UTTARAKHAND MOCK TEST-IV
1. Under Order V Rule 9(3) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the expenses for the service of summons to the defendant have to be born by
a. the plaintiff
b. the defendant
c. the court
d. partly by plaintiff and partly by defendant
2. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 pleading can be amended
a. before the 1st appellate court
b. before the trial court
c. before the 2nd appellate court
d. before (a) and (c) only
3. On which one of the following grounds under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a warrant of arrest against a "judgment debtor" may be cancelled by the Court?
a. serious illness
b. appearance in marriage of his son
c. to cast vote in general elections
d. None of the above
4. How much salary of a person can be attached in execution of a decree for maintenance?
a. irst one thousand rupees and 1/3 of the remainder
b. First one thousand rupees and 2/3 of the remainder
c. 2/3 of the salary
d. 1/3 of the salary
5. Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is clearly in the nature of a power to issue a writ of certiorari?
a. Section 11
b. Section 105
c. Section 115
d. Section 122
6. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "every suit shall be instituted by presenting a plaint in duplicate to the court or such officer as it appoints in this behalf." This is provided under
a. Section 28
b. Section 20
c. Order 3 Rule 1
d. Order 4 Rule 1
7. Which one of the following is not suit of Civil Nature?
a. Suits for rights to hereditary offices.
b. Suits for rights of franchise
c. Suits for recovery of voluntary payments of offerings
d. Suits relating to right of worship
8. Under which one of the following Sections of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Legal Representative" has been explained?
a. Section 2(11)
b. Section 2(13)
c. Section 2(10)
d. Section 2(12)
9. The courts of small causes under Section 3 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is subordinate to which of the following
a. High Court only
b. District Court only
c. Neither (A) nor (B)
d. Both (A) and (B)
10. Assertion (A): A civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature.
Reason (R) The cognizance of a civil suit should be expressly barred.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
11. A civil court cannot issue commission in the following case-
a. For examining a person
b. For examining accounts
c. To execute partition
d. To execute a decree
12. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Interpleader Suit-Order 35 CPC
2. Judgment and Decree - Order 20 CPC
3. Withdrawal and Adjustment of Suits - Order 23 CPC
4. Payment into Court-Order 21 CPC
Select the correct answer-
Code –
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
13. What shall be the status of a suit on party's death?
a. The death of plaintiff will abate the suit.
b. The death of the defendant will abate the suit.
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. The death of plaintiff or defendant will not cause the suit to abate if the right to sue survives.
14. Where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under Orders IX rule 8 of CPC, the Plaintiff:
a. may bring a fresh suit.
b. shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit.
c. may bring fresh suit with the permission of court.
d. None of these
15. A' deposits a box of jewels with 'B', as his agent. 'C' alleges that the jewels were wrongfully obtained from him by 'A', and claims them from 'B'. Here 'B'?
a. Can institute inter-pleader suit against 'A'
b. Can institute Inter-pleader suit against 'C'
c. cannot institute an interpleader-suit against A and C
d. Can institute Inter-pleader suit against 'A' and 'C' both
16. Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with Orders from which appeal lies?
a. Section 35 A
b. Section 104
c. Section 95
d. Section 91
17. Which of the following deals with service of process on pleader in the Code of Civil Procedure?
a. Order 3, Rule 5
b. Order 2, Rule 2
c. Order 7, Rule 3
d. Order 4, Rule 8
18. "It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted". It is called as: -
a. Affidavit
b. Written-statement
c. Counter-claim
d. Plaint
19. Which one of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code 1908 is related to affidavit: -
a. Order 17
b. Order 19
c. Order 26
d. Order 39
20. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means: -
a. A court situated outside India
b. A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
c. A court situated in India, applying foreign law
d. All of the above
21. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Dowry death”?
a. Sec.79
b. Sec.82
c. Sec.81
d. Sec.80
22. The term “dowry” shall have the same meaning as in
a. section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
b. section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
c. section 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
d. None of the above
23.Under BNS -What is the punishment whoever, dishonestly or with a fraudulent intention, goes through the ceremony of being married, knowing that he is not thereby lawfully married?
a. six years, and shall also be liable to fine.
b. seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
c. Five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
d. Ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
24. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Murder”?
a. Sec.101
b. Sec.299
c. Sec.100
d. Sec.300
25. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Abetment of suicide”?
a. Sec.110
b. Sec.109
c. Sec.107
d. Sec.108
26. Which hurt is designated as “grievous hurt”?
a. Emasculation
b. Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
c. Privation of any member or joint
d. All of the above
27. Which provision of BNS deals with the term “Assault or criminal force to deter public servant from discharge of his duty”?
a. Sec.130
b. Sec.131
c. Sec.132
d. Sec.133.
28. Which chapter of BNS, 2023 deals with -OF ABETMENT, CRIMINAL CONSPIRACY AND ATTEMPT?
a. CHAPTER III
b. CHAPTER IV
c. CHAPTER V
d. CHAPTER VI
29. Which provision of BNS deals with “Concealing with intent to facilitate design to wage war”?
a. Sec.153
b. Sec.150
c. Sec.151
d. Sec.152
30. Which provision of BNS deals with “Unlawful assembly”?
a. Sec.186
b. Sec.187
c. Sec.189
d. Sec.188
31. Which Section of Indian Penal Code contains doctrine of transferred malice?
a. Section 299
b. Section 300
c. Section 301
d. Section 302
32. The offence of 'abetment' is constituted by:
a. Aiding
b. Conspiring
c. Instigating
d. All the above
33. 'A' is a national champion of swimming in pond. He could have saved the child, but did not do so. The child drowned. Is 'A' guilty of-
a. Murder
b. abetment of Suicide
c. culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d. no offence
34. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Navtej Singh Johar V. Union of India - Section 498A, I.P.C.
b. K. N. Mehra V. State of Rajasthan - Section 378, I.P.C.
c. Niharendu Datt Majumdar V. Emperor - Section 124A, I.P.C.
d. State of Haryana V. Raja Ram. Section 361, I.P.C.
35. ‘A' commits theft on the property in the possession of 'B' and while committing theft 'A' has a loaded pistol under his garments, kept for the purpose of hurting 'B' in case if 'B' resist.
The offence committed by 'A' is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 381
b. Section 382
c. Section 379
d. Section 390
36. ‘A' Incites a dog to spring upon 'Z' without Z’s consent with the Intention to annoy "Z", Here 'A' has committed an offence of
a. Criminal force
b. Criminal assault
c. Grievous hurt
d. Defamation
37. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-1 List -2
A) Delivery of Property 1) Criminal breach of trust
B) Taking of Property 2) Criminal misappropriation of property
C) Entrustment of Property 3) Theft
D) Convertibility of property got innocently
to one's own use 4) Extortion
Codes:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 1 2 4
38. No right of private defence of property is available against the offence of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Theft
c. Robbery
d. Criminal Trespass
39. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an extension of the principle of 'respondeat superior' to criminal law?
a. Section 121
b. Section 159
c. Section 120A
d. Section 154
40. Which of the following case is related to the defence of necessity?
a. D.P.P. vs. Beard
b. R. vs. Dudley and Stephen
c. R. vs. Lipman
d. Case of McNaughten
41.Under which Section of Indian Penal Code Right to Private Defence of Property extends to causing death?
a. Section 103
b. Section 102
c. Section 101
d. Section 100
42. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with the defence of involuntary intoxication?
a. Section 84
b. Section 85
c. Section 86
d. Section 87
43. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, the word 'offence' has been defined?
a. Section 39
b. Section 40
c. Section 41
d. Section 42
44. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of:
a. wrongful restraint
b. kidnapping
c. Abduction
d. Abetment
45. A' signs his own name to a Bill of Exchange, intending that it may be believed that the bill was drawn by another person of same name. 'A' has committed the offence of
a. Cheating
b. Mischief
c. Forgery
d. Fabricating false evidence
46. 'A' puts jewels into a box belonging to 'B' with the intention that they may be found in that box, and this circumstances may cause 'B' to be convicted of theft. 'A' has committed the offence under which Section of IPC given below?
a. Section 191
b. Section 193
c. Section 194
d. Section 192
47. "A" a police officer tortures "Z" in order to induce "Z" to confess that he has committed a crime. Here "A" is guilty of the offence of:-
a. Assault
b. Causing hurt to extort confession
c. Causing criminal force
d. Attempt to cause hurt
48. A, in good faith believing property belonging to Z, to be his own property, take the property out of B's possession. A is guilty of
a. Theft
b. criminal misappropriation of property
c. criminal breach of trust
d. no offence
49. Under which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 causing death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide?
a. Explanation I of Section 299
b. Explanation II of Section 299
c. Explanation III of Section 299
d. Explanation IV of Section 300
50. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, punishes to misconduct in public by a drunken person?
a. Section 507
b. Section 508
c. Section 509
d. Section 510
51. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant the opinion of the certifying authority which issued the electronic signature?
a. Section 45-A
b. Section 47-A
c. Section 53-A
d. Section 73-A
52. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall be: -
a. Competent witness
b. Incompetent witness
c. Competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of other
d. Competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of other
53. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which following sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Section 30
b. Section 29
c. Section 27
d. Section 31
54. Dying declaration to be admissible in evidence which one of the following is not necessary?
a. That the person making of the statement was under the expectation of death.
b. That it relates to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death.
c. That it should relate to the cause of death of the person making such statement.
d. All of these
55. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, makes the provision that there shall be no new trial on the ground of improper admission or rejection of evidence?
a. Section 163
b. Section 166
c. Section 165
d. Section 167
56. Which of the following questions shall not be asked in examining a witness?
A. Only that which is intended to insult.
B. Only that which is intended to annoy.
C. Only that which appears to the court needlessly offensive.
D. All of these
57. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under the law of evidence?
a. Expert's opinion
b. Dying declaration
c. Confession
d. Res gestae
58. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act is founded upon the doctrine laid down in which one of the following case?
a. Banwari Lal Vs. Sukhdarshan
b. B. Coleman Vs. P.P. Das Gupta
c. Vishnu Datt Sharma Vs. Dayasharan
d. Pikard Vs. Sears
59. Who can make an admission under Indian Evidence Act?
a. Witness to a Proceeding
b. A Party to Proceeding
c. A Third Party
d. The Court
60. Which one of the following is not a case on 'Dying Declaration"?
a. Rattan Gaud Vs. State of Bihar
b. Paniben Vs. State of Gujarat
c. Sita Ram Vs. State of U.P.
d. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Maharashtra
61. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 'A', is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. It is proved that he was in possession of a particular stolen article. The above is the illustration of
a. Section 13 of the Evidence Act
b. Section 8 of the Evidence Act
c. Section 12 of the Evidence Act
d. Section 14 of the Evidence Act
62. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provision relating to "Examination-in-Chief" is provided?
a. Section 137
b. Section 136
c. Section 138
d. Section 139
63. "A confession even consists of conversation to oneself, for it is not necessary for the relevancy of a confession that it should be communicated to some other person", was held in the case of
a. Boota Singh V. State of Punjab
b. Sahoo V. State of U.P.
c. Nishikant Jha V. State of Bihar
d. Shankaria V. State of Rajasthan
64. Which chapter of BSA, 2023 deals with ‘ESTOPPEL’?
a. CHAPTER V
b. CHAPTER VI
c. CHAPTER VII
d. CHAPTER VIII
65. What does Section 128 of BSA, 2023 protect?
a. Communications before marriage only
b. All communications between spouses, before, during, or after marriage
c. Communications made during marriage only
d. Only written communications during marriage
66. What does Section 134 of the BSA, 2023 protect?
a. Communications with medical advisers
b. Communications with legal advisers
c. Communications between spouses
d. Communications with government officials
67. According to Section 23(1) of BSA, 2023 which of the following is correct?
a. Confessions to police are admissible if recorded in writing.
b. Any confession made to a police officer is admissible in court.
c. Only voluntary confessions to a police officer are admissible.
d. No confession made to a police officer shall be proved against the accused
68. What does Section 29 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 primarily deal with?
a. Relevancy of entries in public or official records made in performance of duty
b. Confessions to police officers
c. Admission of expert opinions
d. Statements in maps, charts, and plans
69. According to Section 35 of BSA, 2023 a “final judgment, order or decree of a competent Court or Tribunal” in which jurisdictions is considered relevant?
a. Criminal and civil jurisdictions
b. Probate, matrimonial, admiralty, or insolvency jurisdictions
c. Taxation and environmental jurisdictions
d. Juvenile and family jurisdictions
70. What does Section 41(1) of the BSA, 2023 state?
a. Expert handwriting analysis is mandatory in all cases.
b. A person must have personally seen another write to testify on authorship.
c. Only certified handwriting experts can give a relevant opinion.
d. The court may rely on opinion of anyone acquainted with the handwriting of the alleged writer.
71. What power does Section 168 of the BSA grant to a judge?
a. To ask any question to any witness or party and order production of documents or things
b. To dismiss a case at any stage
c. To grant bail unilaterally
d. To compel a witness to testify even if inadmissible
72. What is the main subject of Section 165 of BSA 2023?
a. Examination of witnesses
b. Production of documents or things
c. Power to summon witnesses
d. Evidence of electronic records
73. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with “Refreshing memory”?
a. Section 160
b. Section 161
c. Section 162
d. Section 163
74. Section 145 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Witnesses to character.
b. Leading questions.
c. Evidence as to matters in writing.
d. None of the above
75. Which chapter of BSA, 2023 deals with ‘OF EXAMINATION OF WITNESSES’?
a. CHAPTER XII
b. CHAPTER IX
c. CHAPTER XI
d. CHAPTER X
76. Section 121 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecution for rape.
b. doctrine of estoppel.
c. Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
d. Birth during marriage, conclusive proof of legitimacy.
77. A witness is asked whether he was not dismissed from a situation for dishonesty. He denies it. Evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty.
a. The evidence is not admissible
b. The evidence is admissible
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
78. A sues B for the price of goods sold and delivered to B. C says that he delivered the goods to B. Evidence is offered to show that, on a previous occasion, he said that he had not delivered goods to B.
a. The evidence is admissible.
b. The evidence is not admissible.
c. Only b
d. None of the above
79. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with Burden of proof as to ownership?
a. Section 116
b. Section 115
c. Section 114
d. Section 113
80. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with ‘Estoppel of acceptor of bill of exchange, bailee or licensee’?
a. Section 121
b. Section 122
c. Section 124
d. Section 123
81. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, provides capacity to take in adoption a child to a female Hindu?
a. Section 11
b. Section 10
c. Section 9
d. Section 8
82. The Tagore case (Jatindra Mohan Tagore v. Ganendra Mohan Tagore) laid down which one of the following rule of Hindu law?
a. A Hindu cannot dispose of his property by gift intervene in favour of an unborn child.
b. Karta of a Joint Hindu Family has power to intervene into family matters.
c. A partition of joint family property can be reopened.
d. Adoption of an orphan is not valid.
83. Section 14 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to:
a. Movable Property
b. Immovable Property
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
84. On which date, The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 came into force
a. 17th May
b. 17th June
c. 17th April
d. 17th July
85. Degrees of prohibited relationship is applicable between two persons if they are related by:
a. full blood
b. half or uterine blood
c. Adoption
d. All of these
86. Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 came into effect on:
a. 9th September
b. 9th August
c. 9th July
d. 9th June
87. The right of the child in the womb at the time of the death of the intestate are provided in the Hindu Succession Act under:
a. Section 22
b. Section 21
c. Section 20
d. Section 19
88. "A Hindu is born and also can be made" it was held in which case
a. Abraham V. Abraham
b. Sukhdev V. Santosh
c. Sukhama V. Niranjan
d. Dastane V. Dastane
89. Which section of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 deals with Welfare of minor to be paramount consideration?
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 12
d. Section 13
90. Under which circumstances a person not entitled to act as the natural guardian of a minor?
a. if he has ceased to be a Hindu
b. if he has completely and finally renounced the world by becoming a hermit (vanaprastha) or an ascetic (yati or sanyasi).
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
91. Which section of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with Maintenance of widowed daughter-in-law?
a. Section 15
b. Section 19
c. Section 17
d. Section 18
92. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 Persons who may be adopted are:
a. he or she is a Hindu
b. he or she has not already been adopted
c. he or she has not been married
d. All of the above
93. Which chapter of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with “MAINTENANCE”?
a. CHAPTER III
b. CHAPTER II
c. CHAPTER IV
d. None of the above
94. The secondary sources of Hindu law are
a. Legislation
b. Judicial decisions
c. Justice, Equity and good conscience
d. All of these
95. A gift made during the illness of the donor is known as:
a. Hiba-bil-Illness
b. Marz-ul-Maut
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
96. What is the period of Iddat for a woman who is pregnant?
a. One menstrual cycle
b. Three months
c. Until delivery
d. One year
97. Under which school of Muslim Law is a gift of Musha considered valid?
a. Hanafi
b. Shia
c. Maliki
d. Shafei
98. The manager of a Waqf property is known as:
a. Mulla
b. Mutawalli
c. Qazi
d. mam
99. Which of the following is NOT an essential for a valid Muslim marriage?
a. Offer and acceptance
b. Competent parties
c. Free consent
d. Fosterage
100. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the provision of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, if the husband has been insane for a period of
a. 4 years
b. 5 years
c. 1 years
d. 2 years
101. A Muslim wife's right to 'dower' can be claimed as-
a. A preferential debt
b. An ordinary unsecured debt along with other creditors
c. An ordinary debt but priority over other creditors
d. A secured debt
102. A sickman makes a bequest, and being unable to speak from weakness gives a nod with his head, and he dies without regaining the power of speech, the bequest is: -
a. Void
b. Irregular
c. Valid
d. None of the above
103. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 contains-
a. 10 sections
b. 9 sections
c. 8 sections
d. 6 sections
104. In which of the following cases was it held that "in view of the provision under section 129 of the Transfer of Property Act, the provision of section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act shall not affect the validity of the gift under any rule of Mohammedan law?
a. Abdul Rahim and Ors. Vs. Sk. Abdul Zabar and Ors
b. Mustafa vs. Abu Bakr
c. Norr Sabha Khatoon Vs. MD Quasim
d. Ashiq Ali and Ors. Vs. Smt. Rasheeda Khatoon and Anr
105. In which of the following cases was it held that a child born out of a Muslim couple would be Muslim, even if he, by choice, goes to a Hindu Temple? The person would be a Muslim till the time he does not renounce his religion and converts to another religion.
a. Sarla Mudgil v. Union of India
b. Bhaiya Sher Babadur v. Bhaiya Ganga Baksh Singh
c. Lily Thomas v. Union of India
d. Azima Bibi v. Munshi Samalanand
106. Prabodh Kumar Das V. Dantamara Tea Co. Ltd. case is related with the following doctrine:
a. Doctrine of Part-Performance
b. Doctrine of Lis Pendens
c. Doctrine of Priority
d. Doctrine of Election
107. Which Section was amended by the Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act 2002?
a. Section 110
b. Section 100
c. Section 108
d. Section 106
108. Under which Section of Transfer of Property Act 'Fraudulent Transfer' is defined?
a. Section 12
b. Section 53
c. Section 35
d. Section 32
109. Bellamy V. Sabine Case is related with which doctrine?
a. Lis Pendens
b. Part-Performance
c. Doctrine of Election
d. Doctrine of Perpetuity
110. Which of the following interest is not transferable?
a. Vested Interest
b. Contingent Interest
c. Interest of Lessee
d. Spes Successions is
111. By which of the following means, transfer of actionable claim may be made?
a. By Oral Agreement
b. By Registered Instrument
c. By an instrument in writing signed by transferor
d. By a registered instrument attested by two witnesses.
112. Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with
a. Rule against perpetuity
b. Doctrine of Election
c. Doctrine of Apportionment
d. Transfer for the benefit of unborn person
113. ‘Once a mortgage always a mortgage' was laid down in which one of the following cases?
a. In Nokes & Co. Vs. Rice
b. In Alderson Vs. White
c. In Hunter Vs. Abdul Ali
d. None of these
114. A co-owner of immovable property under Transfer of Property may make a
a. valid transfer of property
b. only can give possession
c. cannot make transfer of that property
d. only can give right to use for a short period
115. He who seeks equity must do equity' is the juristic basis of which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act?
a. Section 52
b. Section 51
c. Section 50
d. Section 56
116. The provision regarding 'apportionment by time' is given under which of the following Sections of the T.P. Act?
a. Section 36
b. Section 37
c. Section 38
d. Section 39
117. A' makes an absolute gift of a house to 'B' with a direction that 'B' shall reside in it. The Gift:
a. Is not valid and direction is void
b. Is valid but direction is void
c. Is valid and direction is also valid
d. None of these
118. Within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, a charge:
a. Requires attestation and proved in the same way as a mortgage.
b. Requires attestation and does not prove as a mortgage.
c. Does not prove as a mortgage.
d. Does not require to be attested and proves in the same way as a mortgage.
119. In case of gift if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift. The gift will be:
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Subject to decision of the court
120. Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is applicable to
a. Movable property
b. Immovable property
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
121. The power to postpone the execution of death sentence is conferred on
a. The Court of Judicial Magistrate
b. The Court of District Magistrate
c. The High Court
d. The Court of Session
122. The validity of an order made under Section 144 of Cr. P.C. is
a. Three months
b. Four months
c. Two months
d. Five months
123. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: -
a. 90 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 120 days
124. Power of the court to convert summons cases into warrant cases is provided under which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C.?
a. Section 259
b. Section 249
c. Section 239
d. Section 269
125. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the Irregularities which vitiate trial have been stated in
a. Section 461
b. Section 460
c. Section 462
d. Section 450
126. In the case of a continuing offence a fresh period of limitation commences –
a. From the date of the offence
b. On the first day on which such offence comes to the knowledge of any police officer
c. On the first day on which the identity of the offender is known to the person aggrieved by the offence.
d. At every moment of time during which the offence continues.
127. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 what Is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with Imprisonment for a term exceeding 3 years?
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. No limit of period prescribed
128. The High Court may exercise its inherent power under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Section 480
b. Section 483
c. Section 481
d. Section 482
129. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the language and contents of judgment?
a. Section 351
b. Section 352
c. Section 354
d. Section 353
130. Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code, the jurisdiction of criminal court has been given for offences committed outside India?
a. Section 180
b. Section 188
c. Section 184
d. Section 178
131. What are the modes for taking cognizance of offences by the Magistrates in Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Upon receiving a complaint only
b. Upon police report only
c. Upon information other than police report only
d. All of these
132. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, who among the following is empowered to decide as to what would be the language of the Court?
a. State Government
b. Governor
c. High Court
d. District Criminal Court
133. Under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the victim of rape shall be sent to a registered medical practitioner for examination within from the time of receiving the information relating to the commission of such offence –
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
134. When an appeal has been filed under Section 374 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 against a sentence passed under Section 376- D of the Indian Penal Code, the appeal shall be disposed of
a. Within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal
b. Within a period of three months from the date of filing of such appeal.
c. Within a period of nine months from the date of filing of such appeal.
d. Within a reasonable period.
135. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 prohibits the male police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?
a. Proviso to Section 41(1)
b. Proviso to Section 42(2)
c. Proviso to Section 46(1)
d. None of the above
136. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that all offences under the Indian Penal Code, shall be investigated, inquired into according to the provisions of Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Section 8
b. Section 6
c. Section 5
d. Section 4
137. Under which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Magistrate Second Class can conduct summary trial?
a. Section 262
b. Section 261
c. Section 263
d. Section 264
138. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 the term non-cognizable offence is defined?
a. Section 2(1) (b)
b. Section 2(1)(o)
c. Section 2(1) (k)
d. Section 2(1) (n)
139. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 the term electronic communication is defined?
a. Section 2(1)(c)
b. Section 2(1)(m)
c. Section 2(1)(k)
d. Section 2(1)(i)
140. The term"offence" under section 2(q) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 means any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force and includes any act in respect of which a complaint may be made under
a. Section 20 of the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871
b. Section 21 of the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871
c. Section 22 of the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871
d. Section 24 of the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871
141. Any offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 may be tried by—
a. The high Court
b. The Court of Session
c. Any other Court by which such offence is shown in the First Schedule to be triable
d. All of the above
142. Which chapter of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with ‘ARREST OF PERSONS’?
a. CHAPTER III
b. CHAPTER VI
c. CHAPTER V
d. CHAPTER IV
143. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with that No arrest shall be made without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in case of an offence which is punishable for imprisonment of less than three years and such person is infirm or is above sixty years of age.
a. Section 31(7)
b. Section 35(5)
c. Section 36(7)
d. Section 35(7)
144. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Security for keeping peace on conviction?
a. Section 122
b. Section 125
c. Section 126
d. Section 127
145. Which magistrate may make a Conditional order for removal of nuisance under section 152 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. District Magistrate
b. Sub-divisional Magistrate
c. Executive Magistrate
d. Any of the above magistrate
146. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Procedure when investigation cannot be completed in twenty-four hours?
a. Section 187
b. Section 186
c. Section 185
d. Section 184
147. CHAPTER XIV of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with JURISDICTION OF THE CRIMINAL COURTS IN
a. INQUIRIES
b. TRIALS
c. INVESTIGATIONS
d. Both A and B
148. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with a witness or any other person may file a complaint in relation to an offence under section 232 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 216
b. Section 217
c. Section 218
d. Section 219
149. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with Prosecution for offences against marriage?
a. Section 216
b. Section 217
c. Section 218
d. Section 219
150. In every trial before a Court of Session, the prosecution shall be conducted by
a. Advocate general of state
b. a Public Prosecutor
c. Accused
d. None of the above
151. By which Amendment, Article 21-A is added in the Constitution of India?
a. 84th Amendment, 2001
b. 85th Amendment, 2001
c. 86th Amendment, 2002
d. 87th Amendment, 2003
152. The Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
a. President of India
b. Speaker of Lok Sabha
c. Vice-President
d. None of the above
153. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has power to review its own decisions?
a. Article 131
b. Article 135
c. Article 136
d. Article 137
154. Which one of the following is the official language of International Court of Justice?
a. Spanish and English
b. Russian and English
c. Arabic and English
d. French and English
155. In which one of the following Articles of the U.N. Charter provides for the expulsion of a member State?
a. Article 9
b. Article 6
c. Article 7
d. Article 8
156. "The theory of social solidarity" has been propounded by
a. Duguit
b. Ihering
c. Lloyd
d. Comte
157. "Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of essential principles of law" has been said by
a. Allen
b. Halland
c. Bentham
d. Austin
158. The book of 'Theory of Legislation' was written by
a. H.L.A. Hart
b. W. Friedmann
c. Jeremy Bentham
d. Julius Stone
159. "The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features."
This statement is of
a. Sir Ivor Jennings
b. A.V. Dicey
c. Prof K.C. Wheare
d. S.A. Desmith
160. "Disqualification on the ground of defection shall not apply in case of split in the political party."
This provision has been deleted by
a. Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
b. Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
c. Constitution (Ninety Fourth Amendment) Act, 2006
d. None of the above
161. Match list-1 with list-2 and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists-
List-1 List-2
A. Composition of General Assembly 1. Article 9
B. Composition of Security Council 2. Article 61
C. Composition of Economic and Social Council 3. Article 86
D. Composition of Trusteeship Council 4. Article 23
Code
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 1 4 2 3
162. In case of death of the President while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of
a. 1 year
b. 6 months
c. 2 years
d. 3 months
163. Which of the following Articles of U.N: Charter provides that the statute of ICJ is based on the Permanent Court of International Justice?
a. Article 89
b. Article 90
c. Article 91
d. Article 92
164. Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
a. Article 338
b. Article 338A
c. Article 340
d. Article 343
165. By which amendment Act schedule-IX was inserted in Indian Constitution?
a. 44th Amendment Act
b. 25th Amendment Act
c. 42nd Amendment Act
d. 1st Amendment Act
166. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
a. Britain
b. United States of America
c. Japan
d. China
167. Doctrine of Prospective overruling was approved for the first time in Constitutional interpretation the case of: -
a. Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
b. Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
c. A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
d. Charanjitlal Vs. Union of India
168. The head quarter of World Bank is situated at: -
a. Geneva
b. New York
c. Paris
d. Washington D.C.
169. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations?
a. Security Council
b. International Labour Organisation
c. International Court of Justice
d. General Assembly
170. Which Justice has been appointed as the first Ombudsman of India?
a. Justice D.B. Bhosle
b. Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi
c. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghosh
d. Justice Pradeep Kumar Mohanti
171. Which country has been appointed to the United Nations ISAR for the period 2025–2027 in April 2025?
a. Nepal
b. Bhutan
c. Myanmar
d. India
172. Which country passed a new law called the Act on the Promotion of Research, Development and Utilisation of AI-Related Technologies?
a. India
b. Russia
c. France
d. Japan
173. Maa Nanda-Sunanda Mahotsav, recently seen in the news, is celebrated in which state?
a. Uttarakhand
b. Haryana
c. Mizoram
d. Manipur
174. Which country is the host of Artificial Intelligence (AI) Action Summit 2025?
a. France
b. India
c. Russia
d. United States
175. Where was the first Conference for Women Peacekeepers 2025 held?
a. Chennai
b. New Delhi
c. Pune
d. Hyderabad
176. Where was the World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) 2025 organized?
a. Mumbai
b. New Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Hyderabad
177. Mpox (also known as Monkeypox), recently seen in the news, is caused by which pathogen?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Fungus
d. Protozoa
178. Llama 3.2, recently seen in the news, is an open-source AI model developed by which company?
a. Amazon
b. Microsoft
c. Meta
d. Google
179. Which country won the ICC Women’s U19 T20 World Cup 2025 title?
a. England
b. India
c. South Africa
d. Australia
180. When is the ‘International Day of Neutrality’ observed?
a. December 15
b. December 14
c. December 13
d. December 12
181. Where was the 150th Assembly of Inter-Parliamentary Union held in April 2025?
a. Tashkent, Uzbekistan
b. Geneva, Switzerland
c. Paris, France
d. New Delhi, India
182. Who has been appointed as the as the 9th Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission recently?
a. S.P.Kurdukar
b. V. Ramasubramanian
c. Ramkrishna Gavai
d. Kuldip Singh
183. Recently, who becomes the youngest female to climb highest peaks in all 7 continents?
a. Sanaya Gupta
b. Kirti Rawat
c. Pragati Bisht
d. Kaamya Karthikeyan
184. Who has been appointed as chairperson of the United Nations Internal Justice Council in December 2024?
a. Guru Prasad
b. Arijit Pasayat
c. Madan Lokur
d. Patanjali Sastri
185. Rajaji National Park, recently seen in the news, is located in which state?
a. Uttarakhand
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Karnataka
d. Bihar
186. Which organization released a report titled “Trading with Intelligence: How AI Shapes and is Shaped by International Trade”?
a. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
b. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c. World Bank
d. World Trade Organization (WTO)
187. Which organization recently released the Global Wage Report 2024-2025?
a. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
b. World Bank
c. International labour organization (ILO)
d. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
188. Which state government has recently launched Chief Minister Single Women Self-Employment Scheme?
a. Uttarakhand
b. Jharkhand
c. Odisha
d. Karnataka
189. Which country is the host of 8th Commonwealth Youth Games (CYG) 2027?
a. Malta
b. Greece
c. Bulgaria
d. Hungary
190. Who decides whether a juvenile criminal in the age group of 16–18 should be tried as an adult or not?
a. Juvenile Justice Board
b. Supreme Court
c. Chief Justice of India
d. President
191. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act was passed in which year?
a. 1985
b. 1989
c. 1987
d.1986
92. Who among the following has the power to promulgate ordinances under Article 123 of the Constitution of India?
a. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
c. The President
d. The Attorney-General
193. Which article of Indian Constitution includes the procedure for the impeachment of the President?
a. Article-61
b. Article-62
c. Article-60
d. Article-59
194. Narcotics Drug Control Bureau was established in which year?
a. 1985
b. 1986
c.1987
d. 1988
195. The “Velvet Revolution”, also known as the “Gentle Revolution”, happened in which nation/s?
a. Italy
b. Austria-Hungary
c. Czechoslovakia
d. Russia
196. Who defined Neutrality as "The attitude of impartiality adopted by Third States towards belligerents and recognized by belligerents, such attitude creating rights and duties between the impartial states and the belligerents"?
a. J. G Starke
b. L. Oppenheim
c. J. L. Brierly
d. None of the above
197. The Gati Shakti Initiative was introduced in which year?
a. 2019
b. 2020
c. 2021
d. 2022
198. The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, significantly reforms the Waqf Act, 1995, by expanding the Union's control over Waqf properties and altering the composition of Waqf Boards. The Act, which received Presidential assent on?
a. April 8, 2025
b. April 5, 2025
c. April 10, 2025
d. April 18, 2025
199. The BNS, BNSS, and BSA came into effect on:
a. January 1st, 2024
b. July 1st, 2024
c. December 25th, 2023
d. June 1st, 2024
200. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 recognized the right to form cooperative societies as:
a. A Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c)
b. A Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 43B
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
