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Uttarakhand Judiciary Mock Test - 3

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UTTARAKHAND MOCK TEST-III

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1. Which of the following suits are of civil nature?

1. Suits related to Right of Worship.

2. Suits for rights of hereditary offices.

3. Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.

4. Suits for specific relief.

Select the correct answer- Code-

a.1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1,3 and 4

2. Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code 1908, under: -

a. Order 21 Rule 30

b. Order 21 Rule 31

c. Order 21 Rule 32

d. Order 21 Rule 34

3. Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, "Second appeal" lies to the High Court only on the ground of: -

a. Question fact

b. Substantial question of law

c. Both on question of fact and law

d. Mixed question of law and fact

4. Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the: -

a. Appeal to Supreme Court

b. Appeal by indigent person

c. Appeal from appellate decrees

d. Appeal against orders

5. Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 namely: -

a. A decree holder

b. Legal representative, if the decree holder is dead

c. A person claiming under decree holder

d. Judgement-debtor

6. A "Garnishee order" under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to: -

a. Judgement debtor

b. Judgement debtor's creditor

c. Decree holder

d. Judgement debtor's debtor

7. Which provision of the code of civil procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest?

a. Order 1, Rule 1

b. Order 2, Rule 2

c. Order 1, Rule 8

d. Order 1, Rule 9

8. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of 'Res Judicata' is based?

a. Qui facit per alium facit per se

b. "Ex turpi causa non oritur action

c. Interest Reipublicae Ut Sit Finis Litium

d. Respondent superior

9. A decree may be executed by

a. Tehsildar

b. Collector

c. District Judge

d. Either by the Court which passed it or by which it is sent

10. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provisions of

a. Section 16 of the code of civil procedure

b. Section 17 of the code of civil procedure

c. Section 18 of the code of civil procedure

d. Section 19 of the code of civil procedure

11. Section 152 of the Code of Civil Procedure, empowers the courts to amend the judgments, decrees or orders in respect of

a. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes only

b. Errors arising therein from any accidental slips or omissions only

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

12. Under Section 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure an appeal can be preferred against

a. An order under Section 91 to refuse permission to institute suit

b. An order under Section 95 for compensation

c. An order under Section 92

d. All of the above

13. Order VII, Rule 10 of Civil Procedure Code provide for

a. Return of Plaint

b. Rejection of Plaint

c. Admission of Plaint

d. Both (a) and (b) above

14. Which of the following properties are liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree under Section 60 of the Civil Procedure Code?

a. Bank Notes, Cheques and Bill of Exchange

b. Cooking vessels, Beds & Wearing apparels

c. Books of Accounts

d. Stipends and Gratuity

15. Place of suing is mentioned in which part of Civil Procedure Code?

a. Part I

b. Part II

c. Part IV

d. Part III

16. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the answer using the code given below the lists

List-1 List-2

A. Execution of Decree 1. Section 50 CPC

B. Letter of request 2. Section 26 CPC

C. Legal representative 3. Section 77CPC
D. Institution of Suit 4. Section 38 CPC
Code –

A B C D

a. 1 2 4 3

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 4 3 1 2

d. 3 4 1 2

17. Movable Property' under Section 2(13) of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 includes-

a. Growing trees

b. Buildings

c. Growing crops

d. Money

18. Section 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure should be read with:

a. Order 46, Rule 1

b. Order 47, Rule 1

c. Order 47, Rule 3

d. Order 41

19. What duration formally under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been assigned to submit the written statement after the date of service of summons?

a. 30 days

b. 45 days

c. 60 days

d. None of the above

20. Every suit shall be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it. This provision relates to which section of cpc

a. Section 14

b. Section 13

c. Section 15

d. Section 18

21. Which provision of BNS deals with “Rioting”?

a. Sec.190

b. Sec.191

c. Sec.192

d. Sec.193

22. What is the punishment whoever commits an affray under BNS, 2023?

a. Two month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.

b. Five month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.

c. Twelve month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.

d. One month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.

23. Which provision of BNS deals with “Furnishing false information”?

a. Sec.219

b. Sec.210

c. Sec.211

d. Sec.212

24. Which provision of BNS deals with “Breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person”?

a. Sec.355

b. Sec.357

c. Sec.358

d. Sec.356

25. What is the punishment whoever defames another under BNS, 2023?

a. Two years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.

b. Twelve years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.

c. Six years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.

d. One years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service.

26. Which Explanation of section 356 of BNS, 2023 says - It may amount to defamation to impute anything to a deceased person, if the imputation would harm the reputation of that person if living, and is intended to be hurtful to the feelings of his family or other near relatives?

a. Explanation 4 of Sec.356

b. Explanation 3 of Sec.356

c. Explanation 2 of Sec.356

d. Explanation 1 of Sec.356

27. Which provision of BNS deals with “Intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace”?

a. Sec.352

b. Sec.357

c. Sec.356

d. Sec.358

28. Whoever commits house-trespass having taken precautions to conceal such house-trespass from some person who has a right to exclude or eject the trespasser from the building, tent or vessel which is the subject of the trespass is said to

a. Commit criminal trespass

b. Commit lurking house-trespass

c. Commit house-breaking

d. None of the above

29. Which provision of BNS deal with “Mischief”?

a. Sec.321

b. Sec.325

c. Sec.324

d. Sec.328

30. Which provision of BNS deal with “Cheating by personation”?

a. Sec.319

b. Sec.318

c. Sec.317

d. Sec.320

31. Under which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, death of assailant may be caused in right of private defence of body and property?

a. 105 and 103

b. 101 and 102

c. 100 and 103

d. 98 and 103

32. X' meets 'Y' in the way. 'Y' points out a dangerous knife to 'X' and demands his watch. 'X' gives the watch to 'Y'. What offence has been committed?

a. Theft

b. Extortion

c. Robbery

d. Assault

33. Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code

a. Defines offence of theft

b. Provides punishment of theft

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

34. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code provides punishment for causing death or resulting in persistent vegetative state of victim?

a. Section 376 A

b. Section 376 B

c. Section 376 C

d. Section 376 E

35. How many exceptions are provided in criminal defamation under Indian Penal Code?

a. 6 exceptions

b. 8 exceptions

c. 10 exceptions

d. 7 exceptions

36. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 300 Exception (1) of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is a: -

a. Question of law

b. Question of fact

c. Mixed question of law and fact

d. Presumption under law

37. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code 1860, under: -

a. Section 326 A

b. Section 228 A

c. Section 326 B

d. Section 228

38. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done: -

a. With good faith

b. Without criminal intent

c. For avoiding other greater harm

d. With inherent risk of causing harm

39. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to "A". Here: -

a. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt

b. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt

c. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder

d. Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability

40. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commit the offence of

a. Stalking

b. Sexual harassment

c. Trafficking of woman

d. Voyeurism

41. In which Section of Indian Penal Code "Unlawful Assembly" has been defined?

a. Section 141

b. Section 140

c. Section 142

d. Section 143

42. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

a. Creates a substantive offence

b. Is a rule of evidence

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. None of the above

43. Which of the following is not an element of crime?

a. Human being

b. Mensrea

c. Actus reus

d. Object

44. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-

List-1 List-2
A. Delivery of property 1. Criminal breach of trust
B. Taking of property 2. Criminal misappropriation of property
C. Entrustment of property 3. Theft
D. Convertibility of property got innocently

to one's own use 4. Extortion
Code-

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 3 1 2 4

45. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code dishonest misappropriation of property has been defined?

a. Section 406

b. Section 415

c. Section 405

d. Section 403

46. State of A.P. Vs. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following Sections of Indian Penal Code?

a. Section 501 and 502

b. Section 305 and 306

c. Sections 304-A and 304-B

d. Sections 299 and 300

47. The word “illegal” as defined in the Indian Penal Code means:

a. Everything which is an offence only

b. Everything which is prohibited by law only.

c. Everything which furnishes ground for a civil action only.

d. All of these

48. Right to private defence is available to all irrespective of gender and age of persons except

a. Aggressors

b. Officers of B.S.F.

c. Officers of armed forces

d. Police officers

49. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Penal Code?

a. Section 93-Communication made in good faith

b. Section 95-Act causing slight harm

c. Section 54-A-Definition of appropriate government'

d. Section 54-Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for life

50. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications?

a. Section 128 and 125

b. Section 129 and 130

c. Section 126 and 127

d. Section 131 and 132

51. The provisions relating to the 'Burden of proof' have been provided under:

a. Section 91-100 of Indian Evidence Act

b. Section 84-90 of Indian Evidence Act

c. Section 101-114 A of Indian Evidence Act

d. Section 115-118 of Indian Evidence Act

52. Important case related to 'Identification Parade' is

a. Ramnathan V. State of Tamil Nadu

b. Ram Lochan V. State of West Bengal

c. Queen Empress V. Abdullah

d. All of these

53. Under Section 85-C of the Indian Evidence Act, the presumption as to electronic signature certificates correctness, the court:

a. May presume

b. Shall presume

c. Shall not presume

d. May not presume

54. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, "Presumption as to dowry death" is provided?

a. Section 111-A

b. Section 112

c. Section 113-A

d. Section 113-B

55. Which one of the following Section Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by Section 92 and Schedule II of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

a. Section 154(2)

b. Section 65

c. Section 67

d. Section 67-A

56. Under Indian Evidence Act, leading questions may generally be asked in

a. Cross-examination

b. Examination in-chief

c. Re-examination

d. All of these

57. Which one of the following under the Indian Evidence Act, is not a kind of estoppel?

a. Estoppel by will

b. Estoppel by deed

c. Estoppel by conduct

d. Estoppel by record

58. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, admissibility of evidence shall be decided by the Judge?

a. Section 139

b. Section 138

c. Section 137

d. Section 136

59. The case, 'Queen Empress V. Abdullah' is related with

a. Burden of proof

b. Privileged communication

c. Confession

d. Dying declaration

60. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under: -

a. Section 32 (4)

b. Section 32 (1)

c. Section 32 (2)

d. Section 32 (7)

61. The term "Judicial notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means: -

a. To recognise without proof something as existing

b. To ask for evidence

c. Information given to the court

d. Notice given by the court

62. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under: -

a. Section 148

b. Section 149

c. Section 147

d. Such questions cannot be asked

63. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about: -

a. Secondary Evidence

b. Circumstantial Evidence

c. Documentary Evidence

d. Oral Evidence

64. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872: -

a. Probate

b. Admiralty

c. Insolvency

d. Revenue

65. Where a document is executed in several parts, there: -

a. Only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document

b. Each part cannot be primary evidence of the document

c. Each part is a primary evidence of the document

d. Each counter part is secondary evidence

66. "Nothing in section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence" is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under: -

a. Section 129

b. Section 128

c. Section 127

d. Section 126

67. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Bombay A.I.R-1958 S.C. 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence: -

a. Dying declaration

b. Estoppel

c. Admission

d. Confession

68. The fact of which the court will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872: -

a. Need to be proved

b. Need not to be proved

c. Is optional to be proved

d. Is better to be proved

69. What fundamental legal principle does Section 104 of the BSA establish?

a. The defendant must always prove innocence

b. The person asserting a fact bears the burden of proving it

c. The court must presume facts in favour of the plaintiff

d. Burden of proof lies on the government in all cases

70. Which of the following scenarios correctly illustrates Section 104?

a. B must prove that A’s allegations are false, even if A provides no proof

b. A claims B is guilty; the court decides without evidence

c. A must prove B committed the crime if A wants B punished

d. The court can presume B's guilt if societal pressure exists

71. What does Section 108 of the BSA, 2023 primarily address?

a. Burden of proof on the accused for general or special exceptions

b. Burden of proof on prosecution

c. Admissibility of digital evidence

d. Estoppel principles

72. What is the time period mentioned in Section 110 BSA?

a. 7 years

b. 10 years

c. 21 years

d. 30 years

73. Section 116 of the BSA, 2023, largely corresponds to which provision of the old Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

a. Section 111

b. Section 112

c. Section 113

d. Section 114

74. The time frame specified under Section 116 of BSA, 2023 for the birth to qualify for the concurrence of legitimacy is:

a. During the marriage only.

b. Within 100 days after the dissolution of marriage.

c. Within 280 days after the dissolution of marriage, with the mother remaining unmarried.

d. Any time after the marriage if no proof contradicts paternity.

75. In Section 117 of BSA, 2023 the term “cruelty” is defined by reference to which provision?

a. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023

b. Indian Evidence Act, 1872

c. Section 86 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023

d. Section 86 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

76. Under section 117 of BSA, 2023 within what time frame must the suicide have occurred for the presumption to apply?

a. Within one year of marriage

b. Within three years of marriage

c. Any time after marriage

d. Within seven years of marriage

77. Section 119 of the BSA, 2023 allows the court to:

a. Must presume existence of certain facts

b. May presume existence of certain facts

c. Cannot presume anything

d. Can only presume facts in criminal cases

78. Which of the following best describes the term “dowry death” under Section 118 of BSA, 2023?

a. Not defined anywhere in the BSA

b. Defined by judicial interpretation only

c. Defined in Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Defined independently within Section 118

79. Which earlier provision of the Indian Evidence Act corresponded to the current Section 118 of the BSA?

a. Section 112

b. Section 113B

c. Section 114

d. Section 115

80. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which deals with the right to proceeds for revenue compensation is based on

a. Doctrine of contribution

b. Doctrine of election

c. Doctrine of marshalling

d. Doctrine of substituted security

81. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, sale is a transfer of

a. A right to enjoy immovable property

b. An interest in a specific immovable property

c. Ownership

d. None of the above

82. Which one of the following is a transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

a. Charge

b. Partition

c. Surrender

d. Transfer of debt

83. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following properties may be transferred?

a. Mere right to sue

b. Actionable claim

c. An easementary right from the dominant heritage

d. Right to future maintenance

84. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, remedy of 'foreclosure' is available under which one of the following mortgages?

a. Mortgage by conditional sale

b. English mortgage

c. Usufructuary mortgage

d. Simple mortgage

85. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when can an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer for his benefit?

a. Upon his birth

b. Upon completing his majority age

c. Upon his marriage

d. None of the above

86. According to Section 3 of the Transfer Property Act, 1882 'Instrument' means

a. Testamentary instrument

b. Non-testamentary instrument

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. None of the above

87. Within the meaning of Section 51 of TP Act, a transferee who has made improvements to a property in good faith, believing they have a valid title-

a. Is not entitled to the value of improvements

b. Is entitled to the value of improvements

c. Has conditional entitlement to the value of improvements

d. None of the above

88. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 relates to oral transfer?

a. Section 6

b. Section 7

c. Section 8

d. Section 9

89. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Transfer by ostensible owner-Section 41

b. Doctrine of part performance-Section 51

c. Fraudulent transfer-Section 53

d. Doctrine of lis pendens-Section 52

90. Which of the following statements about a gift under the Transfer of Property Act is true?

a. A gift requires consideration.

b. A gift can only be for immovable property.

c. A gift can be revoked unilaterally.

d. A gift must be in writing and registered.

91. The provisions regarding transfer of actionable claims are mention under Transfer of Property Act in

a. Section 131

b. Section 130

c. Section 122

d. Section 125

92. A lease can be determined by:

a. By Efflux of time

b. By Implied surrender

c. By Forfeiture

d. All of these

93. Under Transfer of Property Act gift of future property is

a. Valid

b. Voidable

c. Void

d. Irregular

94. How many witnesses are required for attesting an instrument under Transfer of Property Act?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 4

d. 2

95. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. a search warrant is issued?

a. Section 91

b. Section 92

c. Section 94

d. Section 93

96. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. cognizable offence has been defined?

a. Section 2(h)

b. Section 2(c)

c. Section 2(a)

d. Section 2(b)

97. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

a. Section 42 Cr.P.C.- Arrest on refusal to give name and residence

b. Section 43 Cr.P.C.-Arrest how made

c. Section 44 Cr.P.C. When police may arrest without warrant

d. Section 41 Cr.P.C.-Arrest by Magistrate

98. Which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that "no Judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested"?

a. Section 479

b. Section 478

c. Section 475

d. Section 471

99. Which Provision of the Cr.P.C. resembles with Habeas Corpus Writ?

a. Section 91

b. Section 95

c. Section 97

d. Section 92

100. Who is given protection from arrest under Section 45 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

a. President of India

b. Members of Parliament

c. Judicial Officers

d. Members of armed forces

101. A Session Judge, under Section 9(2) of Cr.P.C. is appointed by the-

a. District Magistrate

b. State Government

c. High Court

d. None of the above

102. Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence can be granted by

a. Magistrate first class in any part of India

b. Magistrate having Jurisdiction to try the offence

c. Magistrate in any part of State

d. Session Judge

103. When the accused is aggrieved by the report of the Psychologist as to his unsoundness of mind, he may appeal to –

a. Medical Board

b. High Court

c. Session Court

d. Magistrate hearing the case

104. Which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that "no appeal to lie unless otherwise provided"?

a. Section 371

b. Section 372

c. Section 378

d. Section 379

105. The maxim "Nemo debet bis vexari pro eadem causa" finds place in which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

a. Section 301

b. Section 291

c. Section 299

d. Section 300

106. The provision of examination of arrested person by medical officer is provided under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure?

a. Section 51

b. Section 55

c. Section 54

d. Section 57

107. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 has defined the word 'offence'?

a. Section 2(o)

b. Section 2(b)

c. Section 2(m)

d. Section 2(n)

108. Recently in which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has given directions for the medical treatment of the victim of acid attack?

a. Jagdar Singh v. State of Haryana

b. State of M.P. v. Madan Lal

c. Laxmi v. Union of India

d. None of the above

109. Which Section of Cr. P.C. authorises the Public Prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution?

a. Section 321

b. Section 322

c. Section 320

d. Section 322

110. Who is authorised to appoint Public Prosecutor for a District?

a. High Court

b. District Magistrate

c. District Judge

d. State Government

111. Which section of the BNSS empowers the police to conduct zero FIR?

a. Section 180

b. Section 107

c. Section 178

d. Section 173

112. Under the BNSS, what is required for the e-FIR to be valid?

a. The signature of the police officer

b. The signature of the complainant within 3 days

c. The physical presence of the complainant

d. The magistrate’s approval

113. What change has been made to Section 144-A of the CrPC in the BNSS?

a. It has been revised to provide more powers to District Magistrates

b. It has been made applicable to only metropolitan areas

c. It has been deleted

d. It has been expanded to include power to arrest

114. Which section of the BNSS deals with the forensic investigation requirement for crimes punishable with 7 or more years of imprisonment?

a. Section 176

b. Section 185

c. Section 107

d. Section 180

115. Under the BNSS, which section deals with Trial to be conducted by Public Prosecutor?

a. Section 248

b. Section 212

c. Section 187

d. Section 175

116. Which of the following statements best describes the provision related to “summary trials” under BNSS, 2023?

a. Summary trials have been abolished to ensure a full trial in every case

b. Magistrates can conduct summary trials for offences punishable up to 3 years

c. Only High Courts can authorize summary trials under BNSS

d. Summary trials are only allowed for compoundable offences.

117. Which of the following statements regarding the provision of ‘Zero FIR’ under BNSS is correct?

a. It has been abolished to reduce misuse

b. It can only be filed at the police station where the offence occurred

c. It allows victims to file FIRs at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction.

d. It applies only to offences against women.

118. Which authority has been empowered under BNSS, 2023 to authorize preventive detention for up to 90 days in certain cases?

a. Executive Magistrate

b. Chief Judicial Magistrate

c. Superintendent of Police

d. District Magistrate

119. Under BNSS, 2023, what is the maximum period within which an investigation must be completed for offences punishable with imprisonment of less than 10 years?

a. 30 days

b. 180 days

c. 90 days

d. 60 days

120. Which of the following provisions has been newly introduced under BNSS, 2023 to promote the use of technology in criminal procedure?

a. Confession to police made admissible

b. Introduction of plea bargaining

c. Recording of search and seizure via audio-video means

d. Arrest without warrant for all cognizable offences

121. Which court will grant the anticipatory bail under Section 438 of Cr. P.C.?

a. High Court

b. Session Court

c. Judicial Magistrate First Class

d. Session Court or High Court

122. Which Section of Cr. P.C. deals with case diary?

a. Section 161

b. Section 172

c. Section 173

d. Section 165

123. Section 164 of Cr. P.C. provides about which of the following?

a. Investigation procedure

b. Expert witnesses

c. Examination of witnesses by police

d. Recording of confession and statement

124. In which case Supreme Court held that only a legally wedded wife can claim maintenance under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code?

a. Savitaben Somabhai Bhatia Vs. State of Gujarat

b. S.K. Butt Vs. State of U.P.

c. Rajeev Choudhary Vs. State

d. Janak Singh Vs. State of U.P.

125. What is the term for the gift of property made by one Muslim to another?

a. Hiba

b. Waqf

c. Zakat

d. Sadaqah

126. What is the primary source of Muslim law?

a. Statutes

b. Precedent

c. Customs

d. The Quran and Sunnah

127. A Muslim can inherit property from his/her deceased spouse according to which law?

a. Only Hanafi law

b. Only Shia law

c. Muslim Law

d. Hindu law

128. A Muslim man can marry:

a. Up to four wives simultaneously

b. An unlimited number of wives

c. Only one wife at a time

d. Two wives, but the second marriage is considered irregular

129. Khula under Muslim law refers to

a. Divorce by mutual consent

b. Divorce initiated by wife and accepted by husband

c. A temporary marriage

d. An irregular marriage

130. Which one of the following grounds is not available to a Muslim wife to seek dissolution of marriage under Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939?

a. Cruelty of husband

b. Impotency of husband

c. Option of puberty

d. Change of religion by husband

131. Divorce by mutual consent in Muslim law is called

a. Hadith

b. Mubarat

c. Mutah

d. Mehr

132. The most approved form of divorce under Muslim law is

a. Talaq Hasan

b. Talaq-e-Tafweez

c. Triple Talaq

d. Talaq Ahsan

133. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 enables a Muslim woman to

a. Obtain divorce against the wishes of her husband

b. Retain the custody of her children after divorce

c. Claim maintenance from her husband

d. Retain only her Mahr amount after her marriage

134. A divorced Muslim woman in order to remarry her former husband has to observe the procedure of

a. Lian

b. Mubaarat

c. Iddat

d. Nikah Halala

135. Under the Waqf Act, 1995 which section deal with Establishment and constitution of Central Waqf Council?

a. Section 10

b. Section 9

c. Section 8

d. Section 7

136. Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (2017) case is related with

a. Triple Talaq

b. Muta marriage

c. Mehr

d. Divorce

137. The Hindu Succession Act,2005, abolishes

a. Sati system

b. Caste system

c. The doctrine of the right survivorship

d. Untouchability

138. The marriage may be solemnized between two Hindus if

a. Bride completes the age of 21years and bridegroom completes the age of 18 years

b. Bride completes the age of 14 years and bridegroom completes the age of 18 years

c. Bride completes the age of 18 years and bridegroom completes the age of 18 years

d. Bride completes the age of 18 years and bridegroom completes the age of 21 years

139. Under which section of Hindu Marriage act included prohibited relationships?

a. Section 3 (e)

b. Section 3 (f)

c. Section 3(d)

d. Section 3(g)

140. Section 26 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides

a. Adoption

b. Custody of minor children

c. Right in mother’s womb.

d. Inheritance

141. The person who is related to another through uterine blood but not wholly through males will be called ___ under The Hindu Succession Act, 1956

a. Cognate

b. Agnate

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

142. The "Breakdown theory" of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955: -

a. Section 13 (1)

b. Section 13 (1A)

c. Section 13 (2)

d. Section 13 B

143. Punishment for violation of Clause III of Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act has been provided in which of the following Sections?

a. Section 5

b. Section 8

c. Section 18(b)

d. Section 18(a)

144. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court has directed that marriages of all persons, belongs to any religion, be registered in their respective states where marriage is solemnised, if they are citizens of India?

a. Githa Hariharan Vs. Reserve Bank of India

b. John Vallamattom Vs. Union of India

c. Seema vs. Ashwani Kumar

d. None of these

145. The property of a Hindu woman dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon: -

a. Heirs of husband

b. Heirs of father

c. Sons and daughters and the husband

d. Heirs of mother

146. Which of the following is a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955: -

a. Adultery

b. Cruelty

c. Desertion

d. All of the above

147. When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted, the adopter must be senior to it in age by at least: -

a. 18 years

b. 14 years

c. 16 years

d. 21 years

148. Right of a child in womb is given under which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Succession Act?

a. Section 20

b. Section 21

c. Section 22

d. Section 23

149. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into force on

a. 26th January, 1955

b. 15th August, 1955

c. 30th January, 1955

d. 18th May, 1955

150. Which section of transfer of property act deals with implied contracts by mortgagor?

a. Section 64

b. Section 62

c. Section 65

d. Section 60

151. On which date did the 'United Nations' adopted the 'Universal Declaration of Human Rights'?

a. 20th October, 1945

b. 24th October, 1945

c. 26th June, 1945

d. 10th December, 1948

152. How many members are in Security council?

a. 5 Permanent

b. 10 Permanent

c. 5 Permanent and 10 Temporary

d. None of these

153. The term 'United Nations' was suggested by

a. Franklin D. Roosevelt

b. Churchill

c. T.V. Soong

d. Maxim Maximovich Litvinov

154. Who among the following put the International Law as positive morality?

a. Holland

b. Savigny

c. Bentham

d. Austin

155. In which of the following states, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in India?

a. Karnataka

b. Kerala

c. Tamil Nadu

d. West Bengal

156. Which act abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy in its place?

a. Indian Councils Act, 1909

b. Government of India Act, 1919

c. Government of India Act, 1935

d. None of the above

157. Which of the following amendment is related to the formation of cooperative societies?

a. 97th Amendment Act of 2011

b. 42nd Amendment Act of 1976

c. 44th Amendment Act of 1974

d. 86th Amendment Act of 2002

158. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under which act of Parliament?

a. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1958

b. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1967

c. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

d. vices Authorities Act, 1990

159. Who can appoint a judge of a high court as an acting chief justice of the high court?

a. Parliament

b. Chief Justice of India

c. President

d. Governor

160. In which case Supreme Court laid down propositions for imposition of President’s Rule in a state under Article 356?

a. Keshvananda Bharti case

b. S.R. Bommai case

c. Minerva Mills case

d. None of the above

161. Under Indian Constitution "To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" is a

a. Directive Principles of State Policies

b. Fundamental Right

c. Fundamental Duty

d. A Social morality

162. By which one of the following Amendment of the Constitution Sikkim was included in the State of India?

a. 36th Amendment

b. 35th Amendment

c. 7th Amendment

d. 5th Amendment

163. Which one of the following provision of the Constitution Imposes a duty on Centre to ensure that government of the State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?

a. Article 352

b. Article 357

c. Article 356

d. Article 355

164. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists –

List-1 List-2
A. Article 2(7) U.N. Charter 1. Admission of a State into U.N.
B. Article 4(2) U.N. Charter 2. Pacific settlement of disputes
C. Article 33 U.N. Charter 3. Legal disputes to be submitted to International

Court of Justice
D. Article 36(3) U.N. Charter 4. Domestic Jurisdiction Clause
Code-

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 3 1 2 4

d. 4 2 1 3

165. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-

List-1 List-2
A. Article 43 1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
B. Article 42 2. Living wage, etc., for workers
C. Article 44 3. Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
D. Article 50 4. Uniform Civil Code
Code-

A B C D

a. 1 2 4 3

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 2 3 4 1

166. Which country recently implemented a ‘Right to Disconnect’ law?

a. Australia

b. India

c. Nepal

d. New Zealand

167. Recently, which country became a new member of the BRICS New Development Bank (NDB)?

a. Algeria

b. Peru

c. Singapore

d. Cambodia

168. Philadelphi Corridor, recently seen in the news, is located along the border of Gaza and which country?

a. Iran

b. Egypt

c. Iraq

d. UAE

169. Which country has introduced a bill that aims to ban social media access for children under 16 years of age?

a. India

b. Nepal

c. Australia

d. Canada

170. Vat Phou, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in which country?

a. Thailand

b. Vietnam

c. Laos

d. Cambodia

171. Which country is the host of International Conference on Glaciers’ Preservation 2025?

a. Tajikistan

b. Indonesia

c. Switzerland

d. India

172. Which country has won the presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS) for the period 2025-2028?

a. South Africa

b. Bahrain

c. Austria

d. India

173. Which state government has launched “Bachpan Day Care Centres” to support children with special needs?

a. Bihar

b. Jharkhand

c. Punjab

d. Uttar Pradesh

174. World Ocean Day is celebrated every year on which day?

a. June 10

b. June 7

c. June 9

d. June 8

175. Which organization has released the report titled Review of the State of World Marine Fishery Resources 2025?

a. United Nations Environment Programme

b. World Bank

c. United Nations Development Programme

d. Food and Agriculture Organization

176. What is the new motto adopted by the Full Bench of Lokpal of India?

a. Justice for All, Power to None

b. Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption

c. Fight Corruption, Serve the Nation

d. Transparency First, Accountability Always

177. Where was the Health20 (H20) Summit 2025 held?

a. London, UK

b. Paris, France

c. Geneva, Switzerland

d. New Delhi, India

178. What is the IUCN status of Himalayan brown bear that was recently spotted in Gangotri National Park, Uttarakhand?

a. Endangered

b. Critically Endangered

c. Vulnerable

d. Least Concern

179. What is the theme of International Yoga Day 2025?

a. Yoga for One Earth, One Health

b. Yoga for humanity

c. Yoga For Wellness

d. Climate Action

180. The Global Drought Outlook report 2025 has been released by which organization?

a. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

b. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

c. World Bank

d. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

181. Which state won the best tableau award at the 76th Republic Day 2025?

a. Uttar Pradesh

b. Punjab

c. Himachal Pradesh

d. Rajasthan

182. Who has been named as the only Indian woman in TIME Magazine’s Women of the Year 2025 list?

a. Vandana Shiva

b. Medha Patkar

c. Purnima Devi Barman

d. Kiran Mazumdar

183. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”. Which article states this?

a. 75(1)

b. 75(2)

c. 75(4)

d. 75(3)

184. For how much time a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister?

a. 2 months

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. 9 months

185. Preamble of the Indian Constitution based on which of the following previous documents / Laws?

a. Nehru Report

b. Objectives Resolution

c. Government of India Act, 1935

d. Indian Independence Act, 1947

186. What was the Constitutional status of India when the Constitution of India came into force on 26th January, 1950?

a. A Secular Republic

b. A Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

c. A Sovereign Democratic Republic

d. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

187. In which year, Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership to the Commonwealth?

a. 1946

b. 1947

c. 1948

d. 1949

188. Which organization recently launched the Business for Land (B4L) Initiative?

a. World Health Organization (WHO)

b. International Labour Organization (ILO)

c. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

d. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

189. Which two countries have become the full member of the European Union’s (EU) Schengen area on January 1, 2025?

a. Cyprus and Ireland

b. Romania and Bulgaria

c. Iceland and Cyprus

d. None of the Above

190. SHe-Box Portal, recently seen in the news, is launched by which ministry?

a. Ministry of Home Affairs

b. Ministry of Women and Child Development

c. Ministry of Science and Technology

d. Ministry of Rural Development

191. Where is the headquarters of International Monetary Fund (IMF) located?

a. London

b. Paris

c. Washington D.C

d. Geneva

192. The Right to Information Act was enacted in

a. 2006

b. 2004

c. 2002

d. 2005

193. Which Article of the Charter of the United Nations permitted Right to Self defence?

a. Article 13

b. Article 51

c. Article 52

d. Article 50

194. In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the word 'Domestic Violence' has been defined?

a. Section-5

b. Section-4

c. Section-2

d. Section-3

195. In which organ of United Nations, the membership has been enlarged twice by amending U.N. Charter-

a. International Court of Justice

b. Security Council

c. Trusteeship Council

d. Economic and Social Council

196. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

b. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

c. Sri. B.N. Rau

d. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

197. 'Carry Forward Rule' was held as ultra-vires in the case of: -

a. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

b. Devadasan Vs. Union of India

c. Pradeep Tandon Vs. State of U.P.

d. None of the above

198. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats?

a. Article 243A

b. Article 243B

c. Article 243C

d. Article 243D

199. The Indian Constitution Corner Stone of a Nation' book was authored by

a. Granville Austin

b. John Austin

c. A.L. Good Heart

d. H.L.A. Hart

200. Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under: -

a. Original Jurisdiction

b. Appellate Jurisdiction

c. Advisory Jurisdiction

d. None of the above

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