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NDPS MCQs Set -4
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1. Under Section 36C, the person conducting a prosecution before a Special Court shall be deemed to be:
a. A Government Pleader
b. A Judge of the Special Court
c. A Public Prosecutor
d. An Advocate-on-Record
2. Section 36D applies to offences committed under the NDPS Act—
a. Only after constitution of Special Courts
b. Before the commencement of the NDPS (Amendment) Act, 1988
c. Only during the pendency of appeals
d. On or after the commencement of the NDPS (Amendment) Act, 1988
3. Under Section 36D(1), an offence triable by a Special Court shall, until such Special Court is constituted, be tried by—
a. The High Court
b. A Judicial Magistrate First Class
c. A Court of Session
d. An Executive Magistrate
4. Section 36D(1) operates—
a. Only upon direction of the High Court
b. Subject to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Only if the accused consents
5. Section 36D(2) deals with proceedings which are—
a. Pending before a Court of Session
b. Yet to be instituted
c. Pending before a Magistrate
d. Pending before a Special Court
6. Where proceedings under the NDPS Act are pending before a Court of Session, such proceedings shall—
a. Be transferred to the Magistrate
b. Be heard and disposed of by the Court of Session
c. Automatically lapse
d. Be stayed till constitution of Special Court
7. The phrase “notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1)” in Section 36D(2) signifies—
a. Both sub-sections apply simultaneously
b. Sub-section (1) becomes redundant
c. Sub-section (2) overrides sub-section (1)
d. Sub-section (1) has overriding effect
8. The proviso to Section 36D(2) preserves the power of the High Court under—
a. Section 482 CrPC
b. Section 407 CrPC
c. Section 438 CrPC
d. Section 439 CrPC
9. The High Court’s power under Section 407 CrPC, as saved by Section 36D, relates to—
a. Revision of sentence
b. Summary trial
c. Grant of bail
d. Transfer of cases
10. Under the proviso to Section 36D(2), the High Court may transfer—
a. Only cases pending before Special Courts
b. Only appeals
c. Any case or class of cases taken cognizance of by a Court of Session
d. Only cases pending before Magistrates
11. Section 37 of the NDPS Act begins with a non-obstante clause overriding—
a. The Evidence Act, 1872
b. The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
c. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
12. As per Section 37(1)(a), every offence punishable under the NDPS Act is—
a. Non-cognizable
b. Cognizable
c. Non-cognizable and bailable
d. Cognizable and bailable
13. Section 37(1)(b) places special restrictions on grant of bail for offences under—
a. Sections 20 and 21 only
b. Only offences involving small quantity
c. All offences under the NDPS Act
d. Sections 19, 24, 27A and offences involving commercial quantity
14. A person accused of offences mentioned in Section 37(1)(b) shall not be released on bail unless—
a. The accused has no previous conviction
b. The Public Prosecutor is given an opportunity to oppose the bail application
c. The offence is compoundable
d. The accused has undergone half of the sentence
15. Under Section 37(1)(b)(ii), when the Public Prosecutor opposes bail, the court must be satisfied that—
a. The offence is not punishable with death
b. The accused undertakes to cooperate with investigation
c. The accused is not guilty and not likely to commit any offence while on bail
d. The accused is a first-time offender
16. The expression “reasonable grounds for believing” under Section 37 means—
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Confession of the accused
c. Mere suspicion
d. Prima facie satisfaction based on material on record
17. The twin conditions under Section 37(1)(b)(ii) require the court to be satisfied that the accused—
a. Is guilty and will reform
b. Is not guilty and is not likely to commit any offence while on bail
c. Is guilty but deserves leniency
d. Is not guilty and will surrender
18. Section 37(2) clarifies that the limitations on bail under the NDPS Act are—
a. In substitution of CrPC provisions
b. Dependent on CrPC provisions
c. Applicable only during trial
d. In addition to limitations under the CrPC or any other law
19. Section 38 of the NDPS Act deals with—
a. Offences by minors
b. Offences by repeat offenders
c. Offences by companies
d. Offences by public servants
20. Under Section 38(1), when an offence under Chapter IV is committed by a company, who shall be deemed guilty?
a. Only the managing director
b. Only the partners
c. Only the company
d. The company and every person in charge of and responsible for the conduct of its business
21. For liability under Section 38(1), a person must—
a. Be employed in any capacity
b. Be in charge of and responsible to the company for the conduct of its business at the time of offence
c. Have signed the licence
d. Be a shareholder of the company
22. The deeming liability under Section 38(1) applies to offences committed under—
a. Chapter III only
b. Chapter V
c. The entire NDPS Act
d. Chapter IV
23. The proviso to Section 38(1) provides a defence if the person proves that—
a. He resigned before trial
b. He was not present at the place of offence
c. The company paid penalty
d. The offence was committed without his knowledge or despite due diligence
24. Under Section 38(1), the burden of proving lack of knowledge or due diligence lies on—
a. The prosecution
b. The company
c. The investigating officer
d. The accused person in charge
25. Section 38(2) creates liability even if a person is not in charge of business, provided the offence was committed with—
a. Negligence alone
b. Judicial approval
c. Consent, connivance, or attributable neglect
d. Knowledge of police
26. Persons covered under Section 38(2) include—
a. Shareholders only
b. Consumers
c. Auditors only
d. Director, manager, secretary or other officer
27. Liability under Section 38(2) arises—
a. Only after conviction of the company
b. Only if Section 38(1) fails
c. Notwithstanding Section 38(1)
d. Only subject to Section 38(1)
28. Under Section 38(2), what must be proved to fasten liability on a director or officer?
a. Prior conviction
b. Ownership of shares
c. Consent, connivance or neglect leading to offence
d. Mere designation
29. For the purposes of Section 38, the term “company” includes—
a. Only partnership firms
b. Any body corporate only
c. Body corporate, firm or association of individuals
d. Only registered companies under Companies Act
30. Under the Explanation to Section 38, a “director” in relation to a firm means—
a. Only designated partner
b. Managing partner
c. Senior partner
d. Any partner of the firm
31. Section 39 of the NDPS Act deals with—
a. Compounding of offences
b. Suspension of sentence
c. Power of court to release certain offenders on probation
d. Probation for juvenile offenders
32. Section 39 applies when which category of person is found guilty?
a. Any accused under Chapter IV
b. Any license holder
c. Any addict
d. Any first-time offender
33. Under Section 39(1), the offence must be punishable under—
a. Section 19 only
b. Section 37
c. Section 24 only
d. Section 27 or offences relating to small quantity of narcotic drug or psychotropic substance
34. For invoking Section 39(1), the court must have regard to—
a. Only the gravity of offence
b. Age, character, antecedents or physical or mental condition of the offender
c. Only prior conviction
d. Only the quantity involved
35. Section 39 operates—
a. Subject to the NDPS Act
b. Only under Probation of Offenders Act
c. Subject to CrPC
d. Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act or any other law
36. Under Section 39(1), instead of sentencing the offender to imprisonment, the court may—
a. Grant pardon
b. Release him on bail
c. Impose only fine
d. Release him for medical treatment for de-toxification or de-addiction
37. Release under Section 39(1) requires—
a. Prior conviction
b. Consent of the offender
c. Approval of Public Prosecutor
d. Recommendation of police
38. The medical treatment under Section 39(1) must be from—
a. Any NGO
b. Only government hospitals
c. A hospital or institution maintained or recognised by Government
d. Any private clinic
39. Under Section 39(1), the offender must enter into—
a. A surety bond only
b. A bail bond under CrPC
c. A probation bond under IPC
d. A bond in the form prescribed by Central Government
40. The bond under Section 39(1) may be executed—
a. Only personal bond
b. Only without sureties
c. With or without sureties
d. Only with sureties
41. The offender released under Section 39(1) must furnish a report regarding—
a. Police verification
b. Completion of imprisonment
c. Result of medical treatment
d. His financial condition
42. The report under Section 39(1) must be furnished within—
a. Six months
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. One year
43. During the period under Section 39(1), the offender must—
a. Perform community service
b. Report weekly to police
c. Abstain from commission of any offence under Chapter IV
d. Pay compensation
44. Under Section 39(2), the court considers—
a. Opinion of probation officer
b. Confession of accused
c. Police charge-sheet
d. Report regarding result of medical treatment
45. After considering the treatment report, the court may direct—
a. Immediate imprisonment
b. Compounding of offence
c. Acquittal
d. Release of offender after due admonition
46. Under Section 39(2), the offender must enter into a bond for—
a. Maintaining good behaviour
b. Reporting to police
c. Abstaining from commission of any offence under Chapter IV
d. Payment of fine
47. The maximum period for which the bond under Section 39(2) may operate is—
a. One year
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Two years
48. If the offender fails to abstain from offences during the bond period under Section 39(2), he may—
a. Be released again
b. Be granted further probation
c. Be fined only
d. Appear before the court and receive sentence
49. Section 40 of the NDPS Act empowers the court to—
a. Cancel licence of offender
b. Order preventive detention
c. Enhance punishment
d. Publish particulars of certain convicted offenders
50. Section 40 applies when a person is convicted of offences punishable under—
a. Only Sections 19 and 24
b. Entire Chapter IV
c. Sections 8 to 14 only
d. Sections 15 to 25 (both inclusive), 28, 29 or 30
51. Under Section 40(1), publication of particulars of the offender is—
a. Mandatory
b. Automatic on conviction
c. Discretionary with the court
d. To be done by the Government
52. Which of the following particulars may be published under Section 40(1)?
a. Only the offence committed
b. Only prior criminal history
c. Name and place of business or residence of the offender
d. Only the name of the offender
53. Apart from name and address, the court may also direct publication of—
a. Police investigation details
b. Confession of the accused
c. Evidence recorded in trial
d. Nature of the contravention and fact of conviction
54. Under Section 40(1), the court may also publish—
a. Only statutorily prescribed particulars
b. Only punishment awarded
c. Only particulars mentioned in charge sheet
d. Such other particulars as it considers appropriate
55. Publication under Section 40(1) shall be made—
a. From court funds
b. From police budget
c. At Government expense
d. At the expense of the convicted person
56. The publication under Section 40(1) may be made—
a. Only in the Official Gazette
b. Only on Government websites
c. Only on court notice board
d. In such newspapers or in such manner as the court may direct
57. According to Section 40(2), publication shall not be made until—
a. Sentence is executed
b. Fine is paid
c. Period for preferring appeal has expired without appeal or appeal is disposed of
d. Bail period expires
58. If an appeal is filed against the conviction, publication under Section 40—
a. Must still be done
b. Is optional
c. Must wait till appeal is decided
d. Is permanently barred
59. Under Section 41(1) of the NDPS Act, a warrant may be issued by—
a. Any Judicial Magistrate
b. Only Sessions Judge
c. Metropolitan Magistrate, Magistrate of First Class, or specially empowered Second Class Magistrate
d. Any police officer
60. A Magistrate of the second class can issue a warrant under Section 41(1) only if—
a. He acts on police request
b. He is authorised by the Central Government
c. He is senior-most in the district
d. He is specially empowered by the State Government
61. Section 41(1) empowers issuance of warrant for—
a. Arrest only
b. Search only
c. Seizure only
d. Arrest or search
62. A warrant for arrest under Section 41(1) can be issued if the Magistrate has reason to believe that the person—
a. Is absconding
b. Is a habitual offender
c. Has committed any offence punishable under the NDPS Act
d. Is likely to commit an offence
63. Under Section 41(1), search may be conducted—
a. Only with police permission
b. Only during nighttime
c. Only during daytime
d. By day or by night
64. Search under Section 41(1) may be conducted of—
a. Only open places
b. Only buildings
c. Only conveyances
d. Buildings, conveyances or places
65. The Magistrate must have reason to believe that which of the following is kept or concealed for issuing a search warrant?
a. Any arms or ammunition
b. Any counterfeit currency
c. Any stolen property
d. Narcotic drug, psychotropic substance or controlled substance related to an NDPS offence
66. Section 41(1) also permits search for—
a. Only narcotic substances
b. Only psychotropic substances
c. Only controlled substances
d. Documents or articles furnishing evidence of NDPS offence
67. A warrant under Section 41(1) may also relate to search for—
a. Property under Income Tax Act
b. Property under civil dispute
c. Illegally acquired property liable for seizure, freezing or forfeiture
d. Property suspected to be benami
68. Illegally acquired property referred to in Section 41(1) is dealt with under—
a. Chapter VI
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter III
d. Chapter VA
69. Documents or articles searched under Section 41(1) must furnish evidence of—
a. Only possession
b. Prior convictions
c. Any criminal offence
d. Commission of an NDPS offence or holding of illegally acquired property
70. The standard required for issuance of warrant under Section 41(1) is—
a. Written complaint only
b. Mere suspicion
c. Reason to believe
d. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
71. Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act empowers which category of officers to act without a warrant?
a. Only Magistrates
b. Any investigating officer
c. Any police officer
d. Officers of gazetted rank empowered by Government
72. Officers of which Central Government departments may be empowered under Section 41(2)?
a. Revenue Intelligence
b. Central Excise, Narcotics, Customs
c. Para-military forces and armed forces
d. All of the above
73. Officers of State Government departments empowered under Section 41(2) may belong to:
a. Police only
b. Judiciary
c. Revenue only
d. Drugs Control, Excise, Police or any other department
74. Empowerment under Section 41(2) must be by:
a. Oral authorisation
b. Judicial order
c. Standing Order of Police
d. General or special order of the appropriate Government
75. The “reason to believe” under Section 41(2) may be based on:
a. Anonymous tip
b. Personal knowledge only
c. Both personal knowledge and information taken in writing
d. Information given by any person and taken in writing only
76. Under Section 41(2), information received must be:
a. Oral
b. Recorded after arrest
c. Written
d. Taken in writing
77. Section 41(2) applies when an officer believes that:
a. Only narcotic drugs are concealed
b. Only psychotropic substances are concealed
c. Only offence under IPC is committed
d. Any narcotic drug, psychotropic substance, controlled substance, documents or illegally acquired property are concealed
78. Illegally acquired property referred to in Section 41(2) must be liable for action under:
a. Chapter VI
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter V
d. Chapter VA
79. A gazetted officer under Section 41(2) may authorise which officer to conduct arrest or search?
a. Any subordinate officer
b. A constable
c. A peon
d. An officer superior in rank to peon, sepoy or constable
80. Apart from authorising a subordinate officer, the gazetted officer under Section 41(2) may:
a. Only supervise the operation
b. Only record information
c. Only report to Magistrate
d. Himself arrest or search
81. Arrest or search under Section 41(2) may be conducted:
a. Only with prior warrant
b. Only during nighttime
c. Only during daytime
d. By day or by night
82. Under Section 41(3), which officers are vested with the powers of an officer acting under Section 42?
a. Only Magistrates
b. Only officers authorised under Section 41(2)
c. Officers authorised under Section 41(2) and officers addressed under Section 41(1)
d. Only officers to whom warrant under Section 41(1) is addressed
83. Section 41(3) equates the powers of officers acting under Section 41 with:
a. Section 43
b. Section 50
c. Section 52
d. Section 42
84. Section 42 empowers which officers to conduct search, seizure and arrest without warrant?
a. Any police officer
b. Only Magistrates
c. Only gazetted officers
d. Officers superior in rank to peon, sepoy or constable
85. Officers empowered under Section 42 may belong to which departments?
a. Revenue Intelligence
b. Central Excise, Narcotics, Customs
c. Para-military forces or armed forces
d. All of the above
86. Empowerment under Section 42 must be through:
a. Standing Order
b. Oral permission
c. Judicial direction
d. General or special order of the Government
87. Section 42 applies when the officer has “reason to believe” based on:
a. Anonymous tip only
b. Confession of accused
c. Suspicion alone
d. Personal knowledge or information taken down in writing
88. Information received under Section 42(1) must be:
a. Oral
b. Telephonic
c. Recorded after seizure
d. Taken down in writing
89. Section 42 authorises search of which places?
a. Public roads
b. Open public places only
c. Open fields
d. Building, conveyance or enclosed place
90. As per Section 42(1), entry and search shall ordinarily be conducted:
a. Only at night
b. At any time
c. Between sunrise and sunset
d. Only during office hours
91. Which power is expressly provided under Section 42(1)(a)?
a. Surveillance
b. Interrogation
c. Confiscation after trial
d. Entry and search
92. Under Section 42(1)(b), an officer may break open doors:
a. Only during daytime
b. Only in presence of accused
c. Only with Magistrate’s permission
d. In case of resistance
93. Which items may be seized under Section 42(1)(c)?
a. Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
b. Materials used in manufacture
c. Conveyances and animals liable to confiscation
d. All of the above
94. Section 42 also permits seizure of:
a. Only drugs
b. Only currency
c. Only documents
d. Documents furnishing evidence of offence or illegally acquired property
95. Under Section 42(1)(d), the officer may:
a. Arrest only with warrant
b. Detain and search only
c. Arrest only after FIR
d. Detain, search and arrest if he thinks proper
96. The first proviso to Section 42 relates to:
a. Bail
b. Night search
c. Licence holders
d. Commercial quantity
97. In respect of licence holders, search under Section 42 can be exercised only by:
a. Any empowered officer
b. Magistrate
c. Gazetted officer
d. Officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
98. The second proviso to Section 42 allows search between sunset and sunrise when:
a. Magistrate is unavailable
b. Accused is absconding
c. Quantity is commercial
d. Officer records reasons that warrant cannot be obtained
99. For a night search under Section 42, the officer must:
a. Inform accused
b. Register FIR first
c. Take permission from superior
d. Record grounds of belief
100. Failure to record grounds before night search would amount to:
a. Minor irregularity
b. No consequence
c. Violation of Section 50
d. Non-compliance of Section 42
101. Section 42(2) applies when the officer:
a. Seizes contraband
b. Arrests the accused
c. Files charge-sheet
d. Takes down information or records grounds
102. Under Section 42(2), the officer must send a copy to his superior within:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. One week
103. Section 43 deals with the power of seizure and arrest in:
a. Enclosed places
b. Licensed premises only
c. Public places
d. Private places
104. Officers empowered under Section 43 belong to:
a. Only police department
b. Departments mentioned in Section 42
c. Only gazetted officers
d. Any department of the State
105. Under Section 43(a), an officer may seize narcotic drugs:
a. Only with warrant
b. In any public place or in transit
c. Only during daytime
d. Only inside buildings
106. Section 43 applies when the officer has:
a. Court direction
b. Mere suspicion
c. Written information only
d. Reason to believe an offence has been committed
107. Along with narcotic drugs, the officer may also seize:
a. Only documents
b. Only cash
c. Only conveyance
d. Animals, conveyance, articles and documents liable to confiscation
108. Section 43 permits seizure of documents that:
a. Prove ownership
b. Relate to licence
c. Show commercial quantity
d. Furnish evidence of offence or illegally acquired property
109. Property liable for seizure under Section 43 includes property liable under:
a. Chapter VI
b. Chapter III
c. Chapter VA
d. Chapter IV
110. Under Section 43(b), an officer may detain and search a person when:
a. The person appears suspicious
b. The person is fleeing
c. He has reason to believe the person committed an offence
d. The person is named in FIR
111. Arrest under Section 43(b) can be made if possession of narcotic substance appears to be:
a. Commercial quantity
b. Without licence
c. Unlawful
d. Large quantity
112. Under Section 43(b), the officer may also arrest:
a. Only the accused
b. Only the carrier
c. Only the owner of substance
d. Any other person in his company
113. The expression “public place” under Section 43 includes:
a. Private residence
b. Warehouse
c. Factory premises
d. Hotel, shop or public conveyance
114. Section 44 of the NDPS Act deals with powers relating to offences involving:
a. Manufactured drugs only
b. Controlled substances only
c. Coca plant, opium poppy and cannabis plant
d. Psychotropic substances only
115. Section 44 makes applicable the provisions of which sections to offences relating to coca plant, opium poppy and cannabis plant?
a. Sections 40, 41 and 42
b. Sections 41, 42 and 43
c. Sections 42, 43 and 52
d. Sections 37, 41 and 50
116. The expression “so far as may be” in Section 44 indicates that:
a. Sections 41–43 apply only partially
b. Sections 41–43 override Chapter IV
c. Sections 41–43 apply with necessary modifications
d. Sections 41–43 apply only to arrests
117. Section 44 applies to offences punishable under:
a. Chapter VA
b. Chapter V
c. Chapter III
d. Chapter IV
118. Under Section 44, references to “narcotic drugs” in Sections 41–43 shall be construed as including:
a. Only cannabis plant
b. Only psychotropic substances
c. Only opium poppy
d. Coca plant, opium poppy and cannabis plant
119. Section 45 of the NDPS Act applies when:
a. Confiscation proceedings are complete
b. Goods are perishable
c. Goods are already seized
d. Seizure of goods liable to confiscation is not practicable
120. The term “goods” under Section 45 expressly includes:
a. Vehicles only
b. Standing crop
c. Manufactured drugs
d. Narcotic drugs only
121. Which officer is empowered to act under Section 45 of the NDPS Act?
a. Magistrate
b. Officer duly authorised under Section 42
c. Any police officer
d. Officer authorised under Section 41
122. When seizure is not practicable, the authorised officer may:
a. Destroy the goods
b. Refer the matter to the court
c. Seal the premises
d. Serve an order on the owner or person in possession
123. The order under Section 45 restrains the person from:
a. Using the goods
b. Inspecting the goods
c. Selling the goods only
d. Removing, parting with or otherwise dealing with the goods
124. The restriction imposed under Section 45 operates:
a. Absolutely and permanently
b. Only during investigation
c. Until confiscation proceedings conclude
d. Except with the previous permission of the authorised officer
125. Section 45 is an alternative to:
a. Search without warrant
b. Registration of FIR
c. Arrest of the accused
d. Physical seizure of goods
126. Section 46 of the NDPS Act imposes a duty upon:
a. Every tenant
b. Any police officer
c. Every holder of land
d. Any cultivator
127. The duty under Section 46 is to give information regarding:
a. Possession of narcotic drugs
b. Transportation of narcotics
c. Illegal cultivation of certain plants
d. Illegal manufacture of drugs
128. Which of the following plants are covered under Section 46?
a. Opium poppy only
b. All medicinal plants
c. Cannabis plant only
d. Opium poppy, cannabis plant and coca plant
129. The obligation under Section 46 arises when such plants are illegally cultivated:
a. On government land
b. Anywhere in the village
c. Within the land holder’s land
d. In forest areas
130. Information under Section 46 must be given to:
a. Only a Magistrate
b. Only a gazetted officer
c. Only a customs officer
d. Any officer of police or departments mentioned in Section 42
131. The information under Section 46 must be given:
a. After receipt of notice
b. Within 24 hours
c. After investigation
d. Immediately
132. Liability under Section 46 arises when the land holder:
a. Is unaware of cultivation
b. Does not cultivate himself
c. Fails to prevent cultivation
d. Knowingly neglects to give information
133. A land holder who knowingly neglects his duty under Section 46:
a. Is warned only
b. Faces confiscation of land automatically
c. Is liable only to fine
d. Is liable to punishment
134. Section 47 of the NDPS Act imposes a duty upon:
a. Only revenue officers
b. Only land holders
c. Only police officers
d. Certain officers and village authorities
135. Which of the following persons are expressly covered under Section 47?
a. Private informants
b. Magistrates and judges
c. Panch, Sarpanch and other village officers
d. Licensed cultivators
136. Apart from village officers, Section 47 also applies to:
a. Officers of NGOs
b. Officers of private companies
c. Defence advocates
d. Officers of the Government
137. The duty under Section 47 arises when such person:
a. Conducts a search
b. Receives a complaint
c. Suspects illegal cultivation
d. Comes to knowledge of illegal cultivation
138. Information under Section 47 must be given regarding illegal cultivation of:
a. Only cannabis plant
b. Any narcotic substance
c. Only opium poppy
d. Opium poppy, cannabis plant and coca plant
139. The illegal cultivation under Section 47 relates to:
a. Government land only
b. Agricultural land only
c. Forest land only
d. Any land
140. Information under Section 47 must be given to:
a. Only a gazetted officer
b. Any Magistrate
c. District Collector
d. Any officer of Police or departments mentioned in Section 42
141. The information under Section 47 is required to be given:
a. Within 48 hours
b. After written complaint
c. Within a reasonable time
d. Immediately
142. Section 48 of the NDPS Act deals with the power of:
a. Search and seizure
b. Arrest without warrant
c. Confiscation of property
d. Attachment of illegally cultivated crop
143. Which authority is empowered to order attachment under Section 48?
a. Only the Sessions Judge
b. Any police officer
c. Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate First Class
d. Any Executive Magistrate
144. Apart from Magistrates, who else may order attachment under Section 48?
a. Any village officer
b. Any police officer
c. Any revenue officer
d. Any officer of gazetted rank empowered under Section 42
145. The power under Section 48 can be exercised when the authority has:
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Written complaint only
c. Suspicion based on hearsay
d. Reason to believe
146. Section 48 applies to illegal cultivation of which of the following?
a. Only cannabis plant
b. Only opium poppy
c. Only coca plant
d. Opium poppy, cannabis plant and coca plant
147. While ordering attachment under Section 48, the authority may also:
a. Grant licence for cultivation
b. Impose fine
c. Pass orders including destruction of the crop
d. Order arrest of the cultivator
148. The power to destroy the crop under Section 48 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Automatic
c. Subject to prior court approval
d. Discretionary
149. Section 48 empowers attachment of crops that are:
a. Licensed but misused
b. Under suspicion of misuse
c. Declared illegal by court judgment
d. Reasonably believed to be illegally cultivated
150. The power under Section 49 of the NDPS Act may be exercised only by an officer who is:
a. Any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
b. Any gazetted officer of the Central Government
c. Any officer empowered under Section 53
d. An officer authorised under Section 42
151. The power under Section 49 can be exercised when the officer has reason to suspect that an animal or conveyance is being used for transport of:
a. Only narcotic drugs
b. Any contraband substance
c. Only narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
d. Narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances, or controlled substances
152. The suspicion under Section 49 must relate to which of the following stages of contravention of the NDPS Act?
a. Only future contravention
b. Only past contravention
c. Past, present, or imminent contravention
d. Only ongoing contravention
153. Which of the following actions is specifically authorised under clause (a) of Section 49?
a. Arrest of the driver or handler
b. Examination of documents relating to the goods
c. Seizure of the animal
d. Rummaging and searching the conveyance or any part thereof
154. Clause (b) of Section 49 empowers the officer to:
a. Search only sealed packages
b. Search goods only after recording reasons in writing
c. Examine and search any goods on the animal or in the conveyance
d. Search only goods declared in documents
155. In case of an aircraft suspected under Section 49, the officer is empowered to:
a. Search it only after obtaining court permission
b. Stop it only after landing
c. Track it and report to superior officers
d. Compel the aircraft to land