Mock Tests · Bihar J Mock Test (English Medium)
Bihar PCS-J Mock Test-10
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1. The duty in tort is imposed by:
a. Agreement of parties
b. Law
c. Custom only
d. Constitution
2. 'A' instigates 'B' to give false evidence. Here, if 'B' does not give false evidence, what offence 'A' has committed?
a. 'A' is guilty of no offence
b. Attempt to give false evidence
c. Offence punishable with imprisonment of any description provided for that offence for a term which may extend to one-eighth part of the longest term provided for that offence and with fine
d. None of the above
3. Privilege as a defence means:
a. Protection for certain statements made in special circumstances
b. Criminal protection
c. Property protection
d. Contractual protection
4. Remoteness of damage mainly deals with:
a. Causation and foreseeability
b. Contract formation
c. Property ownership
d. Criminal intent
5. Special relationships giving rise to vicarious liability include:
a. Master and servant
b. Principal and agent
c. Partners
d. All of the above
6. Section 33 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with:
a. Liability of drawer
b. Acceptance of bill
c. Who can be acceptor
d. Negotiation
7. Which school of Muslim law does not recognize the talaq pronounced under compulsion or undue influence?
a. Shia
b. Malikis
c. Shafis
d. All of the above
8. A partner is also not entitled to return of premium where dissolution occurs pursuant to:
a. A court decree
b. An agreement containing no provision for return of the premium
c. Expiry of partnership term
d. Insolvency of partner
9. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Section 5 of Code of Civil Procedure?
i. Revenue Court is a part of Civil Court
ii. Civil Court means courts having original jurisdiction under C.P.C. but not Revenue Court
iii. Civil Court means courts having original jurisdiction under C.P.C. including Revenue Court
iv. Revenue Court is not a part of Civil Court
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (ii) and (iv)
d. (iii) and (iv)
10. Which one of the following Acts made the Central Legislature bicameral i.e. the Council of States and the Legislative Assembly-
a. Indian Councils Act, 1909
b. Indian Councils Act, 1919
c. Government of India Act, 1909
d. Government of India Act, 1919
11. Conditional legislation means:
a. Law becomes effective upon fulfillment of certain conditions
b. Law made by courts
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
12. Which of the following statements is true?
'A' is tried for the murder of 'B'. There is evidence of the fact that 'B' prosecuted ‘A’ for libel and that 'A' was convicted and sentenced. This judgement is
a. conclusive proof of the murder of 'B' by 'A' as it is judgement in rem
b. relevant but not conclusive proof as it relates to matters of a public nature relevant to the inquiry
c. relevant as the existence of such judgement is a fact in issue
d. relevant under Section 6 as showing the motive for the murder of 'B'
13. In India we follow-
a. Adversarial system of justice
b. Inquisitorial system of justice
c. Amicus Curie system of justice
d. Both (a) and (b)
14. Which one of the following is ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
a. A partnership firm
b. A company established under the Companies Act
c. A Cooperative Society
d. The life insurance corporation of India
15. When one fact is declared by Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, Act to be conclusive proof of another, the court, on proof of one fact:
a. Shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
b. May allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
16. How much time of abstinence is required in "Ila from" to enforce dissolution of marriage under Muslim Law?
a. 2 months
b. 3 months
c. 4 months
d. 6 months
17. Practicing untouchability is;
a. Violation of a constitutional right
b. A criminal offence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Violation of a legal right only
18. Under Section 26, court may pass orders regarding:
a. Only custody of property
b. Custody, maintenance and education of minor children
c. Only adoption
d. Only guardianship of father
19. Which section embodies ‘Doctrine of Cypres’-
a. Section 25
b. Section26
c. Section 27
d. Section 28
20. A fraudulent purpose makes the trust:
a. Unlawful
b. Valid
c. Conditional
d. Voidable
21. According to Section 7(2), an arbitration agreement may take the form of:
a. Only a separate written agreement
b. Only an arbitration clause in a contract
c. Either an arbitration clause in a contract or a separate agreement
d. Only an oral agreement
22. Fundamental Right conferred by Article 15(1) of the Constitution is available to-
a. Any person
b. Any citizen
c. Any corporation
d. None of the above
23. Which was the first country to have a written Constitution?
a. UK
b. USA
c. France
d. Russia
24. Once the holder elects to treat it as one instrument:
a. It remains ambiguous
b. It becomes void
c. It shall thereafter be treated accordingly
d. It must be cancelled
25. The jurisdiction conferred upon the Registrar under Section 12 relates to:
a. Criminal trials
b. Trial of suits of small value
c. Appeals from civil courts
d. Revenue disputes
26. The person associated with PIL is: —
a. Justice Bhagawati
b. Justice R.N. Mishra
c. Justice Venkatachelliah
d. None of the above
27. Doctrine of Self Incrimination enacted in Article 20(3) means-
a. No person accused of an offence can be the Judge against himself.
b. No person accused of an offence can be compelled to be the witness against himself.
c. No person accused of an offence can be compelled to give evidence against others.
d. None of the above.
28. According to the proviso to Section 2(2), the arbitral award made or to be made in a place outside India must be:
a. Approved by Indian courts
b. Enforceable and recognised under Part II of the Act
c. Registered before the District Court
d. Reviewed by the High Court
29. Public nuisance may be filed by:
a. Individual without special damage
b. Government
c. Anyone without permission
d. Police only
30. A decree of nullity is:
a. Required for legitimacy of child
b. Not necessary for conferring legitimacy under Section 16(1)
c. Mandatory for all cases
d. Needed only for voidable marriages
31. According to Section 124, the loss may arise due to:
a. Only act of God
b. Only promisor’s conduct
c. Only third-party conduct
d. Conduct of promisor or any other person
32. ‘A’ sells a house to ‘B’ directing ‘B’ that he cannot reside in it but can use it only as a godown or shop. The condition is: —
a. valid
b. void
c. irregular
d. voidable
33. Section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:
a. Bailment
b. Pledge, pawnor and pawnee
c. Contract of guarantee
d. Finder of goods
34. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual Militants are engaged in an attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result. The police persons, are guilty of:
a. No offence
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Murder
d. Death by rash or negligent act
35. Which day is observed as 'Law Day'?
a. 9th November
b. 25th November
c. 26thNovember
d. 18thDecember
36. The consent of partners for variation of such contract may be:
a. Express only
b. Written only
c. Express or implied by a course of dealing
d. By majority vote
37. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property is
a. limited
b. absolute
c. both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
38. Acceptance of a bill may be made by signing:
a. Any document
b. The bill itself or one of its parts
c. Only the first part
d. Only the reverse side
39. In which Section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the words 'Good faith' has not been used?
a. Section 28
b. Section 27
c. Section 30
d. Section 31
40. Where such person elects not to become a partner, he is entitled:
a. To become a partner later without consent
b. To sue the partners for his share of property and profits
c. To dissolve the firm automatically
d. To participate in management temporarily
41. Which of the following protects personal freedom?
a. Quo-warranto
b. Mandamus
c. Habeas Corpus
d. Certiorari
42. The repeal of Section 26 was effected through:
a. Section 3 of Act 10 of 1888
b. Section 4 of Act 10 of 1888
c. Section 5 of Act 10 of 1888
d. Section 6 of Act 10 of 1888
43. In case of a transfer depending on a condition precedent, the transfer takes place when the condition is-
a. Partially fulfilled
b. Strictly fulfilled
c. Substantially fulfilled
d. Wholly fulfilled
44. Another limitation is that the order must be capable of:
a. Immediate sale of property
b. Execution without intervention of a foreign court
c. Registration in another country
d. Approval by government
45. ‘A’ gives Rs. 500 to ‘B’ on condition that ‘B’ shall marry A’s daughter ‘G’. On the date of transfer ‘G’ was dead. The transfer is void under which section of Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 25
b. Section 26
c. Section 27
d. Section 28
46. Another jurisdictional basis is where:
a. Petitioner was born
b. Respondent at time of petition resides
c. Marriage was planned
d. Engagement took place
47. The defence of consent will not apply when consent is obtained by:
a. Agreement
b. Fraud
c. Free will
d. Knowledge
48. The reservoir water escaped and flooded:
a. Public road
b. Plaintiff’s coal mine
c. Railway track
d. Farm land
49. Which one of the following statement is correct?
A voidable contract is an agreement which is:
a. Enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others.
b. Enforceable by the parties thereto.
c. Enforceable with the permission of the court
d. Not enforceable by any of the parties thereto.
50. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. The appropriate Government
b. The President of India
c. The Governor of the State
d. The Central Government
51. The term "Court", as defined in Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 does not include
a. Presiding officer of a Labour Court
b. Tahsildar
c. Arbitrator
d. Commissioner appointed by a Civil Court
52. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable:—
a. Where the transfer is by way of sale
b. Where the transfer is by way of gift
c. Where the transfer is by way of exchange
d. Where the transfer is by way of lease
53. Which one of the following is a ground on which the State can impose reasonable restriction on the right to move freely throughout the territory of India: —
a. Security of the State
b. Decency
c. Morality
d. Protecting the Interests of any Scheduled Tribe
54. The name of the Union given in the Constitution is
a. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
b. India or Hindustan
c. India or Bharat
d. Bharata desh or India
55. The term “prescribed” under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 means:
a. Prescribed by the Central Government through notification
b. Prescribed by rules made under the Act
c. Prescribed by the Registrar of Firms
d. Prescribed by the partnership agreement
56. A cheque includes:
a. Electronic image of a truncated cheque
b. Cheque in electronic form
c. Both A and B
d. Demand draft
57. A convert or reconvert to Hindu religion:
a. Is excluded from the Act
b. Is included under the Act
c. Needs court approval
d. Is included only after 5 years
58. Period of limitation shall commence
a. From the date of the offence generally
b. From the date of knowledge, of the commission of the offence if. not known earlier
c. From the date of establishment of the identity of the accused if not known at the time of commission of the offence
d. All the above.
59. The Indian Contract Act came into force on-
a. 1st October, 1872
b. 15th October, 1872
c. 1st September, 1872
d. 19th April, 1872
60. If defendant had the final opportunity to avoid harm:
a. Plaintiff is barred from recovery
b. Defendant is liable
c. Court dismisses case
d. No negligence exists
61. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 where a writing is not expressly required by law:—
a. a transfer of property may be made without writing every case
b. a transfer of property is subject to only writing
c. no provision of oral transfer is made
d. none of the above
62. Suit for partition of immovable property shall be instituted in the Court where:
a. Plaintiff resides
b. Plaintiff carries on his profession
c. Subject matter is situated
d. With the permission of the District Judge, in any Court
63. The enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy primarily depends on : —
a. The choice of Government
b. Judiciary
c. Parliamentary Committee
d. Resources available with the Government
64. As per preamble of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 the purpose of this Act is
a. to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
b. to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
c. to define and amend the law of evidence
d. to consolidate and to provide for general rules and principles of evidence for fair trial.
65. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called?
a. Right to rem
b. Right in personam
c. Fundamental right
d. Locus standi
66. Under Indian Contract Act, which of the following contracts is not a valid contract?
a. By a written registered document A promises to give Rs. 5000 to B for natural love and affection
b. By an oral agreement B agrees to pay time barred debt of A
c. A went on a pilgrimage, B paid his electricity bills A agrees to pay back the amount paid by B to him
d. A supports B’s infant son, B promises to pay A's expenses in so doing
67. Which out of the following is not covered under ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. Central Govt.
b. State Govt.
c. University of Patna
d. A Deity
68. Which constitutional right is not a fundamental right?
a. Right to equality
b. Right to freedom
c. Right to life
d. Right to property
69. Under Section 13, if the vendor has no title at the time of contract but later acquires interest in the property:
a. Contract becomes void
b. Purchaser may compel him to make good the contract out of such interest
c. Purchaser loses rights
d. Court must cancel contract
70. The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur is a rule of:
a. Evidence
b. Contract
c. Criminal law
d. Property law
71. Under the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the evidence may be given in all cases about:
a. facts in issue only
b. relevant facts only
c. facts in issue and relevant facts only
d. none of the above
72. Such person also includes:
a. Consignor or agent who has paid or is directly responsible for price
b. Broker
c. Auctioneer
d. Banker
73. Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Enforcement of individual civil rights through specific relief
b. Criminal liability
c. Punishment for breach of contract
d. Registration of documents
74. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention?
a. Writ of Prohibition
b. Writ of Mandamus
c. Writ of Habeas Corpus
d. Writ of Quo Warranto
75. In Byrne v Boadle, the injury was caused by:
a. Falling barrel of flour
b. Broken bottle
c. Gas explosion
d. Falling ladder
76. How many parts are present in the Constitution of India?
a. XXV parts
b. XXIV parts
c. XXII parts.
d. XXIII parts.
77. This Act does not affect the right of parties to recover:
a. Price only
b. Interest or special damages where recoverable by law
c. Delivery charges
d. Penalty
78. The Supreme Court affirmed that Section 144 of the BNSS is a secular law applicable to all citizens, including divorced Muslim women, who are entitled to maintenance from their former husbands if unable to support themselves, even after the iddat period. Consider the above statement.
a. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985 SC 945
b. (Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740
c. (Razia v. State of U.P. (2022)
d. None of the above
79. The repeal of Section 30 was done by:
a. Hindu Succession Act, 1956
b. Repealing and Amending Act, 1960
c. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Indian Divorce Act, 1869
80. A contract between an insurance company and vehicle owner to save the later from consequences of a vehicular accident is a contract of
a. guarantee
b. surety
c. bailment
d. indemnity
81. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to: —
a. Citizens of India
b. Citizens of India and Foreigners
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. Foreigners living in India
82. On consummation of a Muta Marriage, the wife is entitled to-
a. Half dower
b. Full dower
c. Double dower
d. No dower
83. The person who delivers goods in pledge is called:
a. Pawnee
b. Pawnor
c. Bailee
d. Creditor
84. ‘A’ transfers property to ‘B’ in trust for ‘C’ and directs ‘B’ to give possession of the property to ‘C’ when he attains the age of 25. C’s interest in the property is: —
a. Contingent
b. Vested
c. Neither contingent nor vested
d. Public interest
85. Which section creates exception of the restrictions in sections 14,16 and 17 of the Transfer of Property Act?
a. 15
b. 19
c. 17A
d. 18
86. If A makes a Hiba of certain property to B with a condition that B shall not transfer the property, then —
a. Hiba is void and condition is valid
b. Condition is void and Hiba is valid
c. Neither condition nor Hiba is valid
d. None of the above
87. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences?
a. Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed to establish a prima-facie case
b. Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is need to release such person on bail in view of facts and circumstances of case
c. Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by witness during investigation
d. If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more, no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of hearing to the public prosecutor
88. According to the Constitution of India which among the following is empowered to establish the new States?
a. President
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. Cabinet
89. As regards the payment, the dower can be-
a. Prompt
b. Deferred
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only (a) and not (b)
90. Under BNSS there shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of 1st class imposes only sentence of fine not exceeding:
a. one hundred rupees
b. two hundred rupees
c. three hundred rupees
d. five hundred rupees
91. The plaintiff wants to claim some reliefs in a subsequent suit. He requires leave under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure?
a. Section 82(2);
b. Section 20;
c. Order II Rule 2(3);
d. Order I Rule 8.
92. Sovereign functions include:
a. Defence
b. Law and order
c. Administration of justice
d. All of the above
93. According to Section 8B(2)(d), the court shall record:
a. Only the mediator’s report
b. Statement on oath of parties or authorised representatives affirming the settlement
c. Written arguments
d. Tribunal findings
94. Bias may invalidate decision because:
a. Decision not impartial
b. Decision criminal
c. Decision legislative
d. Decision constitutional
95. Such person includes:
a. Warehouse keeper
b. Agent of seller to whom bill of lading is endorsed
c. Carrier
d. Buyer’s agent
96. Precept means
a. command
b. order
c. writ
d. all of the above
97. A contingent contract is:
a. dependent or conditional upon the happening or non-happening of a future event or contingency
b. dependent or conditional upon the happening of a future event or contingency
c. independent or unconditional contract
d. none of the above
98. If a Muslim minor has been contracted in marriage in his minority by a guardian, such a person has a right on attaining majority to repudiate the marriage. This is known in Muslim Law as —
a. Talaq-i-tafweez
b. Talaq-ul-biddat
c. Khyar-ul-bulugh
d. Talaq-ul-sunnat
99. ‘A’ transfer his property to ‘B’ for life and thereafter to his unborn son for life. In this case transfer of property to the unborn son is: —
a. Valid
b. Illegal
c. Voidable
d. Void
100. Where the debtor has omitted to intimate, and there are no other circumstances indicating to which debt the payment is to be applied:
a. the creditor may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt actually due and payable to him from the debtor, provided its recovery is not barred by the law
b. it is to be applied in discharge of the debts in order of time
c. it is to be applied in discharge of the debts in order of time provided they are not barred by the law of limitation
d. the creditor may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt actually due and payable to him from the debtor, whether its recovery is or is not barred by the law in force for the time being as to the limitation of suits
101. Creation of trust by a minor is subject to:
a. Personal choice
b. Trustee’s approval
c. Court discretion only
d. Law in force regarding disposal of trust-property
102. A stipulation may be a condition though called:
a. Agreement
b. Warranty
c. Term
d. Clause
103. Under Muslim Law, a 'Will' may be made of —
a. One-fourth of property
b. One-third of property
c. One-half of property
d. Entire property
104. The Right to Property ceased to be Fundamental Right from-
a. 1975
b. 1976
c. 1978
d. 1979
105. Which one among the following is not a relevant factor to decide whether an agency or instrumentality should be treated as ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
a. Deep and pervasive State control
b. Monopoly status conferred or recognized by the State
c. Function which are of public importance
d. Profit earning
106. Under which provision of CPC a plaint is rejected by the Courts in the absence of cause of action
a. Order 7 Rule 11(a)
b. Order 7 Rule 11(b)
c. Order 7 Rule 11(d)
d. Order 7 Rule 11(c)
107. If damage is not reasonably foreseeable, it is considered:
a. Remote damage
b. Direct damage
c. Intended damage
d. Legal damage
108. The purpose of in-camera proceedings is to:
a. Speed up trial
b. Ensure privacy in matrimonial matters
c. Reduce court fees
d. Increase publicity
109. With reference to 'fraud' and 'misrepresentation', which of the statement/s is/are correct?
1. Both render the contract voidable.
2. Fraud renders a cause of action in tort for dam-ages.
3. Simple misrepresentation is also a tort
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
110. Who said that “An offer need not be made to an ascertained person, but no contract can arise until it has been accepted by an ascertained person”?
a. Lord Atkin
b. Lord Goddard
c. Cheshire and Fifoot
d. Anson
111. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1) (a) includes the right to information?
a. Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting n. Cricket Association of Bengal
b. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
c. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
112. Which of the following is “State” within the definition of Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. National Book Trust
b. State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT)
c. Rajiv Gandhi Board
d. Institute of Constitutional & Parliamentary Studies
113. A guarantee given for repeated dealings between parties is called:
a. Specific guarantee
b. Conditional guarantee
c. Continuing guarantee
d. Void guarantee
114. What are the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a. The main objectives of the framers of the constitution
b. The principles that are expected to guide the State in the good governance of the country
c. The ideals of a welfare State that should be acceptable to all right thinking persons
d. Social rights as approved to personal rights enumerated in Part III
115. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is
a. Unenforceable
b. Voidable
c. Wrongful
d. Void
116. Prohibition prevents:
a. Lower court exceeding jurisdiction
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract enforcement
d. Property transfer
117. The acts of child constituting general exceptions under BNS are mentioned in: —
a. Sections 19-20
b. Sections 20-21
c. Sections 21-22
d. Sections 22-23
118. Husband may lose maintenance entitlement if:
a. He changes job
b. He has sexual intercourse outside wedlock
c. He becomes old
d. He files appeal
119. The court can record demeanor of a witness under which section of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 315
b. Section 310
c. Section 318
d. Section 320
120. Which Fundamental Right is available to citizens only?
a. Right to Equality
b. Protection against arrest and detention
c. Freedom of speech and expression
d. Protection of life and personal liberty
121. Which condition violation carries highest punishment under Section 18?
a. Prohibited relationship
b. Sapinda relationship
c. Age condition (Section 5(iii))
d. Ceremonies condition
122. The royal command of a Court for enforcement of a Fundamental Right is called: —
a. Public Interest Litigation
b. Writ
c. Direction
d. None of the above
123. Unpaid seller’s right of lien or stoppage in transit is:
a. Always defeated by sub-sale
b. Not affected by any sale or disposition by buyer
c. Always transferred
d. Always void
124. Equity will not grant relief where the right and remedy both fall within the jurisdiction of:
a. Criminal Courts
b. Common Law Courts
c. Military Courts
d. Administrative Tribunals
125. Identify the punishment which is not prescribed under the category of punishments in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
a. Death
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Simple imprisonment with hard labor
d. Forfeiture of property
126. A, who deals only in coconut oil, enters into an agreement with B to sell 50 tons of oil. The agreement is
a. enforceable by law
b. void due to uncertainty
c. voidable due to uncertainty
d. None of the above
127. Which writ can be issued when appointment is contrary to the statutory provisions?
a. Mandamus
b. Certiorari
c. Quo warranto
d. Prohibition
128. The ultimate aim of natural justice is:
a. Authority
b. Punishment
c. Justice
d. Control
129. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on-
a. 18 July, 1947
b. 14 August, 1947
c. 3 June, 1947
d. 26 July, 1947
130. The Oath is administered to the President of India by:
a. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b. Prime Minister of India
c. Attorney General of India
d. Chief Justice of India
131. The principles of natural justice include:
a. Rule against bias
b. Right to hearing
c. Reasoned decision
d. All of the above
132. Section 2 of the Negotiable Instruments Act has been:
a. Amended
b. Replaced
c. Repealed
d. Modified
133. Modern trend in law is:
a. Expanding state liability
b. Expanding immunity
c. Eliminating tort law
d. Removing compensation
134. One limitation of the maxim “Equity follows the law” arises when:
a. The rule of law clearly applies
b. A rule of law does not specifically and clearly apply
c. A statute expressly governs the matter
d. The court follows precedent
135. A partner may retire from a firm with:
a. Consent of the majority of partners
b. Consent of all the other partners
c. Approval of the Registrar
d. Court permission
136. If plaintiff is partly responsible for accident:
a. Defendant automatically wins
b. Contributory negligence may apply
c. Criminal law applies
d. Contract law applies
137. A gift made by a Muslim may be revoked-
a. Before delivery of possession
b. By heirs of the donor
c. By family members of the donee
d. None of the above
138. Section 7 recognizes:
a. Statutory uniform ceremony
b. Flexibility based on customs
c. Only Vedic rituals
d. Only modern ceremonies
139. The main purpose of trespass law is:
a. Protect personal and property rights
b. Protect contracts
c. Protect criminal law
d. Protect government authority
140. Which doctrines are based on the maxim “Where equities are equal, law shall prevail”?
a. Election, Marshalling, and Set-off
b. Laches, Estoppel, and Conversion
c. Ademption, Satisfaction, and Redemption
d. Part Performance, Election, and Estoppel
141. “For an acceptance mere mental resolve to accept would not be sufficient; there must be some external manifestation of the intent by speech, writing or other act.”
It was held by Supreme Court in-
a. Fazal Illahi v. East Indian Railway Co.
b. M. Nanjappa v. M.F. Muthuswamy
c. Dugdak v. Hovering
d. Bhagwan Das v. GirdhariLal & Co.
142. Disclaimer by one of several co-trustees results in:
a. Trust becomes void
b. Property returns to author
c. Property vests in remaining trustees
d. Property vests in court
143. Under Section 2(b), “settlement” excludes:
a. Will or codicil
b. Gift deed
c. Trust deed
d. Lease deed
144. A marriage of a Muslim with a woman prohibited by reason of affinity shall be —
a. Irregular
b. Void
c. Valid
d. None of the above
145. Section 25 order can be modified if:
a. Court changes
b. Change in circumstances of either party is shown
c. Parties agree orally
d. Marriage is void
146. Which of the following is the second feature of corporate personality?
a. Perpetual succession
b. Limited liability of members
c. Common seal
d. Transferability of shares
147. The principle of limited liability means:
a. Members have unlimited personal liability
b. Company has no liability
c. Liability of members is limited
d. Directors are never liable
148. Which of the following is described as an exceptional feature of corporate personality?
a. Designed seal
b. Share warrant
c. Perpetual succession
d. Share certificate
149. Perpetual succession means:
a. Company depends upon life of members
b. Company continues despite changes in membership
c. Company ends on resignation of directors
d. Company has temporary existence
150. A company has the capacity:
a. Only to sue
b. Only to be sued
c. Neither to sue nor be sued
d. To sue and to be sued
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