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Uttarakhand Judiciary Mock Test - 5
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UTTRAKHAND MOCK TEST-V
1. Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include: -
a. Arrest before judgement
b. Attachment before judgement
c. Temporary injunction
d. Appointment of executor
2. During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the representative of a party, such question must be determined by: -
a. The court which passed the decree
b. The court executing the decree
c. The appellate court
d. None of the above
3. The code of civil procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 come into force on
a. 1" April, 2002
b. 1 June, 2002
c. 1" July, 2002
d. 6th June, 2002
4. Under which Section/Order of the Civil Procedure Code a Provision is made to provide "free legal services to indigent persons"?
a. Section 151
b. Section 115
c. Order XXXIII, Rule 18
d. XXXIX, Rule 2
5. Under which Order of Civil Procedure Code Provision relating to "appointment of Receivers" has been provided?
a. Order XL, Rule 1
b. Order XXI, Rule 1
c. Order XI, Rule 1
d. Order XX, Rule 1
6. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of Civil Procedure Code, is
a. to record evidence.
b. to secure admissions.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. to elucidate the matter in controversy in the suit.
7. Section 75 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provides for-
a. Issuing Commission for getting opinion
b. Appointment of executors and administrators
c. Settlement of disputes outside the court
d. All of the above
8. On which one of the following grounds under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a warrant of arrest against a judgment debtor' may be cancelled by the court?
a. Serious illness
b. Appearance in marriage of his son
c. To cast vote in general elections
d. None of the above
9. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Judgment and decree - Section 34, C.P.C.
2. Costs - Section 35, C.P.C.
3. Institution of suits-Section 26, C.P.C.
4. Legal representative - Section 50, C.P.C.
Select correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
10. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Presentation of plaint- Section 26; Order 4, Rule 1
b. Equitable set off - order 20 rule 19 (3)
c. Interpleader suits Section 88; Order 35, Rule I
d. Friendly suit Section 90; Order 35
11. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided
a. Section 17 of Civil Procedure Code
b. Section 20 of Civil Procedure Code
c. Section 19 of Civil Procedure Code
d. Section 18 of Civil Procedure Code
12. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 an ex-parte decree can be set aside?
a. Order 9 Rule 7
b. Order 9 Rule 11
c. Order 9 Rule 13
d. Order 9 Rule 12
13. A court can return the plaint for presentation to the court in which the suit should have been instituted?
a. At the time of institution of suit
b. Before framing of issues
c. Before the trial begins
d. At any stage of the suit
14. Which one of the following is not a decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
a. Rejection, of a plaint for non-payment of court fee
b. Any order of dismissal for default.
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. None of the above
15. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908, which one of the properties cannot be attached in execution of a decree?
a. Books of Account
b. Land
c. Bank Notes
d. Cheques
16. It is a fundamental principle of pleadings that pleadings should contain a statement of material facts and material facts only. Which of the following case has defined material facts?
a. Udhav Singh V. Madhav Rao Scindia
b. A. R. Antulay V. R. S. Nayak
c. State of Haryana V. State of Punjab
d. State of Uttar Pradesh V. Nawab Hussain
17. Match list-1 with list-2 and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists –
List-1 List-2
A. Adjournment 1. Order 19 CPC
B. Execution of Decree and Orders 2. Order 17 CPC
C. Plaint 3. Order 21 CPC
D. Affidavit 4. Order 7 CPC CODE:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 2 3 1
18. Which of the following grounds is not appropriate ground for temporary injunction under the Code of Civil Procedure?
a. That any property in dispute is in danger of being wasted.
b. That the property in dispute is likely to be acquired by the government.
c. That the defendant threatens to dispose of his property.
d. None of these
19. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code provision relating to "Suit of a Civil nature" has been provided?
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
20. Provision regarding adjudication of Claims and Objection to attached property is
a. Order 21 Rule 58 CPC
b. Order 21 Rule 59 CPC
c. Order 21 Rule 57 CPC
d. None of the above
21. Which provision of BNS deals with “Abettor”?
a. Sec.45
b. Sec.46
c. Sec.47
d. Sec.48
22. Who all are not included under the term “Public Servant”?
a. MLA
b. Examiner of University
c. Surveyor of Insurance Company
d. All of the above
23. Which provision of BNS defines “valuable security”?
a. Sec.2(33)
b. Sec.2(32)
c. Sec.2(30)
d. ec.2(31)
24. What does the term “dishonestly” means under BNS, 2023?
a. Wrongful gain to one person
b. Wrongful loss to another person
c. Wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person
d. None of the above
25. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Gang rape”?
a. Sec.69
b. Sec.70
c. Sec.71
d. Sec.72
26. Where a woman is raped by one or more persons constituting a group or acting in furtherance of a common intention, each of those persons shall be deemed to have committed the offence of rape under BNS, 2023?
a. Shall not be less than six years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life
b. Shall not be less than ten years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life
c. Shall not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life
d. None of the above
27. What is the punishment for a man committing an act of making sexually coloured remarks under BNS, 2023?
a. Five year, or with fine, or with both
b. Ten year, or with fine, or with both
c. Two year, or with fine, or with both
d. One year, or with fine, or with both
28. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Voyeurism”?
a. Sec.77
b. Sec.76
c. Sec.78
d. Sec.79
29. Under Section 80 of the BNS, 2023, a woman’s death is termed as "dowry death" if the death occurs?
a. Within 6 years of marriage
b. Within 7 years of marriage
c. Within 2 years of marriage
d. Within 1 years of marriage
30. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Causing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicide”?
a. Sec.93
b. Sec.98
c. Sec.95
d. Sec.92
31. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. Here B may be guilty of no offence but What offence A has committed?
a. Culpable homicide
b. Murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. No offence
32. A, knowing that Z is labouring under such a disease that a blow is likely to cause his death, strikes him with the intention of causing bodily injury. Z dies in consequence of the blow. What offence A has committed?
a. A is guilty of Grievous hurt
b. A is guilty of Culpable homicide
c. A is guilty of murder
d. No offence
33. KM Nanavati vs State of Maharashtra (1962) is related to which exception of section 101 of BNS, 2023?
a. Exception 4
b. Exception 1
c. Exception 3
d. Exception 2
34. A' a carrier, is entrusted by 'Z' with property to be carried by land or by water. 'A' dishonestly misappropriates of property. A has committed the offence of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Cheating
c. Criminal breach of trust by carrier, etc.
d. Criminal misappropriation of property
35. A young man waves a currency note of rupees two thousand in front of a woman as if he offers the money for an indecent favor from the woman, he may be criminally booked under which section of IPC:
a. Section 509 IPC
b. Section 489-B IPC
c. Section 508 IPC
d. Section 354-B IPC
36. "A" incites a dog to spring upon "Z" without "Z" consent with intention to annoy "Z". Here "A" has committed the offence of: -
a. Defamation
b. Attempt to cause hurt
c. Criminal force
d. Assault
37. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code 1860, under: -
a. Section 354 D
b. Section 354 A
c. Section 354 C
d. Section 354 B
38. Under Section 65 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, sentence of imprisonment for non- payment of fine shall be limited to
a. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
b. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
c. one-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
d. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
39. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, rash or negligent driving of vehicle on public way is an offence?
a. Section 281
b. Section 279
c. Section 276
d. Section 280
40. Which of the following provisions of Indian Penal Code defines 'Making a false document"?
a. Section 467
b. Section 465
c. Section 463
d. Section 464
41. ‘A' who was entrusted by 'B' with certain blocks for printing a catalogue, prints catalogue of rival's firm with the same block. 'A' is guilty of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. Cheating
d. Theft
42. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 Lurking House Trespass has been defined?
a. Section 442
b. Section 441
c. Section 445
d. Section 443
43. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Causing death by negligence 1. Section 309 IPC
B. Dowry death 2. Section 306 IPC
C. Abetment to suicide 3. Section 304A IPC
D. Attempt to commit 4. Section 304B IPC
Code-
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 2 4 3
44. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with theft in a dwelling house, tent, or vessel?
a. Section 381
b. Section 380
c. Section 379
d. Section 388
45. A' meets 'B' on National Highway, shows him a pistol and demands B's purse. 'B' in consequence surrenders his purse. Which one of the following offences was committed by 'A'?
a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Dacoity
d. None of the above
46. Which Section of Indian Penal Code provides for punishment for attempt to commit suicide?
a. Section 310
b. Section 307
c. Section 308
d. Section 309
47. Whoever commits extortion by putting any person in fear of death or of grievous hurt to that person or to any other, he is punishable under which section of Indian Penal Code?
a. Section 386
b. Section 387
c. Section 388
d. Section 385
48. Which one is not essential element of theft?
a. Movable property
b. Possession of that property
c. Ownership of that property
d. Removal of that property
49. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, is based on "M' Naghten Rule"?
a. Section 86
b. Section 84
c. Section 85
d. Section 82
50. For what 'Govinda', the accused in the famous case of 'R V. Govinda' (1876) 1 Bombay 342, was punished?
a. Grievous hurt
b. Murder
c. Culpable homicide
d. He was acquitted
51. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is: -
a. to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
b. to define and amend the law of evidence
c. to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
d. to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
52. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMA LEX" is related to-
a. Section 120
b. Section 121
c. Section 122
d. Section 123
53. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with secondary evidence?
a. Section 62
b. Section 63
c. Section 64
d. Section 61
54. Evidence given by a witness, unable to communicate verbally in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be
a. Circumstantial evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Oral evidence
d. One of these
55. Which of the following documents is 'Public Document'?
a. only the documents forming records of the acts of sovereign authority.
b. only the documents forming records of the acts of official bodies.
c. only the public records kept in any state of private documents.
d. All of these
56. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, provisions for presumption as to gazettes in electronic form has been made?
a. Section 81 C
b. Section 81 A
c. Section 81 B
d. None of the above
57. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Evidence Act?
a. Section 45 - Opinions of experts
b. Section 67-A-Proof as to electronic signature
c. Section 74-Public documents
d. Section 119-Professional communication
58. All facts, except the contents of documents may be proved by
a. Secondary evidence
b. Oral evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Primary evidence
59. Which one of the following is not a case on Estoppel?
a. Pickard Vs. Seers
b. Sri Krishna Vs. Kurukshetra University
c. Palvinder Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
d. Sarat Chand Dey Vs. Gopal Chand Laha
60. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 73 of the Evidence Act was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
a. State of Bombay Vs. Kathikalu
b. Rattan Singh Vs. Himachal Pradesh
c. Kashmira Singh Vs. State of M.P.
d. None of the above
61. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act bad character of an accused is not relevant?
a. Section 54
b. Section 53
c. Section 52
d. Section 51
96. "The statement in order to constitute a 'Confession' under the Indian Evidence Act, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all the facts which constitute the offence."
The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which one of the following case?
a. H.H.B. Gill vs. King Emperor
b. Pakala Narayan Swamy vs. Emperor
c. Q.E. vs. Abdullah
d. John Makin vs. Attorney General
63. What does Section 127 of the BSA 2023 primarily protect?
a. Judges and Magistrates from civil suits
b. Judges and Magistrates from being compelled to testify about their judicial conduct or knowledge, unless ordered by a superior Court
c. Judges and Magistrates from criminal prosecution
d. Their right to equal pay
64.What does Section 129 of the BSA, 2023 primarily safeguard?
a. The confidentiality of unpublished official State records
b. The privacy of citizens’ medical records
c. Freedom of the press
d. The electoral rights of individuals
65. Who does Section 131 of BSA, 2023 protect from being compelled to disclose the timing of when they received information about an offence?
a. Only a police officer
b. Only a revenue officer
c. Only a Magistrate
d. Magistrates, police officers, and revenue officers
66. Under Section 134 of BSA, 2023 when can a person be compelled to disclose confidential communications with their legal adviser?
a. Always, when demanded by the court
b. Never, under any circumstances
c. Only if they offer themselves as a witness and the communication is necessary to explain their evidence
d. Only with the legal adviser’s permission
67.What does Section 34 of the BSA, 2023 deal with?
a. Relevance of expert opinions
b. Admissibility of electronic records
c. Burden of proof
d. Relevance of previous judgments that bar a second suit or trial
68.What does Section 38 of BSA 2023 allow a party to challenge?
a. A judgment delivered by an incompetent court or obtained by fraud or collusion
b. The authenticity of a document
c. A judgment based on hearsay
d. The credibility of a witness
69. Section 40 BSA states that facts which are not otherwise relevant—become relevant if they:
a. Explain the origin of expert evidence
b. Support or contradict expert opinions, when such opinions are relevant
c. Arise from hearsay
d. Are admitted by the parties
70. Which Section of the BSA, 2023 deals with Opinion as to existence of general custom or right, when relevant?
a. Section 45
b. Section 44
c. Section 43
d. Section 42
71. Res Gestae is allowed as an exception to:
a. Documentary evidence
b. Hearsay evidence
c. Dying declaration
d. Confession
72. A is accused of the murder of B. C says that B, when dying, declared that A had given B the wound of which he died. Evidence is offered to show that, on a previous occasion, C said that B, when dying, did not declare that A had given B the wound of which he died.
a. The evidence is not admissible.
b. The evidence is admissible.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
73. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecution for rape?
a. Section 120
b. Section 121
c. Section 119
d. Section 118
74. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Repeal and Savings?
a. Section 198
b. Section 169
c. Section 171
d. Section 170
75. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Exclusion of evidence of oral agreement?
a. Section 94
b. Section 95
c. Section 96
d. Section 92
76. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Exclusion of evidence to explain or amend ambiguous document?
a. section 95
b. section 98
c. section 97
d. section 96
77. Choose the correct option under the Indian Evidence Act.
a. Private document - Section 75
b. Judicial notice - Section 87
c. Admission - Section 48
d. Accomplice - Section 132
78. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Conduct
b. Motive
c. Intention
d. Preparation
79. The form of Dying Declaration is
a. must be orally spoken only
b. must be in writing only
c. Material
d. Immaterial
80. Section 26 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Admissions in civil cases when relevant.
b. Confession to police officer.
c. Confession caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise, when irrelevant in criminal proceeding.
d. Cases in Which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found, etc., is relevant.
81. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?
a. Under section 161
b. Under section 133
c. Under section 151
d. Under section 107
82. An order passed by a Magistrate under section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is appealable to: -
a. Session Judge
b. District Magistrate
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court
83. Which 'form' mentioned in the Second Schedule of Cr. P.C. is related with 'Charge'?
a. Form 31
b. Form 32
c. Form 33
d. Form 34
84. A Magistrate empowered under Section 190 of Cr. P.C. may order an investigation by police in a cog nizable offence.
This is provided under which of the following sections of Cr. P.C.?
a. Section 151 (3)
b. Section 154 (3)
c. Section 155 (3)
d. Section 156 (3)
85. Match list 1- with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Contents of charge 1. Section 395 Cr.P.C.
B. Judgment 2. Section 25 Cr.P.C.
C. Assistant Public Prosecutor 3. Section 353 Cr.P.C.
D. Reference to High Court 4. Section 211 Cr.P.C.
Code-
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 4 3 2 1
86. Assertion (A): Inquiry precedes trial. Reason
(R): Trial is the third stage of criminal proceeding.
a. and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. and (R) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. is true but (R) is false
d. is false but (R) is true
87. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Anticipatory Bail 1. Section 272 Cr.P.C.
B. Cognizance on complaint 2. Section 110 Cr.P.C.
C. Language of Court 3. Section 438 Cr.P.C.
D. Security of good behavior from
habitual offender 4. Section 190 Cr.P.C.
CODE:
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 2 3 1
88. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may require under section 166A of the code of Criminal Procedure to issue a
a. Search Warrant
b. Letter of request
c. Letter of requisition
d. Written order
89. Assertion (A): Where an accused person has pleaded guilty and has been convicted on such plea, there shall be no appeal.
Reason (R): A person who deliberately pleads guilty cannot be aggrieved by being convicted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
d. (A) is False, but (R) is True.
90. With reference to the "Charge" which of the statement is/are correct?
1.Every charge under the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 states the offences with which the accused may be charged.
2. If in the course of same transaction, more offences than one are committed by the same person, he can be charged at one trial.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
a. 1-only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
91. Match list-1 with the list- 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Duty to register FIR 1. Rajinder Singh Katoch vs. Chandigarh Administration and others
B. Laches in investigation 2. Krishnegowda vs. State of Karnataka
C. Faulty investigation 3. Saidu Mohammed vs. State of Kerala
D. Delay in examinationof witnesses 4. Surjit Sarkar vs. State of West Bengal
Code-
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 3 4
92. Arrange the following in the chronological order on the basis of Sections of Criminal Procedure Code-
I- Public prosecutorII-Special Metropolitan Magistrate
III-Special Judicial Magistrate
IV-Court of Session
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
Code
a. I, II, III and IV
b. IV, III, II and I
c. III, IV, II and I
d. I, IV, III and II
93. Where is the procedure provided under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, when corporation or registered society is an accused?
a. Section 305
b. Section 306
c. Section 307
d. Section 308
94. Which Section of Cr. P.C. provides that no court shall alter the judgment after it has been signed?
a. Section 368
b. Section 364
c. Section 363
d. Section 362
95. If a judge dies after writing his judgment but before delivering in open court, then the judgment shall be considered as
a. Only a dying declaration
b. Judgment of the court
c. Opinion of the judge
d. None of these
96. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code are covered under Section 95 of the Cr. P.C.?
a. Section 124 A only
b. Section 153 A and S. 153 B only
c. Section 292, 293 and 295 A only
d. All of these
97. Which of the following is not an essential procedural requirement of section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 namely: -
a. Warning to the accused
b. Confession to be made voluntarily
c. Recording of statement in presence of advocate of the accused
d. Memorandum at the foot of confession
98. In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused on sentence is not necessary: -
a. In trial of summon case
b. In Session Trial
c. In trial of warrant case
d. In all of the above
99. Which Section of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 govern the procedure in warrant cases instituted on police reports?
a. Section 238 to 243
b. Section 252 to 263
c. Section 138 to 143
d. None of the above
100. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Trial for more than one offence?
a. Section 240
b. Section 241
c. Section 242
d. Section 243
101. Which Magistrate shall have the power to try offences as summary trial under section 283 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Magistrate of the first class
b. any Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Magistrate of the second class
d. Both a and b
102. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Power to examine accused?
a. Section 352
b. Section 351
c. Section 350
d. Section 354
103. Under Section 367 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, if a Magistrate believes an accused is of unsound mind and incapable of making their defense, what is the first step they must take?
a. Dismiss the case.
b. Immediately order the accused to be sent to a mental asylum.
c. Order the accused's arrest and detention.
d. Inquire into the fact of unsoundness of mind and have the accused medically examined.
104. According to Section 376 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, what is the procedure when a prisoner, previously declared of unsound mind, is later certified as capable of making their defence?
a. The prisoner is immediately released.
b. The prisoner is taken before the Magistrate or Court for further proceedings under section 371.
c. The prisoner is retried for the original offense.
d. The case is dismissed.
105. When any person is sentenced to death, the sentence shall direct that he be?
a. Convicted
b. Acquitted
c. hanged by the neck till he is dead
d. None of the above
106. Section 397 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with
a. Treatment of victims.
b. Witness protection scheme.
c. Victim compensation scheme.
d. Compensation to persons groundlessly arrested
107. Which Section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with When the accused is sentenced to imprisonment, a copy of the judgment shall, immediately after the pronouncement of the judgment, be given to him free of cost?
a. Section 407
b. Section 406
c. Section 404
d. Section 405
108. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the place in which any Criminal Court is held for the purpose of inquiring into or trying any offence shall be deemed to be an open Court?
a. Section 360
b. Section 364
c. Section 366
d. Section 367
109. Who may, with the consent of the Court, at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person?
a. The Public Prosecutor
b. Assistant Public Prosecutor
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
110. Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Compounding of offences?
a. Section 359
b. Section 358
c. Section 357
d. Section 356
111. Which one of the following principles under the Transfer Of Property Act, 1882 is laid down in the case of Rajesh Kant Roy vs. Shanti Debi?
a. Principles of Part Performance
b. Principles of Lis Pendens
c. Principles of Vested interest
d. Principles of Contingent interest
112. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below-
List-1 List-2
A. Doctrine of Subrogation 1. Section 17 TPA
B. Doctrine of Consolidation 2. Section 52 TPA
C. Doctrine of Accumulation 3. Section 61 TPA
D. Doctrine of Lis pendens 4. Section 92 TPA
Code-
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 2 1 4
113. Legal terminology Res Nullius' is used for
a. Property of certain person
b. Property of corporation
c. Ownerless property
d. None of the above
114. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
a. Oral transfer-Section 9 of TPA
b. What may be transferred - Section 6 of TPA
c. Joint transfer for consideration - Section 45 of TPA
d. Vested interest-Section 21 of TPA
115. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists –
List-1 List-2
A. Holding over 1. Mortgage
B. Universal donee 2. Gift
C. Redemption 3. Lease
D. Purchases 4. Sale
Code-
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 1 4 3 2
116. Right to fore-closure or sale has been provided in which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. Section 61
b. Section 62
c. Section 68
d. Section 67
117. A transfer a farm to B for his life with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. What will be effect of his life Interest of farm?
a. Secures
b. Loses
c. Conditional loss
d. Conditional secure
118. "A vested Interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession" is provided in which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. Section 19
b. Section 20
c. Section 21
d. Section 18
119. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazara is related to
a. Doctrine of election
b. Doctrine of part performance
c. Transfer by unauthorised person
d. Ostensible owner
120. Where the principal money secured is one hundred rupees or upwards, a mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of the deed can be effected only by
a. Registered instrument
b. Signed by the mortgager
c. Attested by at least two witnesses
d. All of the above
121. Which one of the following Section of Transfer of Property Act relates to 'oral transfer'?
a. Section 9
b. Section 8
c. Section 7
d. Section 10
122. Under which of the following conditions, Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable?
a. Where the transfer is by the way of Lease.
b. Where the transfer is by the way of exchange.
c. Where the transfer is by the way of gift.
d. Where the transfer is by the way of sale.
123. Which one of the following is not the essential element of sale?
a. Seller
b. buyer
c. Transfer of ownership
d. Without consideration
124. In which one of the following cases It was held that partition is not a transfer of property?
a. V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar AIR 1986 SC 432
b. Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi AIR 2009 NOC 3009
c. Abdul Jabbar v. Venkata Shastri AIR 1969 SC 1147
d. None of the above
125. In which one of the following cases it was held that surrender by tenant is not transfer?
a. Bachchu Vs. Harbansh
b. Sharada Devi Vs. Chandwala
c. Makhan lal Saha Vs. N.N. Adhikari
d. None of these
126. A right of divorce by "Lian" is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife: -
a. of re-embracing her initial faith
b. of cruelty
c. f conversion to other faith
d. of adultery
127. How much time of abstinence is required in "IIa form" to enforce dissolution of marriage under Muslim Law: -
a. 3 months
b. 5 months
c. 6 months
d. 4 months
128. Govind Dayal V. Inayatullah is a leading case on which of the followings?
a. Pre-emption
b. Guardianship
c. Wills
d. Wakf
129. A Sunni Muslim marries a Kitabya girl, the marriage is
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Irregular
d. None of the above
130. The Rule of 'Rateable Abatement' applies in
a. Wasiyat
b. Hiba
c. Sadqa
d. Ariat
131. Under Muslim law, dower (Mahr) is:
a. An optional gift from the husband to the wife.
b. An essential incidence of marriage and a mark of respect to the wife.
c. A debt owed by the wife to the husband.
d. A form of divorce.
132. Under Muslim law, a marriage prohibited by affinity is:
a. Valid.
b. Irregular.
c. Voidable.
d. Void.
133. Under Shia law, the maximum period of gestation considered valid for a child to be considered the legitimate offspring of a deceased testator is:
a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 10 months.
134. A marriage between a Muslim man and a woman who is an idolater is considered:
a. Valid under all schools of Muslim law.
b. Irregular under all schools of Muslim law.
c. Voidable under all schools of Muslim law.
d. Void under all schools of Muslim law.
135. What is the concept of Hizanat in Muslim Law?
a. The right to divorce.
b. The right to inheritance.
c. The right to marry.
d. The right to guardianship of a minor child.
136. Under Muslim Law, when does the right to inherit property arise?
a. At the time of execution of a will
b. After the death of the person whose property is to be inherited
c. At the time of birth
d. At the time of marriage
137. Under Muslim Law, who are considered "Sharers" in inheritance?
a. Those who inherit based on the will of the deceased.
b. Those who inherit based on custom and usage
c. Those who inherit based on proximity of relationship.
d. Those who inherit fixed portions as specified in the Quran.
138. The Provision for 'maintenance pendente lite' in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is given in
a. Section 24
b. Section 25
c. Section 23
d. Section 22
139. Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act define 'Sapinda Relationship'?
a. Section 2(f)
b. Section 3(f)
c. Section 3(g)
d. Section 2(g)
140. In which Section of Hindu Marriage Act grounds of Divorce are provided?
a. Section 11
b. Section 14
c. Section 13
d. Section 12
141. "No petition of divorce can be presented within one year of marriage." It is provided in which following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act?
a. Under Section 15
b. Under Section 12
c. Under Section 14
d. Under Section 13
142. Under the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, who can be a coparcener in a Mitakshara joint Hindu family?
a. Only the eldest male member of the family.
b. Only males born into the family.
c. Any legal heir of the deceased male member.
d. Both sons and daughters of a coparcener.
143. What is the primary effect of a Hindu widow remarrying on her inheritance rights from her deceased husband's estate?
a. She loses all rights to his property.
b. She loses her right to maintenance but not inheritance.
c. Her rights are unaffected.
d. Her rights are suspended until she is widowed again.
144. According to Hindu law, what is the status of an adoption made by a Hindu male without the consent of his living wife?
a. Valid if adopted in good faith.
b. Valid if the child is a minor.
c. Invalid.
d. Valid if the wife is incapable of giving consent.
145. In a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), who is considered the Karta?
a. The member with the largest share in the property.
b. Any adult member of the family.
c. The eldest male member.
d. The eldest female member.
146. What is the meaning of "maintenance pendente lite" under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
a. Maintenance awarded after the divorce proceedings.
b. Maintenance awarded during the pendency of divorce proceedings.
c. Maintenance awarded to the wife after the husband's death
d. Maintenance awarded to the children of the marriage.
147. Which of the following properties is not considered ancestral property under Hindu law?
a. Property inherited from the father
b. Property gifted by the maternal grandfather
c. Property inherited from great-grandfather
d. Property inherited from grandfather without partition
148. A Hindu woman's absolute ownership of property is recognized under:
a. Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
b. Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
c. Section 25 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
d. Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
149. A person can become a Hindu:
a. By conversion
b. By reconversion
c. By both (a) and (b)
d. By neither (a) nor (b)
150. Under Hindu Law, what is the meaning of “uterine blood" in the context of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
a. Descendants from a common ancestor but by different wives
b. Descendants from a common ancestor by the same wife and by half blood
c. Descendants from a common ancestor by the same wife
d. Descendants from a common ancestor by different husbands
151. Who is the author of the book 'Mudrarakshas'?
a. Kalidas
b. Vishakhadatta
c. Banabhatta
d. Jaydev
152. Stockholm Conference on 'Human Environment' was held in the year
a. 1972
b. 1982
c. 1965
d. 1945
153. "Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principle of Law." This statement is of
a. Prof. Allen
b. EW. Patterson
c. H.LA. Hart
d. Keeton
154. The supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Defence Minister
d. Army chief
155. In which of the following cases it was held that the preamble to the Constitution is an integral and operative part of the constitution?
a. Minerva Mills case
b. Re Berubari's case
c. Golaknath V. State of Punjab
d. Keshavanand Bharti V. State of Kerala
156. The term of the judges of the "International Court of Justice' is
a. 9 years
b. 7 years
c. Not fixed
d. 5 years
157. The headquarter of the "World Intellectual Property Organisation" is located in:
a. Madrid
b. Geneva
c. Paris
d. New York
158. The maximum age limit for election to the President of India is
a. 65 years
b. 70 years
c. 62 years
d. No age limit
159. "Panchayati Raj” was introduced in India in the year
a. 1958
b. 1959
c. 1957
d. 1956
160. Justice Dalveer Bhandari has a re-elected term as Justice in the International Court of Justice for a term of
a. 2017-2026
b. 2018-2027
c. 2019-2028
d. 2020-2029
161. Who among the following heads the National Integration Council of India?
a. President
b. Vice President
c. Prime Minister
d. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
162. Which of the following is the oldest High Court in India?
a. High Court of Madras
b. High Court of Allahabad
c. High Court of Calcutta
d. High Court of Delhi
163. The World Health Organization (WHO) was officially constituted in
a. 1941
b. 1942
c. 1945
d. 1948
164. Union Public Service Commission Members have tenure of office for
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Six years
165. Which of the following State Legislatures has one house?
a. Bihar
b. Karnataka
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Maharashtra
166. Which of the following is not a specialised agency of the United Nations?
a. UNESCO
b. International Labour Organisation
c. International Criminal Court (ICC)
d. All the above
167. Which of the following can enforce the judgement of the International Court of Justice?
a. General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
b. Secretary General
c. Security Council on the request of the International Court of Justice
d. None of the above
168. Who among the following was hanged by the British Government in regard to the 'Kakori Conspiracy"?
a. Bhagat Singh
b. Chandra Shekhar Azad
c. Batukeshwar Dutt
d. Ram Prasad Bismil
169. Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests in:-
a. Parliament
b. Vice-President
c. Governor
d. None of the above
170. What is the name of the new immigration initiative introduced by US president in February 2025?
a. Gold Card
b. Elite Green Card
c. Platinum Visa
d. Investor Plus
171. Which organization has launched the Victims of Terrorism Advocacy Network (VoTAN) initiative?
a. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
b. United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
c. United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT)
d. United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
172. Which country has passed the first major national cryptocurrency law, called the Genius Act, in July 2025?
a. Germany
b. France
c. United States
d. India
173. Which country has officially become the 107th member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in August 2025?
a. Russia
b. Moldova
c. China
d. South Africa
174. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has declared which year as the International Year of the Woman Farmer?
a. 2027
b. 2025
c. 2028
d. 2026
175. Which country has officially joined BRICS as a partner country in June 2025?
a. Vietnam
b. Indonesia
c. Tazikistan
d. Rwanda
176. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared which day as World Meditation Day?
a. December 22
b. December 21
c. December 28
d. December 20
177. World Day for International Justice is observed every year on which day?
a. 11 July
b. 12 July
c. 16 July
d. 17 July
178. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025?
a. Mukundakam Sharma
b. Jatindra Prasad Das
c. Dinesh Maheshwari
d. Hrishikesh Roy
179. President Draupadi Murmu was awarded City Key of Honor in which European city?
a. Rome, Italy
b. Lisbon, Portugal
c. Vienna, Austria
d. Madrid, Spain
180. Which Fundamental Right was declared by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?
a. Right to Freedom
b. Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32
c. Right to Life
d. Right to Equality
181. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations Organization performs Legislative functions?
a. The Trusteeship Council
b. The Security Council
c. The General Assembly
d. The Economic and Social Council
182. Which one of the following mentions that "Everyone has the Right to a Nationality"?
a. Geneva Convention, 1951
b. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
c. European Council on Refugees and Exiles
d. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
183. Who has said, "We are a World in Pieces, We. need to be a World at Peace" –
a. Kofi Annan
b. Bon Ki Moon
c. Antonio Guterres
d. Michelle Bachelet
184. "Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and divine; the science of just and unjust."
This statement is of
a. Ulpain
b. Savigny
c. Keeton
d. Austin
185. "Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents."
This observation specifically relates to
a. Stammler
b. Del Vicchio
c. Finnis
d. Dabin
186. "Legal order is a pyramid of norms" is the statement of
a. Austin
b. Kelsen
c. Salmond
d. Fuller
187. Who has described international law as "positive international morality"?
a. Halland
b. Austin
c. Stark
d. Oppenheim
188. Right to Life' under Article 21 of the Constitution does not Include 'right to die' has been held by Supreme Court In
a. P. Rathinam vs Union of India
b. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
c. State of Maharasthra v. Maruti Sripati Dubal
d. All of the above
189. "Law grows with the nation, Increases with It, and dies with its dissolution and it is a characteristic or it." It is said by
a. Buckland
b. Henry Maine
c. Salmond
d. Savigny
190. The Headquarter of the "World Intellectual Property Organization” is located in
a. Paris
b. Madrid
c. Geneva
d. New York
191. Which Article of Constitution provides for establishment of 'Goods and Services Tax Council'?
a. Article 269A
b. Article 270
c. Article 279
d. Article 279A
192. What is the IUCN status of “Red Panda” that was recently seen in news?
a. Endangered
b. Critically Endangered
c. Vulnerable
d. Least Concern
193. Which organisation has reclassified the Hepatitis D virus (HDV) as carcinogenic to humans?
a. World Health Organization
b. United States Department of Health and Human Services
c. United Nations Development Programme
d. Doctors Without Borders
194. Which vein brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart?
a. Vena Cava
b. Pulmonary Vein
c. Hepatic Vein
d. Renal Vein
195. What is the minimum age to qualify for Lok Sabha Elections?
a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d.40 years
196. The Uttar Pradesh government has recently implemented ‘Operation Eleven’ in which city?
a. Prayagraj
b. Ayodhya
c. Varanasi
d. Gorakhpur
197. The "Contempt of Court" law in India primarily aims to:
a. Protect the dignity of the judiciary.
b. Punish those who disrespect the Parliament.
c. Ensure fair trial for all citizens.
d. Safeguard the rights of the accused.
198. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
a. One Nation, One Tax
b. Destination-based taxation
c. Dual GST (Central and State)
d. Exemption for all agricultural products
199. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was established under which Act?
a. The Advocates Act, 1961
b. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
c. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
200. What is the term of office for a member of the Rajya Sabha?
a. 5 years
b. 4 years
c. 6 years
d. There is no fixed term