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Uttarakhand Judiciary Mock Test - 1

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UTTARAKHAND MOCK TEST-I

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1. Which of the following orders under the CPC deals with the "Inspection of Documents"?

a. Order 14

b. Order 11

c. Order 12

d. Order 10

2. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 copy of plaint

a. Shall be attached with every summons.

b. Is not necessary to attach with every summons

c. May be attached with the summons when court permits.

d. Is attached with summons on the request of the plaintiff.

3. Under Order XXXVIII, Rule 5 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, attachment before judgement can be in respect of

a. Immovable property

b. Movable property

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Attachment cannot be made before judgement

4. Which section of the C.P.C. prohibits arrest or detention of woman in the execution of a decree of money?

a. Section 55

b. Section 56

c. Section 59

d. Section 60

5. Which of the following is/are the fundamental rules of pleading as set forth under order 6, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Every pleading must state facts and not law only.

b. It must state material facts only.

c. It must state such facts in a concise form only.

d. All of these

6. Which section of CPC deals with -Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance, is the essence

a. Section 21-A

b. Section 21

c. Section 20

d. Section 22

7. Under which one of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure "rejection of plaint" has been mentioned?

a. Order VIII Rule 4

b. Order VII Rule 12

c. Order VI Rule 13

d. Order VII Rule 11

8. Which of the following deals with the exemption of members of legislative bodies from arrest and detention under the Code of Civil Procedure:

a. Section 139 B

b. Section 132 A

c. Section 135 A

d. Section 140 A

9. Which of the following judgements of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of Res-judicata in writ petitions?

a. Dhula Bhai Vs. State of M.P.

b. Daryao Vs. State of U.P.

c. Premier Automobile Vs. Kamlakar

d. L.L.C. Vs. India Automobiles & Company

10. ‘Judgment' means

a. Part of the decree

b. Statement of judges on the grounds of a decree or order

c. Adjudication of rights

d. None of these

11. Who amongst the following may sue for public nuisance and other wrongful acts affecting the public?

a. The Advocate General only

b. With the leave of the court by two or more persons only

c. Anybody who is affected by it

d. (a) and (b) both

12. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code term 'Mesne Profits' has been defined?

a. Section 2(4)

b. Section 2(8)

c. Section 2(12)

d. Section 2(14)

13. Under which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure "Inherent powers of the Court" has been provided?

a. Section 151

b. Section 141

c. Section 152

d. Section 153

14. "Guardian ad litem" used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means: -

a. A local commissioner

b. A court

c. A person defending a suit on behalf of an insane person

d. A person defending a suit on behalf of a minor

15. “Res sub Judice” means:

a. Stay of Appeal

b. Stay of Suit

c. Stay of Application

d. Stay of Execution

16. Provisions of Section 80 of the code of civil procedure are:

a. Mandatory

b. Directory

c. Discretionary

d. None of these

17. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 embraces the principle of restitutions?

a. Section 134

b. Section 144

c. Section 148A

d. Section 151

18. Under Section 26 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, in every plaint, facts should be proved by

a. Affidavit

b. oral evidence

c. Document

d. examination of plaintiff

19. 'Decree' under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been defined in its:

a. Section 2(1)

b. Section 2(a)

c. Section 2(2)

d. Section 2(b)

20. 'Prison' as defined in Order 16A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 Includes

a. Any place which has been declared by the Government, by General or Special Order, to be subsidiary jail

b. Any reformatory, borstal institution or other institution of a like nature.

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. Only (A) is correct

21. Which provision of BNS deals with “Trespassing on burial places, etc.”?

a. Sec.305

b. Sec.300

c. Sec.302

d. Sec.301

22. Which provision of BNS deals with “Defamation”?

a. Sec.354

b. Sec.355

c. Sec.357

d. Sec.356

23. How many total chapters are there in BNS, 2023?

a. CHAPTER XXII

b. CHAPTER IX

c. CHAPTER XX

d. CHAPTER XXI

24. Under Section 351 of BNS, 2023, the term “injury” includes?

a. To reputation

b. To property

c. To person

d. All of the above

25. Which provision of BNS deal with “Forgery of record of Court or of public register, etc.”?

a. Sec.332

b. Sec.335

c. Sec.337

d. Sec.338

26. What is the punishment whoever commits house-trespass under section 329 of BNS, 2023?

a. Two year, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees

b. One year, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees

c. Five year, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees

d. Ten year, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees

27. Which provision of BNS deals with “General Explanations”?

a. Sec.3

b. Sec.4

c. Sec.5

d. Sec.2

28. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Punishments”?

a. Sec.7

b. Sec.5

c. Sec.2

d. Sec.4

29. Which chapters of BNS are covered where punishment is to be enhanced for certain offences after previous conviction?

a. Chapter X or Chapter XV

b. Chapter X or Chapter XVII

c. Chapter X or Chapter XVIII

d. Chapter IX or Chapter XVII

30. Which provision of BNS provides “Act of a child under seven years of age”?

a. Sec.22

b. Sec.24

c. Sec.20

d. Sec.21

31. The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following offences: -

a. Rape

b. Kidnapping

c. Gratifying un-natural lust

d. Causing miscarriage

32. The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent its production as an evidence is punishable under Indian Panel Code 1860 under-

a. Section 201

b. Section 202

c. Section 204

d. Section 203

33. Section 195-A of Indian Penal Code is related to:

a. Punishment for false evidence

b. Threat to give false evidence

c. Using evidence known to be false

d. Issuing or signing false certificate

34. The punishment for attempting to commit offence punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment is provided in

a. Under Section 509 IPC

b. Under Section 511 IPC

c. Under Section 510 IPC

d. Under Section 507 IPC

35. 'A' causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to 'Z', intending to cause damage to Z's crops. 'A' committed the offence of:

a. Cheating

b. Mischief

c. Dishonest misappropriation of property

d. None of these

36. Under which Section of I.P.C. a hangman who hangs criminals in pursuant to the order of Judge under I.P.C. is exempted from criminal liability?

a. Section 76

b. Section 77

c. Section 79

d. None of the above

37. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

a. Section 124A IPC-Criminal conspiracy

b. Section 340 IPC-Wrongful confinement

c. Section 350 IPC-Rape

d. Section 354C IPC-Stalking

38. 'A', a police officer tortures 'Z' in order to induce 'Z' to confess that he committed a crime. 'A' is guilty of an offence under

a. Section 325 of the Indian Penal Code.

b. Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code

c. Section 330 of the Indian Penal Code

d. Section 331 of the Indian Penal Code.

39. In which case, the Supreme Court unanimously ruled that individual autonomy and intimacy and identity are protected under fundamental rights?

a. Navtej Singh Johar V. Union of India

b. Suresh Kumar Kaushal V. Naz foundation

c. Castle Rock V. Gonzales

d. None of the above

40. The offence of 'attempt to commit culpable homicide' is punishable under which of the following Section of IPC?

a. Section 304

b. Section 307

c. Section 308

d. Section 310

41. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity: -

a. Time

b. Property

c. Number

d. Place

42. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony has been dealt with?

a. Section 153

b. Section 153A

c. Section 153AA

d. Section 153B

43. Which Explanation of section 108 of IPC deals with the abetment of the illegal omission of an act may amount to an offence although the abettor may not himself be bound to do that act?

a. Explanation 1

b. Explanation 2

c. Explanation 3

d. None of the above

44. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code 1860: -

a. Section 354 D

b. Section 376 E

c. Section 229

d. Section 228 A

45. Section 300 of the IPC defines murder. Which of the following is NOT an essential ingredient of murder as defined in that section?

a. Intention to cause death.

b. Knowledge that the act is likely to cause death.

c. Intention to cause such bodily injury as is likely to cause death.

d. The act is done under the influence of extreme anger.

46. Which Section of Indian Penal Code defines 'cruelty'?

a. Section 304-B

b. Section 356

c. Section 376-A

d. Section 498-A

47. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines the word 'Act'?

a. Section 24

b. Section 23

c. Section 33

d. Section 32

48. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 - the defence of 'Consent' is not available in cases of

a. Consent to cause death

b. Consent to cause grievous hurt

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. None of the above

49. The Cardinal Principle of Criminal Law "Nullum Crimen Nulla Poena Sine Lege' means-a. No crime of punishment can exist without pre-existing Criminal Law

b. A man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty

c. Ignorance of law is not excused

d. Ignorance of fact is excused

50. The expression "unsoundness of mind"-

a. Is not defined in I.P.C.

b. Is defined in I.P.C.

c. Is not treated as equivalent to insanity

d. Is not general exception in I.P.C.

51. Match list-1with list-2 and select the correct answerusing the code given below the lists

List-1 List-2
A. Electronic Records 1. Section 47A Indian Evidence Act
B. Opinion as to digital signature 2. Section 88A Indian Evidence Act
C. Proof as to digital signature 3. Section 22A Indian Evidence Act
D. Presumption as to digital messages 4. Section 67A Indian Evidence Act
Code…

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 3 1 2 4

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 4 1 2 3

52. In which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provision as to refresh memory has been given

a. Section 156

b. Section 157

c. Section 158

d. Section 159

53. Which one of the following is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for relevancy?

a. Intention

b. Motive

c. Preparation

d. Conduct

54. Palvinder Kaur V. State of Punjab relates to which of the following?

a. Dying declaration

b. Confession

c. Relevancy of Judgements

d. Entries in the books of account

55. A is tried for murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder him-

a. Is relevant.

b. Is irrelevant.

c. Is relevant but cannot be proved

d. None of the above

56. Even a student may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, it was held by the Apex Court in-

a. Bhoginbhai Hirbhai V. State of Gujarat

b. Kanpur University V. Samir Gupta and other.

c. Ram Prakash V. State of Punjab

d. Nathu Singh V. State of U.P

57. Which special provisions regarding proving of records have been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act by Information Technology Act, 2000?

a. Section 56 - A and 56 - B

b. Section 65 - A and 65 - B

c. Section 55-A and 55 - B

d. Section 35 - A and 35 – B

58. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act admissibility of Evidence shall be decided by the Judge?

a. Section 139

b. Section 138

c. Section 137

d. Section 136

59. The question is, whether 'A' committed a crime at Lucknow on certain day. The fact that, on that day 'A' was at Delhi, is a relevant fact under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

a. Section 12

b. Section 11

c. Section 10

d. Section 13

60. Which of the following is not a public document under the Indian Evidence Act?

a. Judgement of the Court

b. Arrest Warrant

c. Will

d. Affidavit

61. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act lays down the rule that in certain circumstances admission can be proved by or on behalf of the person making it?

a. Section 21

b. Section 20

c. Section 22

d. Section 25

62. The principle that 'possession is prima facie proof of ownership' is contained under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

a. Section 114

b. Section 112

c. Section 110

d. Section 111

63. Under Section 9 of BSA, 2023 a fact not otherwise relevant becomes relevant if:

a. It is consistent with any fact in issue

b. It is inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact

c. It is recorded in official documents

d. It is admitted by both parties

64. What does Section 8 of the BSA, 2023 pertain to?

a. Statements made by witnesses in the ordinary course of business.

b. Acts and statements by a conspirator relating to a common design.

c. Documents proving public records.

d. Admissions made under special circumstances.

65. Section 54 of the BSA, 2023 states that:

a. All facts, including contents of documents, may be proved by oral evidence

b. No facts may be proved by oral evidence

c. Only documentary evidence is permissible for proving facts.

d. All facts, except the contents of documents, may be proved by oral evidence.

66. Which chapter of BSA, 2023 deals with “DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE”?

a. CHAPTER VI

b. CHAPTER V

c. CHAPTER IV

d. CHAPTER VII

67. Where an electronic or digital record is stored in multiple storage spaces in a computer resource, each such automated storage, including temporary files, is?

a. Primary evidence

b. Secondary evidence

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

68. Secondary evidence under section 58 of BSA, 2023 includes

a. Copies made from or compared with the original

b. Written admissions

c. Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it

d. All of the above

69. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with the ‘Electronic or digital record’?

a. Section 41

b. Section 51

c. Section 61

d. Section 31

70. According to Section 74(1) of BSA, which of the following is considered a public document?

a. A private will drafted by an individual

b. A government-issued birth certificate

c. A handwritten note between friends

d. A private employment contract

71. What does Section 65 of the BSA, 2023 require?

a. That handwriting must be signed under oath.

b. That the signature or handwriting of the relevant part of a document must be proven to belong to the claimed person.

c. That all documents must have at least one attesting witness.

d. That the documents without signature are invalid.

72. What is the main presumption established under Section 82 of the BSA, 2023?

a. All maps in legal proceedings are presumed accurate.

b. All documentary evidence is presumed accurate.

c. Maps or plans made by private parties are presumed accurate.

d. Maps or plans made by the Central or State Government are presumed accurate.

73. Section 93 of the BSA, 2023 pertains to:

a. Presumption as to documents 30 years old

b. Presumption as to electronic records five years old

c. Exclusion of oral evidence by documentary evidence

d. Relevancy of facts in issue

74. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Presumption as to certified copies of foreign judicial records?

a. Section 88

b. Section 89

c. Section 87

d. Section 86

75. Under section 77 of BSA, 2023 An Act or notification of the Central Government can be proved by

a. Testimony of any government official

b. A photocopy of the Gazette

c. Newspaper reports

d. Department records certified by the head of department

76. What does Section 71 of the BSA, 2023 state?

a. An attested document not required by law to be attested may be proved as if it was unattested.

b. Attestation is mandatory for all documents to be proved.

c. Only attested documents may be admitted in evidence.

d. An attested document must always be treated as conclusive evidence.

77. Section 72 of the BSA, 2023 allows the court to compare a signature, writing, or seal with another sample even if that sample:

a. Was never shown in court

b. Is not proven to be genuine

c. Was admitted or proved to the court as belonging to that person

d. Is only electronic in nature

78. Under Section 63(1) of BSA, which of the following best describes when an electronic record may be deemed a “document” and admissible in court?

a. Only if the electronic record is printed on paper and signed by the author

b. Only if the original electronic device is produced in court

c. Only if a physical copy is notarized

d. If the information is printed, stored, recorded, or copied in electronic form, meeting prescribed conditions

79. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given?

a. Section 63

b. Section 62

c. Section 61

d. Section 60

80. "A Barrister is instructed by an Attorney or Vakil that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit."This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

a. Section 148

b. Section 149

c. Section 146

d. Section 142

81. Under Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code, who can give information’s relating to the commission of a cognizable offence?

a. The victim himself only

b. The dependant of victim only

c. Relative of victim only

d. Any person

82. Which of the following cases relates to the principles with regard to anticipatory bail?

a. Raghunath Das Vs. State of Orissa

b. Waman Nade Vs. State of Maharashtra

c. Ramesh Kumar Ravi Vs. State of Bihar

d. Gurubaksh Singh Sibbia Vs. State of Punjab

83. In summary trial, which trial procedure the court should follow

a. Procedure for summons trial

b. Procedure for session trial

c. Procedure for warrant trial

d. No specific procedure is prescribed.

84. Statements under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police: -

a. Before investigation

b. During investigation

c. During trial

d. During inquiry

85. Under section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the: -

a. Session Judge

b. Judicial Magistrate

c. District Magistrate

d. High Court

86. Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply to: -

a. The accused

b. A person who is neither a complainant or accused or a witness

c. The witness

d. The complainant

87. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under: -

a. Section 198 B

b. Section 357 B

c. Section 357 C

d. None of the above

88. In a First-Information-Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to be: -

a. Cognizable

b. Non-Cognizable

c. It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case

d. It is to be seen whether it is a summon case

89. Which of the following statements is true: -

a. State Government shall establish a Court of Session with the consultation of High Court

b. State Government shall establish a Court of Session

c. The High Court shall establish a Court of Session

d. The Supreme Court shall establish a Court of Session

90. If a person against whom an order under section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is made, appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate shall: -

a. Take no evidence

b. Take evidence in the matter as an extraordinary case

c. Take evidence in the matter as a warrant case

d. Take evidence in the matter as in a summon case

91. Which Section of Cr.P.C. is related to "no unnecessary restraint"?

a. Section 47

b. Section 48

c. Section 49

d. Section 50

92. Which one of the following Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that, 'No judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested"?

a. Section 475

b. Section 477

c. Section 478

d. Section 479

93. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 who can file an application for plea bargaining?

a. The Public Prosecutor

b. The Accused of the Offence

c. The Investigating Officer

d. The Victim of the Offence

94. Under which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 monthly allowances or the Interim monthly allowances for maintenance can be altered?

a. Section 127

b. Section 126

c. Section 124

d. Section 125

95. "The bail is rule, jail is exception" This rule is laid down by the Supreme Court in:

a. Joginder Singh V. State of U.P.

b. Pritam Singh V. State of Punjab.

c. Rajumari V. State of U.P.

d. Moti Ram V. State of M.P.

96. According to Sec.72(2) of BNSS, 2023- the warrant of arrest shall remain in force

a. Until it is cancelled by the Court which issued it

b. Until it is executed.

c. a or b

d. None of the above

97. Which section of the BNSS provides for the arrest on breach of bond for appearance?

a. Section 90

b. Section 92

c. Section 94

d. Section 93

98. Which chapter of BNSS deals with ORDER FOR MAINTENANCE OF WIVES, CHILDREN AND PARENTS

a. CHAPTER X

b. CHAPTER XI

c. CHAPTER IX

d. CHAPTER XII

99. What provision of the BNSS protects elderly and infirm persons from arrest for crimes punishable with less than three years of imprisonment?

a. Section 25

b. Section 35(7)

c. Section 45

d. Section 12

100. What is the new limit for fines imposed by a First-Class Magistrate under the BNSS?

a. ₹10,000

b. ₹50,000

c. ₹100,000

d. ₹1,00,000

101.Which of the following provisions of BNSS mandates the issuance of summons in electronic form?

a. Section 63

b. Section 76

c. Section 173

d. Section 84

102.Which of the following crimes can result in a proclaimed offender declaration under the BNSS?

a. Crimes punishable with imprisonment of 3 years or more

b. Crimes punishable with imprisonment of 7 years or more

c. Crimes punishable with imprisonment of 1 year or more

d. Crimes punishable with imprisonment of 10 years or more

103.What does Section 179(1) of the BNSS protect?

a. Rights of elderly and infirm witnesses

b. Rights of juveniles in conflict with law

c. Rights of the accused

d. Right to legal representation

104.Under BNSS, what is the timeframe within which a medical report of a rape victim should be forwarded to the Magistrate?

a. 48 hours

b. 72 hours

c. 7 days

d. 10 days

105.Which section of the BNSS mandates the preparation of a witness protection scheme by each State Government?

a. Section 398

b. Section 458

c. Section 520

d. Section 355

106.Under BNSS, what does Section 107 provide?

a. Power to impose community service as a sentence

b. Introduction of zero FIR

c. Mandatory court hearings every day

d. provisions for the attachment, forfeiture, or restoration of property

107.Which section of BNSS deals with Recording of search and seizure through audio video electronic means?

a. Section 105

b. Section 185

c. Section 145

d. Section 145-A

108.Under Section 258 of BNSS, a judgment of acquittal or conviction should be passed after the completion of arguments within a period of thirty days from the date of completion of arguments, which may be extended to a period of

a. 30 days

b. 45 days

c. 60 days

d. 15 days

109.Which section of the BNSS provides for Inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of proclaimed offender?

a. Section 356

b. Section 173

c. Section 185

d. Section 258

110.What does Section 530 of the BNSS address?

a. Appointment of Special Executive Magistrates

b. Witness protection schemes

c. Trial proceedings held in electronic modes

d. Submission of FIRs electronically

111.Doctrine of acceleration is given under which Section of the Transfer of Property Act?

a. Section 27

b. Section 25

c. Section 20

d. Section 22

112.Which is not covered by the term "Transfer of Property'?

a. Gift

b. Exchange

c. Family settlement

d. Lease

113.A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called

a. Anomalous Mortgage

b. English Mortgage

c. Usufructuary Mortgage

d. Equitable Mortgage

114.In which Section of Transfer of Property Act 'Onerous gift' is provided?

a. Section 126

b. Section 127

c. Section 122

d. Section 130

115.Which one of the following is not an essential element of a Mortgage as defined u/sec 58 of T.P.A.?

a. There must be transfer of interest.

b. The interest must be of some specific immovable property.

c. The purpose of transfer must be to ensure payment of a debt.

d. There must be promise to transfer of interest.

116.Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable: -

a. Where the transfer is by way of lease

b. Where the transfer is by way of sale

c. Where the transfer is by way of gift

d. Where the transfer is by way of exchange

117.Which of the following is not an immovable property under the Transfer of Property Act?

a. A right to catch and carry fish from a pond.

b. A lake.

c. A right of worship in a specific temple.

d. A debt secured by mortgage of an immovable property.

118.Under the Transfer of Property Act, Charge can be created:

a. By act of parties or by operation of law

b. Only by a registered instrument

c. Only by oral agreement

d. None of the above.

119.Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Exchange of money - S. 120

b. Transfer by one co-owner - S. 44

c. Mortgagor's power to lease - S. 65-A

d. Doctrine for accumulation - S. 17

120.The "rule against perpetuity" has its origin in the case of

a. Tulk V. Moxhay, 41 ER 1143

b. Cadell V. Palmer, 131 ER 859

c. Alderson V. White, 44 ER 924

d. Ariff V. Jadunath, AIR 1931 PC 79

121.Lease of a house for a term exceeding one year can be made

a. Only by registered instrument.

b. Oral agreement.

c. Either by oral agreement or by registered instrument.

d. None of these

122.A lease to a minor is

a. Valid

b. Void

c. Voidable

d. None of these

123.Who is the mortgagor?

a. The person who buys the property

b. The person who receives rent from the property.

c. The person who lends the money

d. The person who mortgages the property

124.A transfer his house to X for life and thereafter to the unborn son of A. The transfer of house in favour of unborn is

a. Valid

b. Illegal

c. Voidable

d. Void

125.Which of the following Sections of T.P. Act contains exceptions to the Maxim "Nemodat quod non-habets"?

a. Section 41 and 42

b. Section 41 and 44

c. Section 41 and 43

d. None of the above

126.Which of the following is not ground for irregular marriage under Muslim law?

a. Marriage without witness

b. Muslim with a fifth wife

c. Unlawful conjunction

d. Polyandry

127.When the dower is payable immediately upon the marriage taking place, and it must be paid on demand unless the delay is agreed upon, what is it called?

a. Muajjal

b. Muwajjal

c. Mahr

d. Mahar-i-nisi

128.How many grounds of divorce are provided for a Muslim woman under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?

a. Six grounds

b. Two grounds

c. Nine grounds

d. Five grounds

129.Under the dissolution of the Muslim Marriage Act 1939, which of the following is not the correct ground for judicial divorce?

a. The husband has been missing for 7 years

b. Husband's failure to maintain the wife for 2 years

c. Imprisonment of the husband for 7 years

d. Husband's failure to perform a marital obligation for 3 years.

130.Which of the following terminology in Muslim law is correct?

a. Valid Marriage - Fasid

b. Void Marriage - Batil

c. Irregular Marriage – Sahih

d. All are correct

131.Which of the following is the major school of

a. Hanafi

b. Maliki

c. Shafei

d. Imamia

132.In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that the marriage of a man with 2 sisters shall not be void? It stated that this marriage shall merely be irregular in nature. It further discussed that the child of such marriage shall be entitled to inheritance from his father.

a. Imambandi v. Mutsaddi

b. Gohar Begum vs. Nazma Begum

c. Chand Patel v. Bismillah Begum

d. Noor Sabha Khatoon v. Md. Quasim

133."Khiyar-ul-bulug" means: -

a. Option of puberty

b. A form of dower

c. A form of valid marriage

d. Infidelity

134.Under Muslim Law the term "Faskh" is used to denote: -

a. Restitution of conjugal rights

b. Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of husband

c. Judicial separation

d. Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of wife

135.Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies certain grounds of divorce which are available to: -

a. Husband as well as wife

b. Husband only

c. Wife only

d. None of them

136.Under which one of the following schools of Muslim Law "Muta Marriage" is recognised: -

a. Ismaili school

b. Ithna Asheri school

c. Shafii school

d. Hanifi school

137.Which one of the following is not a mode of Talaq?

a. Refusal of Maintenance

b. Talaq-ul-Sunnat

c. Talaq-ul-Biddat

d. IIa

138.The constitutional validity of Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act for the first time came for consideration in the case of

a. Harvinder Kaur V. Harminder Singh

b. Babooram V. Sushila

c. T. Sareetha V. T. Venkata Subbaih

d. Saroj Rani V. Sudarshan Kumar

139.Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 recognises

a. Physical cruelty

b. Mental cruelty

c. Physical and mental cruelty

d. No cruelty.

140.A wife on partition between her husband and his sons, is entitled to a share in the coparcenary property.

a. ½ of that of a son

b. 1/3 of that of a Son

c. ¼ of that of a son

d. equal to that of a son

141.To mature as a ground of divorce, the desertion must continue for a minimum period of

a. Five years

b. Three years

c. Two years

d. One year

142.Adultery is a ground for

a. Judicial separation

b. Divorce

c. Judicial separation and divorce both

d. Only divorce and not judicial separation

143.Remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is aimed

a. Dissolving the marriage

b. Preserving the marriage

c. To declare marriage as immoral

d. To declare marriage as illegal

144.A decree of judicial separation

a. Dissolves the marriage

b. Does not dissolve the marriage & the marriage subsists

c. Marriage is null and void

d. Marriage is Voidable

145.In a case of bigamous marriage, the second wife

a. May have or may not have a status of wife

b. Has a status of wife

c. Has a status of concubine

d. Has no status of wife

146.Doctrine of ‘factum Valet’ in the context of ceremonies of marriage cures

a. Non observance of necessary ceremonies

b. Non observance of essential ceremonies

c. Non observance of Sapthapadi.

d. Non observance of nuptial fires

147.‘Heir’ has been defined under:

a. Section 3(g) of the Hindu Succession Act.

b. Section 3(d) of the Hindu Succession Act

c. Section 3(f) of the Hindu Succession Act

d. Section 3(e) of the Hindu Succession Act

148.Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act 2005 applies to

a. Movable property

b. Immovable property

c. Immovable and movable property

d. Public property

149.Which of the following is correct with respect to Section 5(i) of Hindu marriage Act 1955?

a. Neither party has a living-children at the time of marriage

b. Neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage

c. Husband should not have a spouse at the time of marriage

d. Wife should not have a spouse at the time of marriage.

150.Presumption that the younger survived the elder under section 21 of Hindu Succession Act 2005 is

a. Presumption of fact

b. Presumption of fact and law

c. Irrebuttable presumption of law.

d. Rebuttable presumption of law

151.Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the

a. Security Council

b. General Assembly

c. General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council

d. General Assembly and Security Council independently of one another

152.The 'Preamble' of the Indian Constitution has been amended so far:

a. Twice

b. Once

c. Thrice

d. Never

153.For word "Uttaranchal', the word 'Uttarakhand' was substituted by Uttaranchal (Alteration of Name) Act in the year

a. 2001

b. 2005

c. 2004

d. 2006

154.Who made the observation "Jurisprudence is Lawyer's extraversion"?

a. Austin

b. Stone

c. Cicero

d. C.K. Allen

155."Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and divine; the science of just and unjust" has been said by

a. Ulpian

b. Keeton

c. Julius Stone

d. Austin

156.Austin's book "the province of Jurisprudence Determined" Is

a. The lectures delivered in the London University

b. His autobiography

c. An answer to an essay by Gray on Parliamentary Government

d. None of the above

157.Who among the following said that “witnesses are eyes and ears of justice”?

a. Holland

b. Fuller

c. Kelsen

d. Bentham

158.The Theory of 'Social Engineering' was propounded by

a. Austin

b. Ivor Jennings

c. Dicey

d. Roscoe Pound

159.Recently, R. Ravindra has been appointed as India’s ambassador to which country?

a. Iceland

b. Bulgaria

c. Greece

d. Croatia

160.Which ancient text refers to Uttarakhand as “Devabhumi” or the “Land of the Gods”?

a. Vishnupurana

b. Skandapurana

c. Mahabharata

d. Ramayana

161.Which revolutionary from Uttarakhand was involved in the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925?

a. Chandra Singh Garhwali

b. Govind Ballabh Pant

c. Mukundi Lal

d. Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna

162.Recently, who has been appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry?

a. K. Kailashnathan

b. Susheel Kumar Trivedi

c. Arun Kumar

d. Ardhendu Sen

163.Which state government has recently decided to scrap the two-child norm for contesting local body elections?

a. Andhra Pradesh

b. Tamil Nadu

c. Karnataka

d. Maharashtra

164.Recently, where was the 17th edition of the International Earth Sciences Olympiad (IESO) held?

a. New Delhi, India

b. London, UK

c. Moscow, Russia

d. Beijing, China

165.Which is the nodal agency for implementing Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement, recently signed by India at the UNGA?

a. Ministry of External Affairs

b. Ministry of Home Affairs

c. Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change

d. Ministry of Earth Sciences

166.Recently, who has been conferred with Fiji’s highest civilian award ‘Companion of the Order of Fiji’?

a. Droupadi Murmu

b. Narendra Modi

c. S. Jaishankar

d. Amit Shah

167.Who has been awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2024?

a. Gabriel Garcia

b. Alexander Pushkin

c. Han Kang

d. Haruki Murakami

168.Which day is observed as “United Nations Day for South-South Cooperation” annually?

a. 11 September

b. 12 September

c. 13 September

d. 14 September

169.Which day is observed as World Arthritis Day annually?

a. October 15

b. October 14

c. October 13

d. October 12

170.Recently, where was the ‘First Policy Makers Forum’ inaugurated?

a. Hyderabad

b. New Delhi

c. Chennai

d. Bengaluru

171.Recently, where was the “World Green Economy Forum” launched?

a. Dubai

b. New Delhi

c. Paris

d. London

172.Which organization recently released the “World Development Report (WDR)”?

a. World Bank

b. International Monetary Fund

c. Food and Agriculture Organization

d. United Nations Environment Programme

173.What is the rank of India in the ‘Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024’?

a. 38th

b. 36th

c. 35th

d. 39th

174.Recently, which state has become the first Indian state to launch a Gross Environment Product Index?

a. Himachal Pradesh

b. Madhya Pradesh

c. Uttarakhand

d. Gujarat

175.‘Storm Shadow Missile’, recently seen in the news, is jointly developed by which two countries?

a. Russia and China

b. United Kingdom and France

c. Australia and New Zealand

d. India and Japan

176.Which state government recently launched “CM-SATH Scheme” to provide financial support to deserving students?

a. Tripura

b. Assam

c. Manipur

d. Nagaland

177.Recently, which three names were given to the underwater structures in the Indian Ocean?

a. Ashoka, Chandragupt, and Kalpataru

b. Mahatma, Nehru, and Gandhi

c. Himalaya, Ganga, and Krishna

d. Shiva, Vishnu, and Brahma

178.Which day is observed as ‘World Organ Donation Day’ every year?

a. 11 August

b. 12 August

c. 13 August

d. 14 August

179.Which of the following words is not included in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

a. Equality

b. Liberty

c. Sanctity

d. Justice

180.The Supreme Court of India has traced the "Right of Privacy" In

a. Article 14

b. Article 22

c. Article 19

d. Article 21

181.Where Is the head quarter of International Court of Justice situated?

a. Geneva

b. New York

c. Hague

d. London

182.Parliament has power to make law on a matter in State List provided it is in

a. Public interest

b. National interest

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

183.The Supreme Court of India has evolved curative petition under

a. Article 141 of the Constitution

b. Article 144 of the Constitution

c. Article 143 of the Constitution

d. Article 142 of the Constitution

184.Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, grant Right to life, liberty and security of person?

a. Article 1

b. Article 2

c. Article 3

d. Article 4

185.Matchlist-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists- List-I List-II
A. International Day of Education 1. 24 January
B. World Environment Day 2. 05 October
C. World Teachers Day 3. 21 February
D. International Mother language 4. 05 June
Code.

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 1 4 2 3

c. 3 2 1 4

d. 2 1 4 3

186.Under which Article of the UN Charter, the members of United Nations have agreed to abide by the decisions of the Security Council?

a. Article 23

b. Article 24

c. Article 26

d. Article 25

187.Assertion (A): Right to Education is a Fundamental Right.
Reason (R): Our Constitution has no provision for education before making Right to Education as Fundamental Right.Select the correct answer-

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

188."Purpose of United Nations is world peace". It was observed by

a. Oppenheim

b. Cardova

c. Anzilotte

d. Kelson

189.The concept of 'Living Law' was expounded by which Jurist?

a. Prof. Allen

b. Duguit

c. Ehrlich

d. Roscoe Pound

190.In which year, first general elections to Lok Sabha were held in India?

a. 1948

b. 1949

c. 1950

d. 1951

191.Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?

a. Article 60

b. Article 61

c. Article 62

d. Article 63

192.What is the number of Schedules in Constitution of India?

a. 11

b. 12

c. 10

d. 9

193. Justice Sanjiv Khanna was sworn in as which Chief Justice of India?

a. 52nd

b. 50th

c. 51st

d. None of the above

194.Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-

List-1 List-2

A. Right against Exploitation 1. Article 39A

B. Equal justice and free legal aid 2. Article 130

C. Power of President to grant pardon 3. Article 23-24

D. Seat of Supreme Court 4. Article 72

Code-

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 1 4

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 3 1 4 2

195.Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women (NCW)?

a. Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar

b. Krishna Teerath

c. Girija Vyas

d. Chandresh Kumari

196.The official language of the Union of India shall be Hindi in Devnagari script is mentioned in

a. Article 341

b. Article 343

c. Article 342

d. Article 340

197.Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the proclamation of emergency?

a. Article 366(15)

b. Article 366(16)

c. Article 366(17)

d. Article 366(18)

198."Asylum stops where extradition begins". Above statement was made by

a. Kelsen

b. Starke

c. Schwarzenberger

d. Cobbett

199.The court of record in India is

a. Only Supreme Court

b. Only High Court

c. Both Supreme Court and High Court

d. None of these

200."Goods and Services Tax" was brought into operation throughout India by

a. 100th Constitutional Amendment

b. 101th Constitutional Amendment

c. 96th Constitutional Amendment

d. 97th Constitutional Amendment

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