UTTARAKHAND MOCK TEST-II
1. Under Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the transferee is entitled to the benefits of insurance covered against the loss or damage by
a. Fire
b. Encroachment
c. Natural calamity
d. None of the above
2. Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is related to the
a. Doctrine of election
b. Doctrine of cy-pres
c. Doctrine of accretion
d. Doctrine of apportionment
3. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property is
a. Limited
b. Absolute
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
4. Double possibility rule' was laid down in which one of the following cases?
a. Whitby Vs. Mitchell
b. Indu Kakkar Vs. Haryana State
c. Chamaru Sahu Vs. Soma Kuer
d. None of these
5. An universal donee is liable to the creditors of the donor, the liability of the donee is
a. Personal
b. To the extent of value of gifted property in hand
c. Based on pious obligation
d. Limited to reasonable extent
6. Which section of TPA is based on the principle of lis pendens, which means "pending suit"?
a. Section 51
b. Section 57
c. Section 52
d. Section 53
7. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on:-
a. 1st August 1882
b. 1st July 1882
c. 1st September 1882
d. 1st October 1882
8. A lease is terminated by
a. Surrender
b. Merger
c. Forfeiture
d. All of these
9. Under the Transfer of Property Act, a "living person" connotes
a. Human being only
b. Limited company only
c. Partnership firm only
d. All of these
10. Which one of the following sections provides Liabilities of mortgagee in possession.
a. Section 77
b. Section 78
c. Section 79
d. Section 76
11. Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or when the happening of the event becomes:-
a. Possible
b. Impossible
c. Probable to happen
d. All of the above
12. In which Section of the Transfer of Property Act the provisions regarding rights and liabilities of lessor and lessee are provided?
a. Section 107
b. Section 108
c. Section 109
d. Section 110
13. A transfers Rs.5,000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. B marries without the consent of C, D and E. But obtains their consent after the marriage. Has B fulfilled the conditions?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cannot say
d. None of the above
14. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazara is related to
a. Doctrine of election
b. Doctrine of part performance
c. Transfer by unauthorised person
d. Ostensible owner
15. Which of the following instruments have been excluded by the application of Section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
1. Stocks
2. Shares
3. Debentures
Code-
a. All 1, 2, and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
16. CPC- A decree against Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
17. Under which of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 attachment before Judgment is provided?
a. Order 38 Rule 5-13
b. Order 39 Rule 1 and 2
c. Order 40 Rule 1
d. Section 96
18. Subject to Sub-Section (2) of Section 64 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a private alienation of property after attachment is
a. Voidable
b. Improper
c. Lawful
d. Void
19. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with which one of the followings?
a. Appointment of receiver
b. Interpleader suit
c. Settlement of disputes outside the court
d. Execution of decree
20. Which one of the following statement is not true in relation to power of appellate court under Code of Civil Procedure?
a. It can determine a case finally.
b. It cannot take additional evidence.
c. It can frame issue and refer them for trial.
d. It can remand a case.
21. As provided in Section 79 of the Code of Civil Procedure a suit by the Central Government must be filed in the name of
a. The President of India
b. Attorney General of India
c. Prime Minister of India
d. Union of India
22. Under which one of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, the principle of constructive res-judicata has been explained?
a. Section 11 explanation VII
b. Section 11 explanation IV
c. Section 11 explanation III
d. Section 11 explanation I
23. Which of the following orders and rules of the Code of Civil Procedure provide for "Framing of issues"?
a. Order XIV Rule 1
b. Order XVIII Rule 1
c. Order XIV Rule 2
d. Order XIV Rule 5
24. Under the code of civil procedure where a person who is necessary party to a suit has not been joined as a party, it is a case of
a. Misjoinder
b. non-joinder
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
25. Provisions relating to 'set-off and 'counter-claims' are contained in which of the following orders of the code of civil procedure?
a. Order VI
b. Order VII
c. Order VIII
d. Order IX
26. Pleader' is defined in the code of civil procedure in
a. Section 2(7)
b. Section 2(15)
c. Section 2(17)
d. Section 2(11)
27. Maximum amount which a court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexations claims or defences under Civil Procedure Code 1908, is:-
a. Rs 10,000/-
b. Rs. 3,000/-
c. Rs. 25,000/-
d. Any amount
28. Which one is not correctly matched?
a. Institution of Suit: Order IV
b. Judgement and Decree: Order XX
c. Issue of Summons: Order V
d. Issue of Commissions: Order XXI
29. Under which Section of the Civil Procedure Code "Pecuniary Jurisdiction" of the Court has been provided?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
30. Order XX-A of the Civil Procedure Code applies to which of the following?
a. Withdrawal of Suits
b. Appeal
c. Cost
d. Judgment
31. Suits relating to constitutional validity statutory instruments are provided in-
a. Order 27 A, Rule 1-A of the C.P.C
b. Order 34, Rule 1 of the C.P.C
c. Order 32 A, Rule 3 of the C.P.C.
d. Order 37. Rule 2 of the C.P.C
32. Under which one of the following provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 consequences of disobedience or breach of injunction has been described?
a. Order XXXII
b. Order XXXIII
c. Order XXXIX Rule 2A
d. None of the above
33. Match List I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Objections to jurisdiction 1. Razia Begam V. Sahebjadi Anwar.Begam
B. Addition of Parties 2. Kiran Singh V. Chaman Paswan
C. Constructive res judicata 3. American Cyanamid Co. V. Ethicon Ltd.
D. Temporary injunction 4. Workmen V. Board of Trustees, Cochin Port Trust
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 4 1 2
34. Who has the authority to fix scales of monthly allowances payable for subsistence of judgment debtor?
a. District Court
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. High Court
35. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Section 2(2) CPC-Decree
b. Section 2(9) CPC- Judgement
c. Section 2(13) CPC-Order
d. Section 2(6) CPC-Foreign Judgment
36. Which chapter of BNS deals with GENERAL EXCEPTIONS-
a. CHAPTER I
b. CHAPTER IV
c. CHAPTER II
d. CHAPTER III
37. What is the Date of enforcement of BNS?
a. 1st of July, 2024
b. 1st of July, 2023
c. 1st of July, 2023
d. 1st of June, 2024
38. Which provision of BNS defines “Child”?
a. Sec.2(6) of BNS
b. Sec.2(5) of BNS
c. Sec.2(4) of BNS
d. Sec.2(3) of BNS
39. What does the term “gender” states under Section 2(10) of the BNS, 2023?
a. Male only
b. female only
c. Transgender only
d. Male, female or transgender
40. Which provision of BNS deals with “common intention”?
a. Sec.3(4) of BNS
b. Sec.3(5) of BNS
c. Sec.2(5) of BNS
d. Sec.3(6) of BNS
41. Which provision of BNS provides “Enhanced punishment for certain offences after previous conviction”?
a. Sec.12
b. Sec.15
c. Sec.14
d. Sec.13
42. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Procuration of child”?
a. Sec.92
b. Sec.94
c. Sec.95
d. Sec.96
43. What is the punishment under BNS whoever, with intent to cause the miscarriage of a woman with child, does any act which causes the death of such woman?
a. Ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
b. Five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
c. Two years, and shall also be liable to fine.
d. One years, and shall also be liable to fine.
44. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Attempt to commit culpable homicide”?
a. Sec.120
b. Sec.119
c. Sec.110
d. Sec.111
45. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Voluntarily causing hurt”?
a. Sec.114
b. Sec.115
c. Sec.116
d. Sec.117
46. The Right of Private Defence of body extends to causing deaths if there is
a. Apprehension of death
b. Intention of committing rape
c. Apprehension of grievous hurt
d. All the above
47. Assault' under Section 351 of Indian Penal Code can be caused by
a. Gestures only
b. Preparation only
c. Mere words
d. Gestures or any preparation
48. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Section 463 IPC 1. Criminal trespass
B. Section 445 IPC 2. Forgery
C. Section 441 IPC 3. Criminal intimidation
D. Section 503 IPC 4. House breaking
Code-
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
49. The principle of doll in capex under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an exception to criminal liability in which one of the following sections?
a. Section 82
b. Section 84
c. Section 87
d. Section 81
50. A' enters into a house of 'B' with intent to cause grievous hurt to 'B', but finds that 'B' is not in the house. What offence, if any, has been committed by 'A'?
a. Attempt to cause grievous hurt
b. House trespass
c. No offence
d. (a) and (b) both
51. Offence of robbery includes
a. Theft only
b. Extortion only
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these
52. 'Wrongful gain' and 'Wrongful loss' have been defined under Indian Penal Code, in which of the following Section?
a. Section 23
b. Section 24
c. Section 27
d. Section 22
53. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 a conspiracy to wage war against the Government of India is punishable?
a. Section 120
b. Section 121
c. Section 121A
d. Section 123
54. The maxim" ignorantia juris non excusat" means:-
a. Ignorance of law is no excuse
b. Ignorance of fact is no excuse
c. Ignorance of law is an excuse
d. Ignorance of fact is an excuse
55. The term "Harbour" defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include-
a. Supplying a person with shelter
b. Supplying a person means of conveyance
c. Assisting a person to evade apprehension
d. Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission therof
56. "X" who stole jewellery from a jeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence of:-
a. Extortion
b. Robbery
c. Theft
d. Dacoity
57. "Common Intention" and "similar intention" was distinguished in the famous case of
a. Barendra K. Ghosh Vs. King 1925 P.C. 1
b. Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor 1943 P.C. 118
c. Kripal Singh Vs. State of U.P. 1954 S.C. 706
d. Rishidev Pandey Vs. State of U.P. 1955 S.C. 331
58. Which one is not an exception of defamation under Section 499 of Indian Penal Code?
a. Public conduct of public servant
b. Malicious statements
c. Conduct of any person touching any public question
d. Publication of reports of proceedings of court
59. Which of the following is not a "sine qua non" for making a person criminally liable:
a. Actus reus
b. Mens rea
c. Motive
d. All the above
60. Section 497 of Indian Penal Code is struck down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?
a. Navtej singh Johar Vs. Union of India
b. Joseph Shine Vs. Union of India
c. Tahsean S. Poonawala Vs. Union of India
d. Naz Foundation Trust Vs. Suresh Kumar Kaushal
61. When two or more persons indulge in fighting at a public place and thereby commit breach of peace, they commit the offence of:
a. Robbery
b. Riot
c. Public nuisance
d. Affray
62. Which one of the following is not an essential element of the offence of acid attack mentioned under Section 326-A of the IPC?
a. Partial damage, deformity or burn
b. Maiming, disfigurement or disablement
c. Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt
d. Only bodily pain
63. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code, the word 'Extortion' is defined?
a. Section 383
b. Section 382
c. Section 390
d. Section 386
64. Which Sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force?
a. Sections 171-A to 171-I
b. Sections 124 to 129
c. Sections 131 to 140
d. Sections 165 to 171
65. When a woman was taking bath in her bathroom, "X" captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by "X":-
a. Sexual assault
b. Stalking
c. Voyeurism
d. Insulting the modesty of a woman
66. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which one of the following sections defines admission
a. Section 17
b. Section 18
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
67. In which of the following Accomplice' is declared competent witness?
a. Section 137 of the Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 131 of the Indian Evidence Act
c. ection 132 of the Indian Evidence Act
d. Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act
68. The case of Pakala Narayan Swami vs Emperor relates to:
a. Doctrine of estoppel
b. Dying declaration
c. Accomplice
d. Cross-examination
69. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
List - I List - II
A. Refreshing the memories 1. Section 159
B. Dying declaration 2. Section 154
C. Leading question 3. Section 32 (1)
D. Hostile witness 4. Section 141
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 2 3 4
70. Which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related with the 'Presumption as to electronic agreements"?
a. Section 85B
b. Section 85
c. Section 85C
d. Section 85A
71. The case "Doodhnath Pandey V. State of U.P." is related to
a. Accomplice
b. Admission
c. Plea of alibi
d. Res-Gestae
72. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides questions lawful in cross examination to be asked?
a. Section 144
b. Section 146
c. Section 140
d. Section 149
73. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for
a. Presumption of life
b. Presumption of marriage
c. Presumption of death
d. Presumption of legitimacy
74. The question is whether "A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she has been ravished is:-
a. Admissible as conduct
b. Not relevant as conduct
c. Relevant as conduct
d. A subject matter of enquiry
75. The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the provisions of-
a. Section 65 B
b. Section 65 C
c. Section 66 B
d. Section 66 C
76. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence has been substituted by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
a. Section 29
b. Section 39
c. Section 35
d. Section 40
77. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 how many witness are required for the proof of any fact?
a. At least one
b. At least five
c. At least two
d. Not specified
78. The evidence may be given of following facts-
1. Facts in issue
2. Relevant fact
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
Code-
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
79. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with conclusive proof?
a. 112
b. 41, 112 and 113
c. 113
d. 112 and 113
80. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Interpretation Clause 1. Section 6 Indian Evidence Act
B. When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant 2. Section 105 Indian Evidence Act
C. Burden of Proof 3. Section 11 Indian Evidence Act
D. Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction 4. Section 3 Indian Evidence Act
Code-
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 4 3 2 1
81. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Indian Evidence Act?
a. Confidential communication with Legal Advisors-Section 127 Indian Evidence Act
b. Matrimonial communication Indian Evidence Act - Section 122
c. Professional communication -Section 126 Indian Evidence Act
d. Official communication - Section 124 Indian Evidence Act
82. When did BSA, 2023 come into force?
a. 25 December 2023
b. 1 July 2024
c. 1 January 2024
d. 20 December 2023
83. Which Act does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replace?
a. Information Technology Act, 2000
b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
84. Can digital evidence be admitted under BSA, 2023?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only with special permission
d. Only in civil cases
85. Which section provides for a hostile witness in BSA, 2023?
a. Section 147
b. Section 125
c. Section 170
d. Section 157
86. What is the Act No. of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. ACT NO. 44 OF 2023
b. ACT NO. 45 OF 2023
c. ACT NO. 47 OF 2023
d. ACT NO. 46 OF 2023
87. Under BSA 2023, the term “Court” includes:
a. Only District Courts
b. Only appellate courts
c. Judges, Magistrates, and arbitrators
d. Judges, Magistrates, and legally authorized persons to take evidence (excluding arbitrators)
88. Under BSA, “evidence” includes:
a. Oral statements only
b. Both oral statements (including electronic) and documents (including electronic/digital)
c. Documentary records only
d. Only written statements
89. When the BSA states a court “may presume” a fact, it means:
a. The court must treat the fact as true
b. The court has discretion to presume it true unless disproved or require proof
c. The fact is conclusively established
d. The court cannot presume anything
90. Under Section 3 of BSA, 2023 can a person present evidence of a fact if they are legally disentitled under civil procedure laws?
a. Yes, because relevance overrides procedural rules
b. Yes, if the fact is crucial to the case.
c. No, evidence of such a fact is not permitted.
d. Only with court permission.
91. What principle is embodied in Section 4 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Facts forming part of the same transaction as the fact in issue are relevant.
b. Facts made under oath are relevant.
c. Prior consistent statements are relevant.
d. Hearsay evidence is always inadmissible.
92. Section 5 of the BSA addresses the relevance of facts that are:
a. Direct confessions
b. Facts forming part of the same transaction
c. Facts which are an occasion, cause, or effect of facts in issue or relevant facts
d. Documentary evidence
93. What does Explanation 1 clarify about “conduct” under Section 6 of BSA, 2023?
a. Conduct includes any hearsay statements.
b. Conduct never includes statements, under any situation.
c. Conduct includes statements, regardless of context.
d. Conduct excludes statements unless they accompany and explain actions other than statements.
94. In the illustration where A is tried for murder of B, and A had previously murdered C, B knew about it, and B extorted A by threatening to reveal it — what does this example demonstrate?
a. That motive (murder of C) and a related threat (extortion) are both relevant.
b. That only C’s murder is relevant, not B’s threat.
c. That only the murder of C is relevant.
d. That motive and prior conduct can be irrelevant.
95. Which one of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law books?
a. Section 30
b. Section 37
c. Section 39
d. Section 38
96. Marriage during Iddat period is
a. Batil
b. Void
c. Fasid
d. Valid
97. A Muslim illegitimate child is kept in the custody of
a. Mother
b. Father
c. Neither father nor mother
d. Both father and mother
98. Shariat Act, 1937 came into operation on
a. 7th Jan, 1937
b. 7th July, 1937
c. 7th Oct, 1937
d. 7th June, 1937
99. Under Muslim Law the right of 'Shufaa' is firstly available to
a. Shafi-i-Sharik
b. Shafi-i-Khalil
c. Shafi-i-Jar
d. None of the above
100. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 a Muslim marriage may be dissolved in which of the followings?
a. By the husband alone by pronouncing talak.
b. By the wife pronouncing reverence of relationship.
c. By the court on the ground of mutual consent.
d. By the court in a petition filed by the wife.
101. Which one of the following is not a school of Sunni Law?
a. Shafei
b. Maliki
c. Mutazilas
d. Hanbali
102. In which of the following case the Supreme Court has held that the "three talaqs" would be treated as a "Single talaq" and not a valid talaq:-
a. Shamim Ara Vs. State of U.P., A.I.R. 2002 S.C.R
b. Bai Taheri Vs. Ali Hussain, A.I.R. 1979 S.C.
c. Mohd Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano, A.I.R. 1985-S.C.
d. None of the above
103. When can a Muslim wife relinquish her 'Mehr'?
a. When she is not less than 21 years of age.
b. When she has attained the age of puberty.
c. When she is not less than 18 years of age.
d. When she is minor.
104. What does the term "Waqf" refer to in Islamic law?
a. A temporary gift of property
b. A permanent dedication of property for religious, pious, or charitable purposes
c. A sale of property by a Muslim
d. A loan of property by a Muslim
105. Who can create a Waqf?
a. Only the government
b. Any person, regardless of religion
c. Only Muslims
d. Only religious leaders
106. Dower (Mehar) absolutely belongs to
a. The wife
b. Wife's father
c. Wife's mother
d. Partly to wife and partly to wife's parents
107. What is the term for the period of waiting a Muslim woman must observe after divorce or the death of her husband?
a. Mehr
b. Iddat
c. Halala
d. Lian
108. Dastane V. Dastane related to which of the following matter in Hindu Law?
a. Cruelty
b. Adultery
c. Spinda
d. Restitution of conjugal rights
109. Under which of the following section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent has been provided: -
a. Section 15
b. Section 13 A
c. Section 13 B
d. Section 11
110. Which section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with Registration of Hindu marriages. -
a. Section 5
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 8
111. 'Jimutavahana' is known for his work
a. Dayatatva
b. Nirnaya Sindhu
c. Dayabhag
d. Dattak Mimansa
112. Son in class I of the schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, does not include
a. Step son
b. Adopted son
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
113. Who is natural guardian of a minor under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act?
a. Mother only
b. Father only
c. Mother and father both as per the case
d. Grandmother and Grandfather
114. Who is natural guardian of a married minor girl: -
a. Father-in-law
b. Mother
c. Father
d. Husband
115. Under Hindu Succession Act, one person is said to be 'agnate' of another if the two are related
a. By blood or adoption wholly through males.
b. By blood or adoption but not wholly through males.
c. By half-blood through males
d. None of these
116. Which one of the following is not the ground of voidable marriage under Hindu Marriage Act?
a. Impotency
b. Unsoundness of mind
c. Force or fraud
d. Bigamy
117. Every appeal from decrees or orders under section 28 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within how many days from the date of decree or order: -
a. Within 90 days
b. Within 60 days
c. Within 45 days
d. Within 30 days
118. No person shall be entitled to dispose of or deal with the property of a Hindu minor merely because on the ground of his or her being the defacto guardian of the minor is provided under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act?
a. Section 13
b. Section 12
c. Section 11
d. Section 10
119. A person who dies without making a will is known as "Intestate". This has been defined under Hindu Succession Act in
a. Section 3(b)
b. Section 3(c)
c. Section 3(a)
d. Section 3(g)
120. Under Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu includes
a. Buddhist
b. Sikh
c. Jain
d. All the above
121. Classification of Bailable and Non-bailable offences in Cr. P.C. is provided under
a. First Schedule of Cr. P.C.
b. Second Schedule of Cr. P.C.
c. Section 320 of Cr. P.C.
d. Section 321 of Cr. P.C.
122. Which Section of Cr.P.C. has provision for cancellation of warrants?
a. Section 73
b. Section 72
c. Section 70
d. Section 71
123. An accused person shall be a competent witness according to which one of the Sections of Cr. P.C.?
a. Section 318
b. Section 317
c. Section 316
d. Section 315
124. Who may record confession under S. 164 of the Cr. P.C.?
a. Any Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction only.
b. Any Judicial Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.
c. Any Metropolitan Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.
d. All of these.
125. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the:-
a. Language which accused understands
b. Language which witnesses understands
c. Language of the Court
d. Hindi language
126. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, provides for Power of High Court to confirm sentence or annul conviction:-
a. Section 368
b. Section 367
c. Section 366
d. Section 364
127. Which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. deals with 'evidence for defence"?
a. Section 241
b. Section 242
c. Section 243
d. Section 240
128. "Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings" is provided in which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Section 462
b. Section 460
c. Section 461
d. Section 465
129. Match list 1- with list-2 and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists of Sections of Criminal Procedure Code—
List-1 List-2
A. Arrest by Magistrate 1. Section 41 Cr.P.C.
B. Arrest by private person 2. Section 43 Cr.P.C
C. Arrest how made 3. Section 44 Cr.P.C.
D. Arrest by police officer without warrant 4. Section 46 Cr.P.C
Code –
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 2 3 1 4
130. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. addition or alteration of charge has been provided?
a. Section 210
b. Section 214
c. Section 217
d. Section 216
131. The famous case of "D.K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal" contains the guidelines in what respect?
a. Arrest of persons
b. Right to fair and speedy trial
c. Grant of anticipatory bail
d. All of these
132. Which Section of The Criminal Procedure Code restricts the court of session from taking cognizance of any offence as a court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a magistrate?
a. Section 192
b. Section 190
c. Section 192
d. Section 193
133. Before which of the following courts matters relating to the maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code would be filed?
a. Family Courts
b. Judicial Magistrate First Class
c. Judicial Magistrate Second Class
d. Court of Session
134. Under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code, the legal aid to the accused has been permitted at the expenses of the state?
a. Section 304
b. Section 305
c. Section 303
d. Section 300
135. Which one of the following Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to juveniles jurisdiction?
a. Section 25
b. Section 26
c. Section 27
d. Section 24
136. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced which existing law?
a. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
137. Which of the following is a newly introduced provision under the BNSS, 2023 aimed at promoting transparency in criminal procedure?
a. Confession made to a police officer is admissible as evidence.
b. Introduction of plea bargaining for all offences
c. Mandatory audio-video recording of search and seizure operations.
d. All cognizable offences allow arrest without a warrant.
138. The BNSS, 2023 now allows FIRs to be registered through which method?
a. Only by visiting the police station in person
b. Only by calling the police station
c. Electronically (e-FIR)
d. Only by sending a letter
139. Where can the statement of a rape victim be recorded under BNSS, 2023?
a. Only in the presence of a lawyer
b. At her residence or place of her choice by a woman police officer
c. Only by a Judicial Magistrate
d. Only at the police station
140. The BNSS, 2023 mandates that search and seizure procedures be recorded using which means?
a. Only handwritten notes
b. Only by photography
c. Audio-video electronic means
d. Only by the presence of a witness
141. What is the maximum duration for which a person arrested without a warrant can be kept in police custody without being produced before a Magistrate, under BNSS, 2023?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
142. Which Section of the BNSS, 2023, specifies the sentences that High Courts and Sessions Judges may pass?
a. Section 24
b. Section 21
c. Section 20
d. Section 22
143. Which Section of the BNSS, 2023, specifies Local Jurisdiction of Executive Magistrates?
a. Section 18
b. Section 17
c. Section 16
d. Section 15
144. Which section of the BNSS, 2023, corresponds to the class of Criminal Courts?
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 8
d. Section 5
145. Who is responsible for taking reasonable care of the health and safety of an arrested person according to Section 56 of the BNSS?
a. The court
b. The victim's family
c. The person having custody of the accused
d. The arrested person themselves
146. Section 55 of the BNSS deals with the procedure when a police officer deputes a subordinate to do what?
a. File a chargesheet
b. Arrest without a warrant
c. Conduct a search warrant
d. Record a statement
147. Which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, relates to release of offenders on probation of good conduct?
a. Section 363
b. Section 362
c. Section 361
d. Section 360
148. According to Section 49 of the BNSS, who can search an arrested person?
a. Any police officer, regardless of rank
b. Only a female police officer
c. The officer who makes the arrest, or the police officer to whom a private person hands over the arrested person
d. The Medical practitioner
149. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is decided by the-
a. Executive Magistrate
b. Section judge
c. High Court Judge
d. Judicial Magistrate
150. Claims and objections to attachment of property is provided under which one of the following Sections of the Cr.P.C.?
a. Section 80
b. Section 84
c. Section 85
d. Section 83
151. Who is the current Chairman of Union Public Service Commission?
a. Dr. Pradeep Joshi
b. Ashok Kumar Gupta
c. Ajay Kumar
d. Anirudha Yadav
152. In India 'Law Day' is celebrated every year on
a. 5th April
b. 5th June
c. 1 May
d. 26th November
153. Who amongst the following has said that "Indian Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing tendency"?
a. K.C. Wheare
b. A.V. Dicey
c. Sir Ivor Jennings
d. None of the above
154. Who says "International law is a vanishing point of jurisprudence"?
a. Brierly
b. Holland
c. Pollock
d. Stark
155. Which of the following executes the decision of International Court of Justice?
a. Military Staff Committee
b. General Assembly
c. International Court of Justice itself
d. Security Council
156. The first session of UNO General Assembly was held on
a. 10-Jan-46
b. 10-Jan-47
c. 10-Jan-48
d. 10-Jan-45
157. World Refugee Day is observed every year on
a. 20th July
b. 20th June
c. 20th August
d. 20th September
158. When President Draupadi Murmu gave her approval for the new Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023 to become law?
a. 11-07-2023
b. 11-08-2024
c. 11-09-2023
d. 11-08-2023
159. Which new criminal law replaces the old criminal law of Code of Criminal Procedure?
a. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
b. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
c. Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
d. None of the above
160. "Right to Work" In the Constitution can be traced in
a. Directive Principles of State Policy
b. Preamble of the Constitution
c. Fundamental Rights
d. None of the above
161. The Institution of 'Ombudsman' first started in
a. India in 1950
b. England in 1874
c. Germany in 1800
d. Sweden in 1809
162. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on:-
a. 15 August, 1947
b. 9th December, 1946
c. 26 November, 1949
d. 10 January, 1948
163. U.N.C.H.R. is related with
a. Labours
b. Children
c. Refugees
d. Women
164. A person born not in the country of his parents, would be the national of the country where he is born on the basis of the principle of
a. Jus Terti
b. Jus Jury
c. Jus Sanguinis
d. Jus Soli
165. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is related to
a. Literacy
b. Untouchability
c. Health
d. Food Guarantee
166. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs?
a. Article 228
b. Article 32
c. Article 227
d. Article 226
167. Under which of the following articles rule of law embodied under Article 14 of Indian constitution can be amended?
a. Article 354
b. Article 368
c. Article 369
d. Article 358
168. In which case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is integral part of the constitution?
a. SR Bommai Case
b. Kesavanand Bharti Case
c. Ashok Kumar Thakur Case
d. M C Mehta Case
169. Recently, a South Indian Adivasi Knowledge Centre called ‘KAANU’ was launched in which state?
a. Telangana
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Karnataka
d. Kerala
170. SAMRIDH scheme, recently seen in the news, is a flagship programme of which ministry?
a. Ministry of Earth Sciences
b. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
c. Ministry of Science and Technology
d. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
171. Recently, which state assembly passed a bill to raise the minimum marriage age for women from 18 to 21 years?
a. Rajasthan
b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Gujarat
d. Kerala
172. Right in rem' is available against
a. Particular person only
b. Every one
c. Government only
d. None of these
173. The principal organs of the United Nations are those whose names are mentioned in
a. Article 8 of the United Nations Charter
b. Article 6 of the United Nations Charter
c. Article 5 of the United Nations Charter
d. Article 7 of the United Nations Charter
174. National Human Rights Commission in India came into force from:-
a. 28th September, 1995
b. 18 December, 1993
c. 1" January, 1994
d. 12 October, 1993
175. The General Assembly of the U.N. cannot be said to be a "World Parliament", because:-
a. It cannot legislate for the States of the World
b. Its resolutions do not have binding force upon the member states
c. It cannot intervene in the matters of domestic jurisdiction of any state member
d. All of the above
176. Who was the first President of Constituent Assembly of India?
a. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c. Dr. K. N. Katju
d. C. Rajagopalachari
177. For removal of a judge of Supreme Court, the special majority resolution required to be passed in each House of Parliament is
a. Two thirds of total number of members of the House
b. Two-thirds of total membership of the House
c. Two-thirds of members present and voting in the House and majority of the total membership of the House
d. None of the above
178. "The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty."
This statement is of
a. Duguit
b. Ihering
c. Gierke
d. Salmond
179. The concept of 'Double Veto' has been provisioned under which of the following Article of UN Charter?
a. Article 27
b. Article 28
c. Article 24
d. Article 29
180. Assertion (A): International Organizations play a very important role in maintaining peace.
Reason (R): Countries have conflicts and differences with each other.
Select the correct answer-
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
181. Match list-I with list-ll and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid 1. Article 50
B. Constitution of Parliament 2. Article 51A
C. Separation of Judiciary from Executive 3. Article 39A
D. Fundamental Duties 4. Article 79
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 4 2 3
182. Under which Article of the UN Charter, the members of the United Nations have agreed to abide by the decisions of the Security Council?
a. Article 26
b. Article 24
c. Article 27
d. Article 25
183. 'World Investment Report' is an annual publication of
a. L.M. F
b. World Bank
c. UNCTAD
d. W. T. O.
184. Hicklin Test' under Article 19(2) is related to:-
a. Integrity of India
b. Decency and morality
c. Defamation
d. None of the above
185. Who won the Swachh Survekshan award in 2025?
a. Ambikapur
b. Mysore
c. Indore
d. Chandigarh
186. Who is not member of 'SAARC' in the following?
a. Afghanistan
b. Myanmar
c. Bangladesh
d. Bhutan
187. Total number of Fundamental Duties provided under the Constitution of India are
a. 11
b. 10
c. 9
d. 8
188. Which Indian recently received the highest civilian ‘Grand-Collar of the Order’ award of Timor Leste?
a. Droupadi Murmu
b. Narendra Modi
c. Neeraj Chopra
d. S. Jaishankar
189. Recently, who has been appointed as Indian Ambassador to the United States?
a. Vijay Keshav
b. Vikrant Singh
c. Amandeep Singh
d. Vinay Mohan Kwatra
190. Rajya Shakti Tilu Rauteli Award, recently seen in the news, is associated with which state?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Uttarakhand
191. Recently, which country has become the 101st member to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
a. Pakistan
b. Nepal
c. Bhutan
d. Croatia
192. India has recently launched the ‘Study in India’ campaign in which city of UAE?
a. Al Ain
b. Sharjah
c. Abu Dhabi
d. Dubai
193. India was recently elected to the GloBE Network’s Steering Committee. What is the objective of the GloBE Network?
a. Promote international trade
b. Regulate financial markets
c. Develop economic policies
d. Combat corruption through collaboration and information sharing
194. ‘Cancer Moonshot initiative’, recently highlighted in news, is launched by which countries?
a. India, Russia, France, Japan
b. China, United Kingdom and France
c. Indonesia and Malaysia
d. United States, Australia, India, and Japan
195. India hosts the second edition of the ‘Global Food Regulators Summit’ in which city?
a. Lucknow
b. New Delhi
c. Pune
d. Indore
196. “Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana”, recently seen in the news, is launched by which state government?
a. Maharashtra
b. Rajasthan
c. Kerala
d. Gujarat
197. Which day is observed as “International Day of Democracy” annually?
a. 18 September
b. 17 September
c. 15 September
d. 16 September
198. Which day is celebrated as “Hindi Diwas” in India?
a. 17 September
b. 16 September
c. 15 September
d. 14 September
199. Which one of the following is known as "Earth Summit?
a. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change.
b. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development.
c. Convention on Biological Diversity
d. None of these
200. Which one of the Chief Justice of India was Vice President of India from 1979 to 1984?
a. M. Hidayatullah
b. S.M. Sikri
c. A.N. Ray
d. K. Subba Rao
