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1. The expert may also be questioned regarding:
a. Manner of inspection conducted by him
b. Court’s judgment
c. Government decisions
d. Criminal investigation
2. According to Section 14A(4), the expert is entitled to:
a. Salary from government
b. Fee, cost or expense fixed by the court
c. Property rights
d. Judicial powers
3. The expert’s fee shall be paid by:
a. Government
b. Court staff
c. Parties to the suit
d. Witnesses
4. The proportion of payment of expert’s fee is determined by:
a. Government
b. Court
c. Parties mutually
d. Bar association
5. Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Contracts not specifically enforceable
b. Persons who may obtain specific performance
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
6. According to Section 15(a), specific performance may be obtained by:
a. Only the plaintiff
b. Any party to the contract
c. Government authority
d. Court officer
7. Under Section 15(b), specific performance may be obtained by:
a. Stranger to the contract
b. Representative in interest or principal of a party
c. Witness of contract
d. Registrar
8. The representative in interest cannot obtain specific performance when:
a. Contract is written
b. Personal skill or quality of the party is material
c. Contract is registered
d. Property is movable
9. Under Section 15(c), specific performance may be obtained by:
a. Beneficially entitled person under marriage settlement
b. Government authority
c. Mortgagee
d. Trustee only
10. Section 15(c) applies to contracts relating to:
a. Government contracts
b. Commercial contracts
c. Criminal agreements
d. Marriage settlement or family compromise
11. Under Section 15(d), specific performance may be obtained by:
a. Mortgagee
b. Remainderman
c. Trustee
d. Tenant
12. Section 15(d) applies when contract is entered into by:
a. Tenant for life
b. Tenant at will
c. Mortgagee
d. Trustee
13. Under Section 15(e), specific performance may be obtained by:
a. Reversioner in possession
b. Mortgagee
c. Tenant
d. Beneficiary only
14. Section 15(e) applies where agreement is:
a. Covenant entered with predecessor in title
b. Oral contract
c. Government contract
d. Lease deed
15. Under Section 15(f), specific performance may be obtained by:
a. Reversioner in remainder
b. Tenant
c. Trustee
d. Mortgagee
16. The reversioner in remainder must show:
a. Loss of possession
b. Material injury from breach
c. Criminal damage
d. Tax liability
17. Section 15(fa) relates to:
a. Amalgamation of LLPs
b. Sale of goods
c. Lease agreements
d. Mortgage contracts
18. When a Limited Liability Partnership enters into a contract and later amalgamates:
a. Contract becomes void
b. New LLP may obtain specific performance
c. Government must approve
d. Contract terminates automatically
19. Section 15(g) relates to:
a. Amalgamation of companies
b. Partnership dissolution
c. Trust formation
d. Lease agreements
20. When a company amalgamates with another company:
a. Contract becomes void
b. New company may obtain specific performance
c. Court must cancel contract
d. Contract must be renegotiated
21. Section 15(h) deals with contracts entered into by:
a. Promoters of a company before incorporation
b. Government officials
c. Mortgagees
d. Trustees
22. Section 16 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Persons entitled to specific performance
b. Personal bars to relief
c. Declaratory relief
d. Preventive relief
23. Section 16 specifies situations where:
a. Specific performance must be granted
b. Specific performance cannot be enforced
c. Damages must be awarded
d. Contract becomes void
24. Under Section 16(a), specific performance cannot be enforced in favour of a person:
a. Who has obtained substituted performance under Section 20
b. Who has filed a suit
c. Who is a party to the contract
d. Who has paid consideration
25. If substituted performance has already been obtained:
a. Specific performance may still be granted
b. Specific performance cannot be granted
c. Contract becomes void
d. Court must grant damages
26. Section 16(b) bars relief where the plaintiff:
a. Performs contract fully
b. Becomes incapable of performing his part
c. Registers the contract
d. Pays consideration
27. Specific performance cannot be enforced where the plaintiff:
a. Violates an essential term of the contract
b. Performs all obligations
c. Acts honestly
d. Performs partially
28. Section 16(b) bars relief where the plaintiff:
a. Acts in fraud of the contract
b. Acts in accordance with the contract
c. Acts under court order
d. Acts as witness
29. A plaintiff who wilfully acts at variance with the contract:
a. Can obtain specific performance
b. Cannot obtain specific performance
c. Must be compensated
d. Must obtain court permission
30. Section 16(c) requires the plaintiff to prove:
a. Title to property
b. Readiness and willingness to perform the contract
c. Registration of contract
d. Government approval
31. Under Explanation (i), when contract involves payment of money:
a. Plaintiff must always deposit money in court
b. Plaintiff need not tender or deposit money unless directed by court
c. Plaintiff must deposit money before suit
d. Plaintiff must pay money to government
32. Actual tender of money by plaintiff is:
a. Always required
b. Not necessary unless directed by court
c. Mandatory in all cases
d. Required only in property disputes
33. Explanation (ii) provides that the plaintiff must prove:
a. Ownership of property
b. Performance or readiness according to true construction of contract
c. Payment of tax
d. Registration of contract
34. Section 17 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Personal bars to relief
b. Contracts by persons with no title
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
35. Section 17 provides that a contract to sell or let property by a person with no title:
a. Is always enforceable
b. Is not specifically enforceable in favour of vendor or lessor
c. Is void
d. Is criminal
36. Section 17 mainly restricts relief in favour of:
a. Purchaser
b. Lessee
c. Vendor or lessor
d. Mortgagee
37. Under Section 17(1)(a), specific performance cannot be enforced when:
a. Vendor knowingly has no title
b. Purchaser has no title
c. Property is movable
d. Contract is oral
38. If a vendor knowingly contracts to sell property without title:
a. He may enforce the contract
b. He cannot obtain specific performance
c. Contract becomes void automatically
d. Court must enforce the contract
39. Section 17(1)(b) applies when the vendor:
a. Knows he has no title
b. Believes he has good title but cannot give clear title
c. Has registered deed
d. Has possession of property
40. Under Section 17(1)(b), the vendor must be able to give:
a. Possession only
b. Title free from reasonable doubt
c. Lease agreement
d. Government approval
41. Section 17 applies to contracts relating to:
a. Immovable property
b. Movable property only
c. Government property only
d. Agricultural land only
42. The phrase “reasonable doubt” regarding title means:
a. Minor suspicion
b. Substantial uncertainty regarding ownership
c. Criminal doubt
d. Court’s doubt only
43. Section 17(2) extends the application of subsection (1) to:
a. Contracts for sale or hire of movable property
b. Criminal contracts
c. Government contracts
d. Tax agreements
44. Section 17(2) uses the phrase:
a. “Shall apply strictly”
b. “As far as may be”
c. “Without exception”
d. “Mandatory rule”
45. Section 18 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Personal bars to relief
b. Non-enforcement except with variation
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
46. Section 18 applies where:
a. Plaintiff seeks damages
b. Plaintiff seeks specific performance of a written contract
c. Defendant seeks injunction
d. Contract is oral
47. Under Section 18, if the defendant sets up a variation in the contract:
a. Plaintiff cannot obtain performance at all
b. Plaintiff can obtain performance only with the variation
c. Court must cancel the contract
d. Contract becomes void
48. Section 18 applies when the contract is:
a. Oral
b. Written
c. Implied
d. Void
49. If a written contract differs from the real agreement due to fraud:
a. Plaintiff must accept variation to enforce it
b. Contract becomes void automatically
c. Court must cancel contract
d. Plaintiff must file criminal case
50. Section 18(a) applies where the written contract differs from the real agreement due to:
a. Fraud
b. Mistake of fact
c. Misrepresentation
d. All of the above
51. If the written contract does not contain all terms agreed by parties:
a. Contract becomes void
b. Court may enforce it only with variation
c. Court must cancel contract
d. Plaintiff must withdraw suit
52. Section 18(a) applies when the written contract:
a. Is incomplete
b. Differs from real agreement
c. Was entered into due to fraud or mistake
d. All of the above
53. Section 18(b) applies where the parties intended to produce:
a. A certain legal result
b. Criminal liability
c. Tax liability
d. Government approval
54. Under Section 18(b), if the contract as framed does not produce the intended legal result:
a. Contract becomes void
b. Specific performance may be granted only with variation
c. Court must award damages
d. Court must cancel the contract
55. Section 18(b) addresses defects relating to:
a. Form or drafting of contract
b. Registration
c. Taxation
d. Possession
56. Section 18(c) applies where parties:
a. Cancel the contract
b. Subsequently vary the terms of the contract
c. File a suit
d. Register the contract
57. If parties change the terms after execution of contract:
a. Court will enforce original contract only
b. Court may enforce contract with the variation
c. Contract becomes void
d. Court must refuse relief
58. Section 18 applies when the defendant:
a. Accepts the contract
b. Sets up a variation in defence
c. Files criminal complaint
d. Transfers property
59. Section 19 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Preventive relief
b. Relief against parties and persons claiming under them
c. Declaratory relief
d. Rectification of instruments
60. Under Section 19(a), specific performance may be enforced against:
a. Either party to the contract
b. Government authority
c. Third parties only
d. Witnesses to the contract
61. Section 19(b) applies to:
a. Persons claiming under a subsequent title
b. Persons claiming under prior title
c. Tenants only
d. Trustees only
62. Under Section 19(b), specific performance cannot be enforced against:
a. Transferee for value in good faith without notice
b. Purchaser with notice
c. Original party
d. Legal representative
63. Section 19(c) applies where a person claims under a title:
a. Subsequent to the contract
b. Prior to the contract
c. Created by court decree
d. Created by statute
64. Section 19(c) applies when the prior title:
a. Could not be displaced
b. Could have been displaced by the defendant
c. Is superior to all titles
d. Is illegal
65. Section 19(ca) relates to:
a. Amalgamation of LLPs
b. Amalgamation of companies
c. Dissolution of firms
d. Merger of trusts
66. If an LLP enters a contract and later amalgamates with another LLP:
a. Contract becomes void
b. New LLP may be bound by the contract
c. Contract must be re-executed
d. Court cancels contract
67. Section 19(d) relates to:
a. Partnership firms
b. Companies
c. Trusts
d. Cooperatives
68. If a company enters into a contract and later amalgamates with another company:
a. Contract automatically terminates
b. New company becomes bound by the contract
c. Contract must be cancelled
d. Contract becomes void
69. Section 19(e) relates to contracts made by:
a. Directors
b. Promoters before incorporation
c. Shareholders
d. Auditors
70. Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Preventive relief
b. Substituted performance of contract
c. Declaratory relief
d. Rectification of instruments
71. Section 20 was introduced by amendment in:
a. 2015
b. 2018
c. 2010
d. 2005
72. Substituted performance means:
a. Cancellation of contract
b. Performance of contract through third party or own agency
c. Oral modification
d. Court enforcement only
73. Under Section 20(1), substituted performance arises when:
a. Contract is void
b. Contract is broken due to non-performance
c. Contract is illegal
d. Contract is oral
74. The party suffering breach may get the contract performed by:
a. Court officer
b. Third party
c. His own agency
d. Both B and C
75. Under Section 20(1), the aggrieved party may recover:
a. Only damages
b. Only penalty
c. Expenses and costs actually incurred
d. Government fee
76. Expenses recoverable under Section 20 include:
a. Actual expenses incurred
b. Costs suffered
c. Amount spent in substituted performance
d. All of the above
77. Section 20 operates:
a. Without prejudice to the Indian Contract Act
b. In contradiction with the Contract Act
c. Only under CPC
d. Only under Transfer of Property Act
78. The aggrieved party must give notice before substituted performance:
a. Oral notice
b. Written notice
c. Court notice
d. Public notice
79. The minimum notice period required under Section 20(2) is:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 7 days
80. Notice must be given to:
a. Court
b. Government
c. Party in breach
d. Arbitrator
81. The purpose of notice under Section 20(2) is:
a. To cancel contract
b. To give opportunity to perform the contract
c. To claim damages
d. To register contract
82. Substituted performance may be undertaken when:
a. Party in breach refuses to perform
b. Party fails to perform within notice period
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Court orders it
83. If substituted performance is done without giving notice:
a. Expenses can still be recovered
b. Expenses cannot be recovered
c. Contract becomes void
d. Court must enforce contract
84. According to the proviso of Section 20(2):
a. Expenses are recoverable without substituted performance
b. Expenses are recoverable only if substituted performance is actually done
c. Expenses are always recoverable
d. Expenses depend on court discretion
85. Under Section 20(3), if substituted performance is undertaken:
a. Specific performance can still be claimed
b. Specific performance cannot be claimed
c. Damages cannot be claimed
d. Contract becomes void
86. Section 20(3) bars:
a. Compensation
b. Specific performance after substituted performance
c. Damages
d. Injunction
87. Even after substituted performance, the aggrieved party may claim:
a. Compensation
b. Damages
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither
88. Section 20(4) states that:
a. Compensation cannot be claimed
b. Compensation may still be claimed
c. Contract becomes void
d. Contract must be cancelled
89. Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Substituted performance
b. Special provisions for infrastructure project contracts
c. Rectification of instruments
d. Declaratory relief
90. Section 20A was introduced by the amendment of:
a. 2010
b. 2015
c. 2018
d. 2005
91. Under Section 20A(1), courts shall not grant:
a. Specific performance
b. Damages
c. Injunction
d. Compensation
92. Injunction cannot be granted when it would:
a. Increase project cost
b. Cause impediment or delay in infrastructure project
c. Affect government policy
d. Affect court proceedings
93. Section 20A applies to contracts relating to:
a. Commercial buildings
b. Infrastructure projects
c. Agricultural land
d. Private property only
94. Infrastructure projects referred in Section 20A are specified in:
a. Schedule of the Act
b. CPC
c. Indian Contract Act
d. Transfer of Property Act
95. The purpose of Section 20A is to:
a. Promote litigation
b. Prevent delay in infrastructure projects
c. Increase court control
d. Reduce contract enforcement
96. If an injunction delays an infrastructure project:
a. Court may grant it
b. Court shall not grant it
c. Government decides
d. Arbitrator decides
97. The explanation to Section 20A defines:
a. Contract
b. Infrastructure project
c. Specific performance
d. Injunction
98. Infrastructure projects include categories mentioned in:
a. Schedule to the Act
b. Constitution
c. CPC
d. Contract Act
99. Under Section 20A(2), the Central Government may:
a. Amend Schedule by notification
b. Cancel contracts
c. Grant injunction
d. Resolve disputes
100. Notification for amending infrastructure categories must be published in:
a. State Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Court Gazette
d. Public notice board
101. The Central Government may amend the Schedule:
a. Anytime it considers necessary
b. Only once
c. Only with court approval
d. Only after referendum
102. The amendment power under Section 20A(2) depends on:
a. Development requirements of infrastructure projects
b. Judicial decision
c. Local authority decision
d. Arbitrator order
103. Notifications issued under this Act must be laid before:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Parliament
d. State Legislature
104. Notification must be laid before Parliament for a total period of:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
105. The 30-day period may be spread across:
a. One session
b. Two or more successive sessions
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only emergency sessions
106. Parliament may:
a. Modify the notification
b. Annul the notification
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
107. If Parliament modifies the notification:
a. Notification becomes void
b. Notification takes effect in modified form
c. Contract becomes void
d. Court must review it
108. If Parliament annuls the notification:
a. It has no effect thereafter
b. It remains valid forever
c. It applies only to courts
d. It applies only to government
109. Modification or annulment does not affect:
a. Future contracts
b. Validity of actions already taken
c. Government authority
d. Court jurisdiction
110. Section 20A ensures:
a. Protection of infrastructure development from litigation delays
b. Strict court control over projects
c. Criminal liability
d. Property ownership regulation
111. The main objective of Section 20A is:
a. Encourage damages claims
b. Prevent injunctions that delay infrastructure projects
c. Cancel government contracts
d. Promote arbitration
112. Section 20A is connected with:
a. Section 20B
b. Section 41(ha)
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Section 34 only
113. The term "infrastructure project" includes:
a. Categories listed in the Schedule
b. Infrastructure sub-sectors
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Government buildings only
114. Section 20B of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Substituted performance
b. Special Courts
c. Declaratory relief
d. Rectification of instruments
115. Section 20B was inserted by the amendment of:
a. 2015
b. 2018
c. 2005
d. 2010
116. Under Section 20B, Special Courts are designated by:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Parliament
117. The State Government must consult with whom before designating Special Courts?
a. President of India
b. Chief Justice of the High Court
c. Supreme Court
d. Advocate General
118. Special Courts under Section 20B are designated through:
a. Court order
b. Government notification
c. Parliamentary act
d. Presidential ordinance
119. The notification for Special Courts must be published in:
a. Official Gazette
b. Local newspaper
c. Court registry
d. State website
120. Special Courts designated under Section 20B are:
a. Criminal courts
b. Civil courts
c. Revenue courts
d. Military courts
121. Special Courts are established to try suits under:
a. Contract Act
b. CPC
c. Specific Relief Act
d. Arbitration Act
122. Special Courts deal with suits relating to contracts involving:
a. Agricultural land
b. Infrastructure projects
c. Residential property
d. Government employment
123. The jurisdiction of Special Courts is limited to:
a. Entire country
b. Local limits specified in the notification
c. Only High Court area
d. Entire state automatically
124. Section 20B aims to:
a. Delay court proceedings
b. Speed up infrastructure project disputes
c. Increase litigation
d. Reduce court powers
125. The Special Courts designated under Section 20B will exercise:
a. Criminal jurisdiction
b. Civil jurisdiction
c. Constitutional jurisdiction
d. Administrative jurisdiction
126. Special Courts will try suits relating to:
a. Property disputes only
b. Infrastructure project contracts
c. Criminal offences
d. Family disputes
127. Section 20B complements which section dealing with infrastructure projects?
a. Section 14
b. Section 20A
c. Section 16
d. Section 34
128. The purpose of designating Special Courts is:
a. Efficient adjudication of infrastructure contract disputes
b. Increasing court fees
c. Cancelling contracts
d. Criminal prosecution
129. The designation of Special Courts requires:
a. Consultation with Chief Justice of High Court
b. Approval of Parliament
c. Supreme Court order
d. Presidential assent
130. The number of Special Courts that may be designated is:
a. Only one
b. One or more
c. Exactly two
d. Unlimited without notification
131. Special Courts under Section 20B function within:
a. Specified territorial limits
b. Entire India
c. Only capital city
d. High Court jurisdiction only
132. Section 20C of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Substituted performance
b. Expeditious disposal of suits
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
133. Section 20C was inserted by the amendment of:
a. 2010
b. 2015
c. 2018
d. 2005
134. Section 20C begins with the phrase:
a. Subject to the Constitution
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. Without prejudice to the Contract Act
d. As provided under the Constitution
135. A suit under the Specific Relief Act should be disposed of within:
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
136. The period of 12 months is calculated from:
a. Date of filing of suit
b. Date of contract
c. Date of service of summons to defendant
d. Date of court hearing
137. The court may extend the time for disposal by:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. Unlimited time
138. The extension allowed under Section 20C must be:
a. Oral order
b. Written order with reasons
c. Arbitrator decision
d. Government approval
139. The court must record:
a. Oral explanation
b. Reasons in writing
c. Government direction
d. Party consent
140. The purpose of Section 20C is to:
a. Increase litigation
b. Speed up disposal of suits under the Act
c. Reduce court jurisdiction
d. Cancel contracts
141. Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Preventive relief
b. Power to award compensation in certain cases
c. Rectification of instruments
d. Declaratory relief
142. Section 21 applies in suits for:
a. Damages only
b. Specific performance of a contract
c. Injunction only
d. Possession of property
143. Under Section 21(1), the plaintiff may claim compensation:
a. Instead of specific performance only
b. In addition to specific performance
c. Only after decree
d. Only in appeal
144. Compensation under Section 21 relates to:
a. Breach of contract
b. Criminal offence
c. Property damage
d. Administrative wrong
145. If the court refuses specific performance but finds breach of contract:
a. Suit must fail
b. Court shall award compensation
c. Court must dismiss case
d. Arbitration required
146. Section 21(2) applies when:
a. Specific performance is granted
b. Specific performance is refused but breach exists
c. Contract is void
d. Contract is illegal
147. Under Section 21(3), compensation may be granted:
a. Only when specific performance is refused
b. Along with specific performance if necessary for justice
c. Only by High Court
d. Only in arbitration
148. When specific performance is insufficient to satisfy justice:
a. Court dismisses suit
b. Court may award additional compensation
c. Court cancels contract
d. Court orders arbitration
149. Compensation awarded under Section 21 is determined according to:
a. Transfer of Property Act
b. Indian Contract Act Section 73
c. CPC provisions
d. Arbitration Act
150. Section 73 of the Contract Act deals with:
a. Breach of contract compensation
b. Penalty clauses
c. Void contracts
d. Agency