Stipends allowed to the civil pensioners of the Government

89. The principle of restitution on cancellation of a transaction requires:

a. Punishment of the breaching party

b. Return of benefits received under a voidable contract

c. Automatic enforcement of the contract

d. Transfer of property to the state

90. Transfer of Property Act has no relation with: —

a. air

b. water

c. light

d. all of these

91. Which of the following determines the federal character of the Indian Constitution?

a. Written Constitution

b. Independent judiciary

c. Distribution of Power between the Centre and the State

d. Judicial Review

92. Section 5 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:

a. Promissory Note

b. Bill of Exchange

c. Cheque

d. Holder

93. The proportion of payment of expert’s fee is determined by:

a. Government

b. Court

c. Parties mutually

d. Bar association

94. Under Section 9, partners are bound to carry on the business of the firm:

a. For the benefit of the managing partner

b. For the greatest common advantage of the partners

c. For maximizing individual profits

d. Only according to written agreement

95. Proceedings under Section 22 are conducted:

a. Open court

b. In camera

c. In public auditorium

d. By jury system

96. Which of the following is a legal transfer under the provisions of The Transfer of Property Act?

a. A right to sue

b. A chance of an heir-apparent to succeed

c. An easement apart from dominant heritage

d. Second mortgage of the property

97. Consider the following statements:

1. An auctioneer’s announcement to sell an artifact through auction on a certain day is not an offer but only an invitation to offer.

2. The highest bid in an auction is merely an offer which an auctioneer may or may not accept.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

98. The test of intention to contract is-

a. Depends on case

b. Subjective

c. Objective

d. None of the above

99. The court must ensure that the mediated settlement is not affected by:

a. Arbitration clause

b. Coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation

c. Lack of tribunal jurisdiction

d. Absence of witnesses

100. Necessity may be classified into:

a. Public necessity and private necessity

b. Legal necessity and illegal necessity

c. Moral necessity and legal necessity

d. Criminal necessity and civil necessity

101. Contract forbidden by law are:

a. valid

b. void

c. illegal

d. Both (b) and (c)

102. Under Section 21A, petitions are generally transferred based on:

a. Place of marriage only

b. Date of filing (earlier petition prevails)

c. Financial status

d. Religion of parties

103. Under Muslim Law, a prompt dower is payable —

a. At the time of marriage

b. When demanded by wife

c. At the death of the husband

d. At the time of divorce by the husband

104. Vice President of India makes and subscribes oath or affirmation before:-

a. Chief Justice of India

b. President of India

c. Prime Minister

d. Chief Election Commissioner

105. Damage without negligence is called:

a. Damnum sine injuria

b. Injuria sine damno

c. Mens rea

d. Actus reus

106. Section 25 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with-

a. Conditional transfer

b. Condition subsequent

c. Condition collateral

d. Condition precedent and condition subsequent both

107. Trustee is presumed liable where:

a. He denies liability

b. Beneficiary claims

c. Court orders

d. He is presumed to have received interest

108. In case of breach of contract which of the following remedy is available to the aggrieved party?

a. Suit for recession

b. Suit for damages

c. Suit for specific performance

d. All of these

109. A police officer may arrest somebody accused of an offence

a. to prevent such person from committing any further offence

b. for proper investigation of the case

c. to prevent tampering of evidence

d. for all these

110. Principle of res judicata applies to………………………

a. Suits only

b. Execution proceeding only

c. Arbitration proceedings only

d. Suits as well as execution proceedings

111. The right granted under Section 38 of BNS to the extent of causing death can be exercised against an assault which reasonably causes an apprehension that death will otherwise be the consequences of the assault. The above rule has been explained by the Supreme Court in which of the famous cases:

a. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

b. Brij Kishore v. State of U.P.

c. Amjad Khan v. State

d. Ramaswamy v. State of Madras

112. India is a Secular State, because-

a. It has no State religion

b. Hinduism is tolerant towards other religion

c. Indian Government has nothing to do with religion

d. Minority rights are guaranteed in the Constitution.

113. After decree of judicial separation:

a. Marriage is dissolved

b. Parties must cohabit

c. Cohabitation is no longer obligatory

d. Parties must remarry

114. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or truth under the State cannot accept any title from foreign State without the consent of the:

a. President

b. Prime Minister

c. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

d. Council of Minister

115. Such revocation applies:

a. Only by court order

b. In absence of agreement to the contrary

c. Only for registered firms

d. Only when partner retires

116. In which of the following cases, a contingent becomes void:

a. If the contract contemplates the happening of the event within a certain time, and event does not happen or its happening becomes impossible

b. If the performance is made to depend upon an event which is already impossible

c. If the event contemplated does not happen

d. Both (a) & (b) above

117. A muslim is prohibited to have two wives at a time, if these two wives are related to each other by —

a. Consanguinity

b. Affinity

c. Fosterage

d. All the above

118. Revocation of a continuing guarantee is effective for:

a. Past transactions only

b. Future transactions only

c. Both past and future transactions

d. No transactions

119. According to Article 65, if the President's office becomes vacant due to his death, resignation, or removal, who can act as the President?

a. The Prime Minister

b. The Vice President

c. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

d. The Chief Justice of India

120. The primary objective of defamation law is:

a. Protect reputation

b. Protect property

c. Protect contracts

d. Protect trade

121. Section 17 primarily aims to:

a. Allow multiple marriages

b. Prohibit and punish bigamy among Hindus

c. Regulate divorce procedure

d. Define marriage ceremonies

122. Consider the following statements regarding legal aid to accused at State expenses:

Legal aid is

1. a right of the accused

2. charity by the State

3. available in trial before Sessions Court only

4. available in all trials

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 4

d. 2 and 4

123. Section 36 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Rights of outgoing partner to carry on competing business

b. Settlement of accounts

c. Dissolution by court

d. Registration of firm

124. "Local Law" mentioned under Section 2(18) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, means a law applicable to

a. Whole of India

b. A particular part of India

c. Any part of India

d. None of the above

125. Which provision of the Constitution spells out “right to clean environment” as a fundamental right?

a. Article 14

b. Article 19

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

126. What was the basis of constituting the Constituent Assembly of India?

a. Wavell Plan

b. 'Puna Swaraj resolution

c. Cabinet Mission Plan

d. All of the above

127. Judicial control protects:

a. Absence of Power

b. Arbitrary power

c. Unlimited discretion

d. Rule of Law

128. Professional negligence may arise in:

a. Doctors

b. Lawyers

c. Engineers

d. All of the above

129. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is: —

a. not a part of the Constitution

b. a part of the Constitution but it neither confers any power nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution

c. a part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity

d. a part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution

130. Pre-arrest bail is granted under

a. BNS

b. Code of Civil Procedure

c. International Convention of Human Rights

d. Section 482 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

131. A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident, which is likely to prove fatal unless an operation be immediately performed. There is no time to apply to the child's guardian. A performs the operation in spite of the entreaties of the child, intending, in good faith, the child's benefit.

a. A is liable as he performed the operation without taking due consent

b. A is not liable because 'the act was done in good faith for benefit of a person, even without consent

c. A should not have performed the operation, even if it was in good faith and since the operation was performed, A is liable,

d. None of the above

132. One essential element for creation of trust is:

a. Registration

b. Intention to create trust

c. Government approval

d. Consideration

133. 'Hiba' of future property is Muslim Law is —

a. Void

b. Valid under certain conditions

c. Valid

d. None of the above

134. Defamation in written form is called:

a. Libel

b. Slander

c. Negligence

d. Trespass

135. Abatement means:

a. Self-help removal of nuisance

b. Criminal punishment

c. Court judgment

d. Contract termination

136. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property is:

a. limited

b. absolute

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of the above

137. Which among the following writs literally means what is your authority: —

a. Certiorari

b. Habeas corpus

c. Quo warranto

d. Prohibition

138. Abdication test means:

a. Legislature controls courts

b. Executive controls legislature

c. Judiciary controls legislature

d. Legislature cannot surrender its legislative power completely

139. Which among the following elements is not required in case of undue influence?

a. The parties stand in near relation to each other

b. One party shall have the position of dominance over the other

c. The party standing in a dominating position actually dominates the will of the other

d. Parties are not necessarily related at all, they can be strangers meeting for the first time

140. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of: —

a. Six to fourteen years

b. Six to twelve years

c. Six to ten years

d. Six to eighteen years

141. Where sale is by sample as well as description, goods must:

a. Correspond with sample only

b. Correspond with description only

c. Correspond with both sample and description

d. Correspond with either

142. If an appeal against divorce decree is pending:

a. Parties may remarry freely

b. Remarriage is allowed without restriction

c. Remarriage is not permitted until appeal is decided

d. Marriage automatically revives

143. Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains provisions relating to-

a. contingent interest

b. conditional transfers

c. transfer to unborn person

d. none of the above

144. The test of liability in nervous shock cases is based on:

a. Reasonable foreseeability

b. Strict liability

c. Absolute liability

d. Statutory authority

145. Trustee must prove that extension:

a. Was necessary

b. Was legal

c. Was profitable

d. Did not prejudice beneficiary

146. Different dates may be appointed for:

a. Different provisions of the Act

b. Different directors

c. Different shareholders

d. Different courts

147. The Companies Act, 2013 applies to companies incorporated:

a. Only under Companies Act, 2013

b. Only under previous company law

c. Under this Act or any previous company law

d. Outside India only

148. The Companies Act, 2013 applies to insurance companies except where inconsistent with:

a. Insurance Act, 1938

b. IRDA Act, 1999

c. Both A and B

d. RBI Act

149. The Companies Act, 2013 applies to banking companies except where inconsistent with:

a. Reserve Bank of India Act

b. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

c. Negotiable Instruments Act

d. FEMA

150. The Companies Act, 2013 applies to companies engaged in generation or supply of electricity except where inconsistent with:

a. Electricity Act, 2003

b. Electricity Board Rules only

c. Environment Protection Act

d. SEBI Act

Download Bihar Judiciary Mock Test