The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 MCQs Set-2 (English Medium)

Download PDF

THE DELHI SPECIAL POLICE ESTABLISHMENT ACT, 1946
ACT No. 25 OF 1946
SET-2

1. Section 4B ensures security of tenure for the Director to:
a. Prevent arbitrary transfer
b. Limit powers of the Director
c. Give State Government control
d. Avoid judicial interference

2. The Director’s initial term is:
a. Mandatory for one year
b. Minimum two years
c. Maximum five years
d. Not specified

3. Extension of the Director’s term requires:
a. Only Central Government approval
b. Recommendation of the Committee and reasons recorded in writing
c. Consent of State Government
d. Judicial sanction

4. The maximum total tenure of the Director cannot exceed:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six years

5. Section 4B prevents:
a. Director from investigating offences
b. Arbitrary transfers by the Central Government
c. Supervision by Commission
d. Appointment of a Deputy Director

6. Section 4B provides for continuity of office of Director for:
a. Minimum one year
b. Minimum two years
c. Minimum three years
d. No minimum

7. Extension of the Director’s term can be made:
a. Multiple times, each up to one year, within the five-year limit
b. Only once for one year
c. Only with parliamentary approval
d. Not allowed

8. Reasons for extension of Director’s term must be:
a. Approved by Parliament
b. Recorded in writing
c. Verbal approval of Central Government
d. Not required

9. Section 4B(2) safeguards the Director’s independence by:
a. Preventing arbitrary transfer without Committee consent
b. Allowing State Government to transfer
c. Allowing Central Government to extend tenure indefinitely
d. Judicial supervision

10. Section 4B applies to:
a. Director and all DSPE officers
b. Only Director of DSPE
c. State Police officers
d. CBI officers only

11. The “Committee” referred in Section 4B is the same as:
a. Committee under Section 4A
b. Central Government body
c. State Police Committee
d. Parliamentary Committee

12. Section 4B ensures that the Director’s tenure is:
a. Short-term and flexible
b. Secure and protected from arbitrary interference
c. Dependent on State Government
d. Controlled by judiciary

13. Section 4B(1) applies notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in:
a. State Police Act rules
b. Rules relating to Director’s conditions of service
c. CrPC provisions
d. Judicial orders

14. Security of tenure under Section 4B is important for:
a. Political control
b. Independence in investigation
c. Limiting Central Government authority
d. State supervision

15. Section 4B(1) ensures the Director’s tenure is:
a. Completely fixed
b. Minimum of two years with possible extensions
c. Maximum of three years only
d. Determined by Central Government alone

16. The Committee’s recommendation for extension must be based on:
a. Political loyalty
b. Public interest
c. Judicial advice
d. Central Government discretion only

17. Maximum extension allowed in total cannot exceed:
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Five years including initial appointment
d. Six years

18. Section 4B(2) protects the Director from:
a. Arbitrary removal or transfer
b. Investigation powers
c. Administrative work
d. Judicial oversight

19. The minimum tenure under Section 4B is designed to:
a. Facilitate State Government control
b. Ensure administrative and investigative continuity
c. Allow frequent changes
d. Depend on Central Government discretion only

20. Section 4B safeguards Director’s term and transfer to ensure:
a. Political independence
b. Operational independence of DSPE
c. Parliamentary control
d. Judicial supervision

21. Section 4B allows extension of term:
a. Only at the discretion of the Central Government
b. Only on recommendation of the Committee and for reasons in writing
c. Automatically
d. Based on State Government approval

22. Section 4B read with 4A ensures:
a. Merit-based appointment and secure tenure of Director
b. Judicial control of DSPE
c. Political control of appointments
d. State Government involvement

23. Section 4B emphasizes:
a. Minimum term, extension conditions, and consent for transfer
b. Powers of Director to prosecute cases
c. Powers of Director in administrative work only
d. Judicial supervision over Director

24. Section 4BA establishes:
a. Directorate of Investigation
b. Directorate of Prosecution
c. Directorate of Vigilance
d. State Police Directorate

25. The Directorate of Prosecution is headed by:
a. Director of DSPE
b. Director of Prosecution
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. State Police Superintendent

26. The minimum rank for the Director of Prosecution is:
a. Under Secretary to Government of India
b. Joint Secretary to Government of India
c. Director General of Police
d. Inspector-General of Police

27. The Director of Prosecution functions under:
a. Central Vigilance Commission
b. Director of DSPE
c. State Government
d. Ministry of Home Affairs

28. Section 4BA(3) states that the Director of Prosecution is appointed by:
a. Central Government on recommendation of Central Vigilance Commission
b. Central Government alone
c. State Government
d. Director of DSPE

29. The Director of Prosecution holds office for a minimum period of:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years

30. Section 4BA(2) emphasizes that the Director of Prosecution is under:
a. State Police supervision
b. Overall supervision and control of the Director of DSPE
c. Judicial supervision
d. Central Government supervision only

31. The minimum tenure of the Director of Prosecution is guaranteed:
a. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the rules relating to his conditions of service
b. Only with Central Government approval
c. Only with judicial approval
d. Not guaranteed

32. The role of the Director of Prosecution primarily involves:
a. Investigation of offences
b. Conducting prosecution of cases under the Act
c. Administrative control of DSPE
d. Legislative functions

33. The appointment of the Director of Prosecution is based on:
a. Seniority only
b. Recommendation of Central Vigilance Commission
c. Central Government discretion alone
d. Political nomination

34. Section 4BA ensures independence of the Director of Prosecution by:
a. Fixing minimum tenure of two years
b. Allowing arbitrary transfer
c. Subordinating him to State Government
d. Allowing political interference

35. The Director of Prosecution must be an officer of:
a. Indian Police Service only
b. Government of India at Joint Secretary level or above
c. State Government
d. Judicial Services

36. The Director of Prosecution reports to:
a. Prime Minister
b. Director of DSPE
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. State Government

37. Section 4BA(4) protects the Director of Prosecution against:
a. Arbitrary removal before two years
b. Suspension by State Government
c. Judicial intervention
d. Political interference in appointment

38. The Director of Prosecution is a part of:
a. DSPE
b. Directorate of Prosecution
c. State Police
d. Judicial Department

39. The Director of Prosecution ensures prosecution in:
a. Civil cases
b. Offences under the DSPE Act
c. Traffic offences
d. Tax matters

40. Section 4BA provides a link between:
a. State Police and judiciary
b. DSPE investigation and prosecution
c. Parliament and Central Government
d. CBI and State Police

41. The Director of Prosecution’s tenure is similar to:
a. Director of DSPE under Section 4B
b. State Police Chief
c. Central Government Secretary
d. Judicial officer tenure

42. Section 4BA(3) appointment ensures:
a. Political control
b. Merit-based appointment through Central Vigilance Commission recommendation
c. State Government involvement
d. Arbitrary discretion of Central Government

43. The supervision under Section 4BA(2) implies:
a. Administrative and functional control by Director of DSPE
b. Central Government interference
c. Judicial review
d. State Government interference

44. The minimum tenure of the Director of Prosecution is to ensure:
a. Continuity and independence in prosecution
b. Political control
c. Arbitrary transfer
d. Judicial control

45. Section 4BA emphasizes that the Director of Prosecution must be:
a. At least Joint Secretary rank
b. At least Director General of Police
c. Any officer of State Police
d. Judicial officer

46. Section 4BA ensures that the Director of Prosecution is appointed:
a. Directly by Central Government without recommendation
b. On recommendation of Central Vigilance Commission
c. By State Government
d. By Parliament

47. The Director of Prosecution assists in:
a. Legislative functions
b. Judicial functions
c. Prosecution of cases under the DSPE Act
d. Administrative control of State Police

48. Section 4BA read with Section 4 ensures:
a. Proper coordination between investigation and prosecution
b. Central Government control over State Police
c. Judicial supervision of DSPE
d. Political control of DSPE

49. Section 4C deals with:
a. Appointment of Director
b. Appointment, extension, and curtailment of officers at SP level and above
c. Appointment of Director of Prosecution
d. Superintendence of DSPE

50. The Central Government appoints officers at which level under Section 4C?
a. Inspector level and above
b. Superintendent of Police and above, except Director
c. Director of DSPE
d. Joint Secretary level only

51. The recommendation for appointment under Section 4C is made by:
a. Central Government alone
b. Committee consisting of Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, and Secretaries to Government of India
c. State Government
d. Director of DSPE only

52. Who acts as Chairperson of the Committee under Section 4C?
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Vigilance Commissioner
c. Director of DSPE
d. Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs

53. Members of the Committee include:
a. Vigilance Commissioners and Secretaries to Government of India
b. State Police Officers
c. Judiciary members
d. Director of Prosecution

54. The Committee consults which officer before submitting recommendations?
a. Prime Minister
b. Director of DSPE
c. Central Government Secretary
d. Chief Justice of India

55. The Central Government on receipt of the recommendation shall:
a. Approve automatically
b. Pass such orders as it thinks fit
c. Reject all recommendations
d. Forward to State Government

56. Section 4C also covers:
a. Tenure extension and curtailment
b. Appointment of Director
c. Judicial supervision
d. Legislative powers

57. The Committee under Section 4C is responsible for recommending:
a. Only initial appointments
b. Appointments, extension, and curtailment of tenure of officers at SP level and above
c. Judicial powers
d. State Government approval

58. The Secretary members in the Committee are from:
a. Ministry of Finance and Law
b. Ministry of Home Affairs and Department of Personnel
c. Ministry of Defence only
d. State Government

59. Section 4C ensures that the Director of DSPE is:
a. Consulted before recommendations
b. Ignored in the appointment process
c. Sole authority for appointment
d. Part of the Committee as Chairperson

60. The recommendation under Section 4C is advisory to:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Judicial authority
d. Prime Minister

61. Section 4C applies to officers:
a. Below Superintendent of Police
b. Superintendent of Police and above, excluding Director
c. Only Director
d. Director of Prosecution only

62. Section 4C emphasizes:
a. Merit, integrity, and administrative experience
b. Political appointment
c. State Government recommendation
d. Judicial approval

63. The Central Government may act on the recommendation:
a. Automatically
b. At its discretion to pass orders as it thinks fit
c. Only after judicial approval
d. Only with State Government consent

64. Section 4C ensures consultation with Director to:
a. Maintain operational continuity
b. Give political control
c. Allow arbitrary appointments
d. Allow State interference

65. The Committee under Section 4C is chaired by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Vigilance Commissioner
c. Director of DSPE
d. Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs

66. The purpose of Section 4C is to:
a. Regulate appointments, extension, and curtailment of SP level officers
b. Control judicial powers
c. Control Director of Prosecution
d. Control State Police

67. Section 4C ensures checks and balances by:
a. Committee consultation with Director and Central Government approval
b. State Government involvement
c. Judicial oversight only
d. Political nomination

68. Members of the Committee include:
a. Only Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Vigilance Commissioners and two Secretaries to Government of India
c. Only Director of DSPE
d. Only Central Government officers

69. Section 4C ensures that appointment and tenure management are:
a. Arbitrary
b. Transparent and merit-based
c. Controlled by State Government
d. Subject to political influence

70. The Central Government may:
a. Reject or modify the Committee’s recommendation
b. Appoint without recommendation
c. Act on State Government advice
d. Act only on judicial order

71. Section 4C read with Section 4A ensures:
a. Director consulted for senior officer appointments
b. Director has sole authority
c. Committee has no role
d. Political appointments only

72. Section 4C ensures operational efficiency by:
a. Fixing tenure of SP and above officers
b. Direct control of State Government
c. Judicial supervision
d. Political influence

73. The Committee’s recommendation under Section 4C is:
a. Mandatory for Central Government to implement
b. Advisory for Central Government to act upon
c. Binding on Director
d. Subject to judicial review

74. Section 4C safeguards DSPE’s independence by:
a. Including Director in consultation process
b. Allowing arbitrary transfer
c. Excluding Central Government
d. Bypassing merit-based selection

75. Section 4C covers:
a. Only appointment
b. Appointment, extension, and curtailment of tenure of SP-level officers
c. Judicial powers
d. State Police functions

76. The Secretary members in the Committee are responsible for:
a. Administrative oversight
b. Judicial decisions
c. Political nomination
d. State Police supervision

77. Section 4C ensures that DSPE officers above SP level:
a. Are appointed through a transparent committee process
b. Are nominated by Central Government alone
c. Are controlled by State Government
d. Are appointed by judiciary

78. Section 4C’s consultation mechanism with the Director ensures:
a. Operational continuity and informed recommendations
b. Political control
c. Arbitrary transfer
d. Judicial review

79. Section 5 deals with:
a. Appointment of Director
b. Extension of powers and jurisdiction of DSPE to other areas
c. Superintendence of DSPE
d. Investigation of corruption cases only

80. Under Section 5(1), powers of DSPE can be extended to:
a. Only Union territories
b. Any area in a State, including Railway areas
c. Only Delhi
d. Only State capitals

81. The Central Government may extend powers of DSPE under:
a. A written order
b. Judicial approval
c. State Government approval
d. Notification in Gazette

82. Section 5(2) provides that when powers are extended, a DSPE member:
a. Remains only a DSPE officer
b. Is deemed a member of the local police force of that area
c. Cannot investigate offences
d. Requires State Government approval for every action

83. While exercising powers in an extended area, a DSPE officer:
a. Has powers, functions, and privileges of a local police officer
b. Has limited powers
c. Requires additional permission from judiciary
d. Is only an advisor

84. Section 5(2) states that DSPE members are subject to:
a. Only DSPE rules
b. Liabilities of local police officers in that area
c. Central Vigilance Commission only
d. Judicial supervision only

85. Officers of DSPE of or above the rank of Sub-Inspector may:
a. Exercise powers of the officer in charge of a police station in the extended area
b. Only assist local police
c. Require State Government approval for every action
d. Cannot exercise any powers

86. While exercising powers of the officer in charge of a police station, DSPE officers:
a. Are deemed officers in charge of that station
b. Remain subordinate to State Police only
c. Are not authorized to register FIRs
d. Cannot arrest persons

87. Extension of powers under Section 5 applies to offences:
a. Notified under Section 3
b. Only economic offences
c. Only corruption cases
d. Any offence under IPC automatically

88. Section 5 ensures DSPE officers can function in:
a. Union territories only
b. Any State area designated by Central Government
c. State capitals only
d. Delhi only

89. Section 5 allows DSPE members to discharge functions of a police officer:
a. Only in Delhi
b. In extended areas as per Central Government orders
c. Only in Union territories
d. Only under judicial supervision

90. Section 5(3) applies to officers of DSPE of rank:
a. Constable
b. Head Constable
c. Sub-Inspector and above
d. Director only

91. Powers exercised under Section 5(3) include:
a. Investigation and administrative functions of a police station
b. Judicial powers
c. Legislative powers
d. Revenue collection powers

92. Section 5 empowers DSPE officers in extended areas to:
a. Investigate and arrest
b. Only investigate
c. Only advise local police
d. Only register complaints

93. Section 5(1) requires that the Central Government may extend powers:
a. For specific offences or classes of offences
b. For all offences automatically
c. Only for economic offences
d. Only for corruption offences

94. A DSPE officer in an extended area is subject to:
a. Local police rules and liabilities
b. DSPE rules only
c. Central Government instructions only
d. Judiciary approval for every action

95. Section 5 ensures coordination between:
a. DSPE and local police in extended areas
b. State Police only
c. Judiciary and DSPE only
d. Ministry of Home Affairs only

96. Powers under Section 5 are granted by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government order
c. Judicial authority
d. Director of DSPE

97. Section 5 ensures officers of DSPE can function as:
a. Regular local police officers in extended areas
b. Advisors only
c. Judicial officers
d. Central Government secretaries

98. Extension under Section 5 includes:
a. Railway areas within a State
b. Only State capitals
c. Only urban areas
d. Only Union territories

99. Section 5 ensures that DSPE officers of rank Sub-Inspector and above can:
a. Exercise powers of Station House Officer in extended areas
b. Only investigate cases
c. Only register FIRs
d. Only assist local police

100. While exercising police station powers, DSPE officers are:
a. Deemed to be officers in charge of the station
b. Subordinate to State Police only
c. Independent without coordination
d. Not allowed to file charges

101. Section 5(2) ensures DSPE officers have:
a. Same powers, functions, privileges, and liabilities as local police
b. Limited advisory powers
c. Only investigation powers
d. Only administrative powers

102. Central Government can make orders under Section 5:
a. To extend powers to any specified area in a State
b. To modify State police laws
c. To appoint judicial officers
d. To control State Government

103. Section 5 read with Section 2 ensures:
a. DSPE officers can exercise police powers in other areas like their own jurisdiction
b. DSPE officers remain limited to Delhi
c. Judicial approval required for every action
d. State Police can overrule DSPE

104. Section 5 is important to:
a. Enable DSPE to investigate offences across multiple areas
b. Limit DSPE to Delhi
c. Give State Governments control over DSPE
d. Allow judiciary to supervise DSPE directly

105. Officers acting under Section 5 are deemed:
a. Part of local police of the extended area
b. Only DSPE officers
c. Judicial officers
d. Administrative officers only

106. Section 5 ensures DSPE officers have powers:
a. Subject to Central Government orders
b. Subject to judicial approval every time
c. Controlled by State Government
d. Limited to Delhi

107. Section 5(3) allows:
a. Sub-Inspectors and above to act as Station House Officers
b. Only Directors to act as SHO
c. Constables to act independently
d. Officers below Sub-Inspector to act as SHO

108. Section 5 provides DSPE officers in extended areas with:
a. Full police powers, privileges, and liabilities
b. Advisory powers only
c. Judicial powers only
d. Limited investigatory powers

109. Section 6 deals with:
a. Extension of DSPE powers to Union territories
b. Consent of State Government to exercise powers and jurisdiction
c. Appointment of Director
d. Superintendence of DSPE

110. Can DSPE exercise powers in any area of a State without State Government consent?
a. Yes, under Section 5
b. No, consent of the State Government is required
c. Only in Union territories
d. Only in railway areas

111. Section 6 applies to areas in a State that are:
a. Union territories
b. Railway areas only
c. Areas not being Union territories or railway areas
d. Only State capitals

112. Section 6 restricts DSPE powers to:
a. Areas with prior consent of State Government
b. Areas notified by Central Government only
c. Only Delhi
d. Only Union territories

113. Section 6 clarifies that Section 5:
a. Cannot override the requirement of State Government consent
b. Grants DSPE unrestricted powers
c. Allows judicial approval instead of State consent
d. Grants powers only to Directors

114. Consent of the State Government under Section 6 is required for:
a. Exercise of powers and jurisdiction in the State
b. Appointing officers in DSPE
c. Superintendence of DSPE
d. Judicial powers

115. Section 6 ensures that the federal structure is respected by:
a. Requiring State Government consent
b. Allowing Central Government to override State
c. Ignoring State Government
d. Giving powers only to judiciary

116. Without State Government consent, DSPE cannot:
a. Investigate offences in that area
b. Advise local police
c. Assist judicial authorities
d. File reports

117. Section 6 applies notwithstanding:
a. Section 5 extension orders
b. Section 4B tenure rules
c. Judicial powers
d. Appointment rules

118. Section 6 emphasizes the principle of:
a. State sovereignty over its territory
b. Central Government supremacy
c. Judicial control over DSPE
d. Political supervision

119. Areas in a State where consent is required include:
a. All areas except Union territories and railway areas
b. Only State capitals
c. Only urban areas
d. Union territories only

120. Section 6 prevents:
a. Unauthorized exercise of powers by DSPE in a State
b. Appointment of Director
c. Superintendence by Central Government
d. Extension to Union territories

121. Section 6 safeguards:
a. Federal balance between State and Centre
b. Political appointments
c. Judicial supervision
d. State police recruitment

122. Section 6 is applicable when Section 5 powers are:
a. Extended to a State area
b. Limited to Delhi only
c. Restricted to Union territories
d. Exercised within the Central Government only

123. The main requirement under Section 6 is:
a. Prior consent of the State Government before exercising powers
b. Central Government order only
c. Judicial approval only
d. Approval from Parliament

124. Section 6 respects the autonomy of:
a. State Governments
b. Union territories
c. Judiciary
d. Central Government officers

125. Section 6 makes it clear that DSPE cannot function in a State without:
a. Prior written consent of that State Government
b. Notification under Section 3
c. Recommendation of Director
d. Parliamentary approval

126. Section 6 ensures that DSPE’s powers in a State are:
a. Conditional upon State consent
b. Automatic once Section 5 applies
c. Subordinate to judiciary only
d. Unlimited

127. Section 6 preserves:
a. Federal structure and State control over law and order
b. Central Government supremacy
c. Political appointments in DSPE
d. Judiciary control

128. Section 6 applies to:
a. All areas in a State except Union territories and railway areas
b. Only Union territories
c. Only Delhi
d. Only Central Government offices

129. Section 6 ensures DSPE officers do not:
a. Exercise powers arbitrarily in State areas
b. Investigate offences in Delhi
c. Supervise State Police
d. Appoint officers

130. Consent under Section 6 can be given by:
a. State Government of the area concerned
b. Central Government
c. Director of DSPE
d. Parliament

131. Section 6 prevents conflict between:
a. DSPE powers and State Police jurisdiction
b. Director and Central Government
c. Judicial and administrative functions
d. Parliament and State legislatures

132. Without State Government consent, DSPE powers under Section 5 are:
a. Ineffective in that State area
b. Fully valid
c. Subject to Central Government discretion
d. Valid only in Union territories

133. Section 6 ensures that the exercise of DSPE powers is:
a. Coordinated with the State Government
b. Independent of State Government
c. Controlled by judiciary
d. Subject to political approval

134. Section 6A deals with:
a. Extension of DSPE powers to Union territories
b. Approval of Central Government to conduct inquiry or investigation
c. Appointment of Director
d. Superintendence of DSPE

135. DSPE shall not conduct an inquiry under Section 6A without:
a. Previous approval of Central Government
b. Consent of State Government
c. Approval of Parliament
d. Judicial permission

136. Section 6A applies specifically to offences under:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Railways Act, 1989
d. Police Act, 1861

137. Approval is required when the allegation relates to:
a. Employees of State Governments
b. Employees of Central Government of level Joint Secretary and above
c. All DSPE officers
d. Local police only

138. Approval is also required for officers appointed by Central Government in:
a. State Government offices only
b. Corporations established under any Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by Central Government
c. Union territories only
d. Judiciary

139. Section 6A(2) provides an exception to approval requirement for:
a. Arrest of a person on the spot for accepting or attempting to accept gratification other than legal remuneration
b. Investigation of high-level officers
c. Officers of Joint Secretary level
d. Parliamentary approvals

140. The exception under Section 6A(2) is limited to:
a. Gratification other than legal remuneration
b. Corruption in Central Government offices
c. All officers of Central Government
d. Officers of State Governments

141. Section 6A ensures that inquiries against senior officers require:
a. Prior approval of Central Government
b. Judicial permission only
c. State Government consent
d. Parliamentary approval

142. Officers covered under Section 6A include:
a. Joint Secretary and above in Central Government
b. Sub-Inspectors and above
c. Constables only
d. State Government officers

143. Officers in corporations, societies, and Government companies under Central Government require:
a. Central Government approval for DSPE inquiry
b. State Government approval
c. Judicial permission
d. No approval

144. Section 6A(2) allows DSPE to arrest on the spot:
a. For accepting or attempting to accept illegal gratification
b. For any corruption case automatically
c. Only after Central Government approval
d. Only for high-ranking officers

145. The term “legal remuneration” in Section 6A(2) refers to:
a. Lawful salary or payment due to a person
b. Bribe
c. Unauthorised benefit
d. None of the above

146. Section 6A emphasizes:
a. Central control over investigation of high-ranking officers
b. State control over DSPE
c. Judicial approval for every case
d. Parliamentary supervision

147. Section 6A applies to officers appointed by Central Government in:
a. Corporations under Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities
b. Only Union territories
c. State Government offices
d. Judiciary

148. DSPE cannot investigate senior officers without approval to maintain:
a. Federal and administrative hierarchy
b. Political influence
c. State control
d. Parliamentary consent

149. Section 6A(2) exception is aimed at:
a. Immediate action to prevent loss of evidence or catch offenders red-handed
b. Arrest of high-ranking officials only
c. Investigation of corporations
d. Judicial intervention

150. Section 6A requires approval for:
a. Inquiry or investigation into offences under PC Act 1988 against high-level officials
b. Routine police complaints
c. All State Government employees
d. Only directors of DSPE

151. Section 6A ensures DSPE acts with:
a. Proper authorization when dealing with senior Central Government employees
b. Absolute discretion
c. State Government intervention
d. Parliamentary approval

152. Approval under Section 6A is required for officers of:
a. Government companies under Central Government
b. State Government
c. Judiciary only
d. All DSPE officers

153. Section 6A(2) does not require approval for:
a. Spot arrest for accepting illegal gratification
b. Investigation of Joint Secretary level officers
c. Investigation of officers in Government companies
d. Offences in Union territories

154. Section 6A prevents:
a. Unauthorized inquiry into senior officers of Central Government
b. Investigation of ordinary officers
c. Arrest without judicial supervision only
d. State Government control

155. Section 6A applies to officers appointed by Central Government in:
a. Local authorities owned or controlled by Central Government
b. State-run corporations
c. Judiciary
d. Municipalities only

156. Section 6A(1)(a) specifically refers to employees of Central Government of rank:
a. Joint Secretary and above
b. Under Secretary and above
c. Director only
d. Constable and above

157. Section 6A ensures administrative control over:
a. Investigation of senior Central Government employees
b. State Police
c. Judiciary
d. Parliament

158. Section 6A balances:
a. Need for prompt action against corruption and protection of high-level officials from arbitrary inquiry
b. Central and State Police control
c. Judicial control and parliamentary control
d. Appointment of Director and officers

Download PDF