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There are 4 Sets of MCQs available for Specific Relief Act, 1963 , you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. Section 1 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with:
a. Short title, extent and commencement
b. Specific performance
c. Declaratory decrees
d. Preventive relief
2. The Specific Relief Act was enacted by:
a. Parliament of India
b. State Legislature
c. Supreme Court
d. Law Commission
3. The Act was enacted in the ______ Year of the Republic of India.
a. Fourteenth
b. Twelfth
c. Fifteenth
d. Sixteenth
4. The long title of the Specific Relief Act states that it is:
a. An Act to define and amend the law relating to certain kinds of specific relief
b. An Act to regulate contracts
c. An Act to regulate property transfers
d. An Act to regulate civil courts
5. According to Section 1(2), the Specific Relief Act extends to:
a. The whole of India
b. Only the States
c. Only Union Territories
d. Only metropolitan cities
6. Section 1(3) states that the Act shall come into force:
a. On such date as the Central Government may appoint by notification in the Official Gazette
b. Immediately after enactment
c. On Presidential assent
d. On approval by Parliament
7. The phrase “may be called” in Section 1 refers to:
a. Short title of the Act
b. Long title of the Act
c. Preamble of the Act
d. Object clause
8. Section 1(2) deals with:
a. Territorial extent of the Act
b. Commencement of the Act
c. Definition of relief
d. Powers of court
9. Section 1(3) deals with:
a. Commencement of the Act
b. Extent of the Act
c. Definition clause
d. Declaratory relief
10. The Specific Relief Act mainly deals with:
a. Equitable remedies in civil law
b. Criminal offences
c. Taxation matters
d. Constitutional remedies
11. The date of enforcement of the Specific Relief Act is decided by:
a. Central Government notification
b. Supreme Court order
c. Parliamentary resolution
d. Presidential ordinance
12. Section 1 belongs to which type of provision?
a. Preliminary provision
b. Penal provision
c. Procedural provision
d. Evidentiary provision
13. The phrase “It extends to the whole of India” refers to:
a. Territorial application of the Act
b. Subject matter jurisdiction
c. Financial jurisdiction
d. Appellate jurisdiction
14. Section 2 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Specific performance
c. Declaratory decrees
d. Injunctions
15. According to Section 2(a), “obligation” includes:
a. Every duty enforceable by law
b. Only contractual duty
c. Only moral duty
d. Only statutory duty
16. Under Section 2(a), the term “obligation” refers to:
a. Legal duty enforceable by law
b. Social responsibility
c. Moral duty
d. Religious obligation
17. The definition of “settlement” under Section 2(b) refers to:
a. An instrument disposing of successive interests in property
b. An oral agreement between parties
c. A judicial order
d. A government notification
18. According to Section 2(b), “settlement” means an instrument whereby:
a. Destination or devolution of successive interests in property is disposed of
b. Only present ownership is transferred
c. Only movable property is transferred
d. Only immovable property is transferred
19. Under Section 2(b), “settlement” excludes:
a. Will or codicil
b. Gift deed
c. Trust deed
d. Lease deed
20. The definition of “trust” in Section 2(c) is borrowed from:
a. Section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
b. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act
c. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act
d. Section 92 of CPC
21. According to Section 2(c), “trust” includes:
a. Obligation in the nature of a trust under Chapter IX of the Indian Trusts Act
b. Only express trusts
c. Only charitable trusts
d. Only religious trusts
22. According to Section 2(d), the term “trustee” refers to:
a. Person holding property in trust
b. Beneficiary of trust
c. Settlor of trust
d. Executor of will
23. Section 2(e) states that words not defined in this Act but defined in the Indian Contract Act:
a. Shall have the meanings assigned to them in that Act
b. Shall be interpreted by courts independently
c. Shall have ordinary meaning
d. Shall be defined by Central Government
24. The Indian Succession Act referred to in Section 2(b) was enacted in:
a. 1925
b. 1930
c. 1910
d. 1940
25. The Indian Trusts Act referred to in Section 2(c) was enacted in:
a. 1882
b. 1872
c. 1908
d. 1890
26. The Indian Contract Act referred to in Section 2(e) was enacted in:
a. 1872
b. 1882
c. 1908
d. 1860
27. “Obligation” in Section 2(a) includes:
a. Legal duty enforceable by court
b. Social obligation
c. Religious obligation
d. Customary obligation
28. Settlement under Section 2(b) may relate to:
a. Movable property
b. Immovable property
c. Both movable and immovable property
d. Only immovable property
29. The phrase “unless the context otherwise requires” in Section 2 indicates:
a. Definitions apply unless context demands different interpretation
b. Definitions are mandatory in all cases
c. Definitions are optional
d. Definitions apply only to courts
30. Section 3 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Savings
b. Definitions
c. Specific performance
d. Preventive relief
31. Section 3 begins with the phrase:
a. Except as otherwise provided herein
b. Subject to the provisions of this Act
c. Notwithstanding anything contained
d. Provided that
32. Section 3 provides that nothing in the Act shall be deemed to:
a. Deprive any person of any right to relief other than specific performance under any contract
b. Deprive any person of the right to damages
c. Deprive any person of constitutional rights
d. Deprive any person of criminal remedies
33. Section 3(b) states that the Act shall not affect the operation of:
a. Indian Registration Act, 1908
b. Indian Contract Act, 1872
c. Transfer of Property Act, 1882
d. Indian Trusts Act, 1882
34. Section 3(b) protects the operation of:
a. Registration laws relating to documents
b. Trust laws
c. Succession laws
d. Evidence laws
35. The effect of Section 3 is that:
a. The Specific Relief Act does not override certain contractual remedies and registration laws
b. The Act overrides all other laws
c. The Act invalidates registration laws
d. The Act replaces contract law
36. Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Enforcement of individual civil rights through specific relief
b. Criminal liability
c. Punishment for breach of contract
d. Registration of documents
37. Section 4 expressly states that specific relief cannot be granted for:
a. Mere enforcement of a penal law
b. Enforcement of civil rights
c. Enforcement of property rights
d. Enforcement of contractual rights
38. Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Recovery of specific immovable property
b. Preventive relief
c. Declaratory decrees
d. Injunctions
39. Under Section 5, a person entitled to possession of immovable property may:
a. Recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Recover it through criminal proceedings
c. Recover it through police action
d. Recover it through administrative order
40. Section 5 allows recovery by:
a. A person entitled to possession
b. Any person claiming interest
c. Only government authorities
d. Only registered owners
41. Which of the following property types is covered under Section 5?
a. Land or buildings
b. Movable goods
c. Money
d. Shares
42. A suit under Section 5 generally corresponds to:
a. Suit for possession based on title
b. Suit for injunction
c. Suit for declaration
d. Suit for damages
43. If a person has a lawful title to land but is dispossessed, he may recover possession under:
a. Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act
b. Section 10 of the Contract Act
c. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act
d. Section 9 of CPC
44. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Specific performance of contract
b. Suit by person dispossessed of immovable property
c. Declaratory decree
d. Preventive relief
45. Section 6 provides remedy when a person is dispossessed:
a. Without his consent and otherwise than in due course of law
b. With his consent
c. Through court decree
d. By lawful eviction
46. A suit under Section 6 must be filed within:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
47. The limitation period under Section 6 is counted from:
a. Date of knowledge
b. Date of dispossession
c. Date of filing complaint
d. Date of police report
48. A suit under Section 6 cannot be filed against:
a. Private individual
b. Corporation
c. Government
d. Tenant
49. In a suit under Section 6, the court mainly considers:
a. Title of property
b. Previous possession and dispossession
c. Ownership documents
d. Registration of property
50. In a Section 6 suit, even if the defendant proves better title:
a. The plaintiff may still recover possession
b. The suit must fail
c. The court must dismiss the case
d. The government decides the matter
51. Which principle is emphasized in Section 6?
a. Protection of possession
b. Enforcement of ownership only
c. Criminal punishment
d. Registration of property
52. A suit under Section 6 may be filed by:
a. Person dispossessed
b. Person claiming through him
c. Person through whom he was in possession
d. All of the above
53. Which factor is irrelevant in a Section 6 suit?
a. Title of property
b. Dispossession
c. Previous possession
d. Unlawful eviction
54. The remedy under Section 6 is intended to:
a. Prevent people from taking law into their own hands
b. Determine ownership finally
c. Punish trespassers criminally
d. Transfer property rights
55. If a person is forcibly dispossessed from land, he may file a suit under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
56. The nature of a Section 6 suit is:
a. Possessory suit
b. Declaratory suit
c. Criminal proceeding
d. Revenue proceeding
57. Under Section 6, the court primarily restores:
a. Ownership
b. Possession
c. Title documents
d. Registration rights
58. Appeal from a decree under Section 6:
a. Lies to High Court
b. Lies to District Court
c. Does not lie
d. Lies only with permission
59. Review of an order passed under Section 6:
a. Is allowed
b. Is not allowed
c. Is allowed only in High Court
d. Is allowed after six months
60. Which subsection bars appeal in a Section 6 suit?
a. Subsection (1)
b. Subsection (2)
c. Subsection (3)
d. Subsection (4)
61. The purpose of prohibiting appeal under Section 6 is:
a. Speedy restoration of possession
b. Protection of ownership
c. Reduction of court workload
d. Criminal punishment
62. Even after losing a Section 6 suit, a person can still:
a. File criminal case only
b. File suit to establish title and recover possession
c. File police complaint only
d. Take possession by force
63. Which subsection preserves the right to file a title suit?
a. Subsection (1)
b. Subsection (2)
c. Subsection (3)
d. Subsection (4)
64. Section 6 does not bar:
a. Filing suit to establish title
b. Filing appeal
c. Filing review
d. Filing criminal complaint
65. Section 7 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Recovery of specific movable property
b. Recovery of immovable property
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
66. Under Section 7, a person entitled to possession of specific movable property may:
a. Recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Recover it through criminal prosecution
c. Recover it through administrative order
d. Recover it through police action
67. A suit under Section 7 can be filed by:
a. A person entitled to possession
b. Any stranger
c. Only government authority
d. Only registered owner
68. Which of the following property types is covered under Section 7?
a. Car
b. Land
c. Building
d. Agricultural field
69. Explanation 1 to Section 7 states that:
a. Trustee may sue for possession of movable property
b. Only beneficiary may sue
c. Only government may sue
d. Only owner may sue
70. A trustee can sue under Section 7 when:
a. Beneficiary has beneficial interest in the movable property
b. Trustee owns the property personally
c. Government authorizes him
d. Court appoints him specially
71. Explanation 2 of Section 7 provides that:
a. Temporary right to possession is sufficient
b. Only permanent ownership is required
c. Only registered title is necessary
d. Only contractual right is sufficient
72. A person having temporary possession of goods can sue under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 9
73. Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Specific performance of contracts
b. Delivery of specific movable property by a person not being the owner
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
74. Under Section 8, a person in possession of movable property who is not the owner may be:
a. Compelled specifically to deliver it to the person entitled to immediate possession
b. Punished criminally
c. Forced to sell the property
d. Required to register the property
75. Section 8 applies to possession or control of:
a. Immovable property
b. Movable property
c. Intellectual property
d. Agricultural land
76. The person who can demand delivery under Section 8 must be:
a. Owner only
b. Person entitled to immediate possession
c. Police authority
d. Government officer
77. Section 8 applies when the person having possession of movable property:
a. Is the owner
b. Is not the owner
c. Is a judge
d. Is a government servant
78. Clause (a) of Section 8 applies when the property is held by the defendant as:
a. Agent or trustee of the plaintiff
b. Owner of the plaintiff
c. Tenant of the plaintiff
d. Buyer of the plaintiff
79. Under Section 8, specific delivery may be ordered when:
a. Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief
b. Compensation is sufficient
c. Property value is low
d. Defendant is poor
80. Clause (c) of Section 8 applies when:
a. Damages are easy to calculate
b. Actual damage is extremely difficult to ascertain
c. Property is immovable
d. Property is government owned
81. Section 8 allows delivery of property when:
a. Possession has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff
b. Possession is lawful
c. Plaintiff consented to transfer
d. Court ordered transfer
82. Clause (d) of Section 8 deals with:
a. Wrongful transfer of possession from the plaintiff
b. Contract breach
c. Ownership dispute
d. Registration dispute
83. Which of the following is NOT a condition under Section 8?
a. Property held by agent or trustee
b. Compensation inadequate
c. Damage difficult to ascertain
d. Defendant is owner
84. A court may presume under the explanation that:
a. Money compensation is adequate
b. Money compensation is not adequate
c. Ownership is transferred
d. Government owns property
85. Under Section 8 explanation, unless the contrary is proved the court shall:
a. Presume compensation is adequate
b. Presume compensation is inadequate
c. Presume plaintiff has no right
d. Presume defendant is owner
86. According to Section 8 explanation, the court may presume:
a. Damage is easy to calculate
b. Damage is extremely difficult to ascertain
c. Damage is irrelevant
d. Damage must be proved immediately
87. Which of the following situations fits Section 8?
a. Agent refuses to return goods to principal
b. Owner sells his own goods
c. Tenant occupies land
d. Landlord sells land
88. Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Recovery of possession
b. Defences in suits for relief based on contract
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
89. Section 9 applies when relief is claimed:
a. Under Chapter relating to contracts
b. Under criminal law
c. Under constitutional law
d. Under administrative law
90. Section 9 allows the defendant to raise defences available under:
a. Indian Contract Act
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Constitution of India
91. Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Preventive relief
b. Specific performance of contracts
c. Declaratory decrees
d. Recovery of property
92. According to Section 10, specific performance of a contract:
a. Shall be enforced by the court
b. May be ignored by the court
c. Is always refused
d. Is optional for parties only
93. Section 10 states that specific performance shall be enforced:
a. Subject to certain provisions of the Act
b. Without any limitation
c. Only if the government approves
d. Only if damages are claimed
94. Section 10 is subject to provisions of:
a. Section 11(2), Section 14, and Section 16
b. Section 5 and Section 6
c. Section 7 and Section 8
d. Section 34 and Section 36
95. Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Contracts connected with trusts
b. Preventive relief
c. Declaratory decrees
d. Recovery of property
96. According to Section 11(1), specific performance shall be enforced when:
a. The act agreed to be done is wholly or partly in performance of a trust
b. The act relates to criminal law
c. The act relates to immovable property only
d. The act relates to government contracts
97. Section 11(2) provides that a contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers:
a. Cannot be specifically enforced
b. Must be enforced
c. Must be registered
d. Must be approved by government
98. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Specific performance of whole contract
b. Specific performance of part of contract
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
99. The general rule under Section 12(1) is that:
a. Court shall direct specific performance of part of contract
b. Court shall not direct specific performance of part of contract
c. Court must always enforce part performance
d. Court must always grant damages
100. Section 12(1) provides that specific performance of part of a contract:
a. Is generally not allowed
b. Is always allowed
c. Is mandatory
d. Is a criminal remedy
101. Under Section 12(2), specific performance of part of a contract may be allowed when:
a. The unperformed part is small and compensation can be given
b. The unperformed part is large
c. The contract is illegal
d. The contract is void
102. Section 12(2) allows the court to:
a. Enforce the whole contract
b. Enforce part of contract and award compensation
c. Cancel the contract automatically
d. Refer the dispute to arbitration
103. If the unperformed part forms a small proportion of the contract and admits compensation:
a. Court may direct specific performance of the performed part
b. Court must refuse relief
c. Court must cancel contract
d. Court must impose penalty
104. Under Section 12(3), if the unperformed part forms a considerable part of the contract:
a. Defaulting party can obtain specific performance
b. Defaulting party cannot obtain specific performance
c. Contract must be cancelled
d. Court must enforce entire contract
105. Under Section 12(3), the other party may obtain specific performance if:
a. He fulfills certain conditions
b. He files criminal complaint
c. He obtains government approval
d. He cancels the contract
106. One condition under Section 12(3) is that the plaintiff must:
a. Transfer ownership
b. File criminal complaint
c. Register property
d. Pay the agreed consideration as required
107. Under Section 12(3), the plaintiff must also:
a. File appeal
b. Claim extra damages
c. Relinquish claims to remaining performance and compensation
d. Transfer property rights
108. Section 12(3)(a) applies when:
a. Contract is illegal
b. Unperformed part is small
c. Unperformed part is considerable but compensation is possible
d. Contract is void
109. Section 12(3)(b) applies when:
a. Unperformed part does not admit compensation
b. Unperformed part is small
c. Contract is valid
d. Contract is voidable
110. Under Section 12(4), the court may enforce part of a contract when:
a. It is part of the same indivisible contract
b. It stands on separate and independent footing
c. It is illegal
d. It involves criminal law
111. Section 12(4) applies when:
a. A separable part of contract can be specifically performed
b. Contract is indivisible
c. Contract is illegal
d. Contract is void
112. Section 12 provides exceptions to the general rule under:
a. Subsections (2), (3), and (4)
b. Subsection (1) only
c. Section 10 only
d. Section 14 only
113. Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Specific performance of part of contract
b. Rights of purchaser or lessee against person with no or imperfect title
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
114. Section 13 applies when a person contracts to sell or let:
a. Movable property only
b. Immovable property
c. Government property
d. Agricultural land only
115. Under Section 13, if the vendor has no title at the time of contract but later acquires interest in the property:
a. Contract becomes void
b. Purchaser may compel him to make good the contract out of such interest
c. Purchaser loses rights
d. Court must cancel contract
116. Section 13(1)(a) provides that if vendor later acquires interest:
a. Purchaser can compel performance from such interest
b. Contract automatically ends
c. Vendor becomes owner automatically
d. Court must grant damages only
117. Under Section 13(1)(b), if concurrence of another person is required to validate title:
a. Purchaser cannot enforce the contract
b. Purchaser may compel vendor to procure such concurrence
c. Court must cancel contract
d. Vendor must pay damages only
118. Section 13(1)(c) deals with a situation where property is:
a. Leased
b. Mortgaged
c. Government property
d. Agricultural land
119. If vendor sells property as unencumbered but it is mortgaged:
a. Purchaser must cancel contract
b. Purchaser may compel vendor to redeem mortgage
c. Contract becomes illegal
d. Court must award damages only
120. Under Section 13(1)(c), the purchaser may compel the vendor to:
a. Redeem the mortgage and obtain valid discharge
b. Cancel the contract
c. Transfer mortgage
d. File suit against mortgagee
121. Section 13(1)(c) applies when the mortgage amount is:
a. Equal to purchase money
b. Any amount
c. Greater than purchase money
d. Not exceeding purchase money
122. If necessary under Section 13(1)(c), the purchaser may require:
a. Registration of property
b. Transfer of mortgage
c. Conveyance from mortgagee
d. Government approval
123. Section 13(1)(d) applies when:
a. Purchaser files suit
b. Vendor or lessor files suit for specific performance
c. Mortgagee files suit
d. Government files suit
124. Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Specific performance of contracts
b. Contracts not specifically enforceable
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
125. If substituted performance of a contract has already been obtained under Section 20:
a. Specific performance can still be granted
b. Specific performance cannot be granted
c. Damages must be awarded
d. Contract becomes void
126. Section 14(a) bars specific performance where:
a. Substituted performance has been obtained
b. Contract is registered
c. Contract relates to immovable property
d. Contract is oral
127. A contract involving continuous duties which the court cannot supervise:
a. Is specifically enforceable
b. Must be cancelled
c. Is not specifically enforceable
d. Must be registered
128. Section 14(b) deals with contracts involving:
a. Personal services
b. Continuous duty which court cannot supervise
c. Transfer of property
d. Government contracts
129. Which of the following contracts is generally not specifically enforceable?
a. Contract for sale of land
b. Contract requiring continuous supervision
c. Contract for sale of goods
d. Contract for lease
130. A contract dependent on personal qualifications of parties:
a. Can always be specifically enforced
b. Cannot be specifically enforced
c. Must be cancelled
d. Must be approved by government
131. Section 14(c) refers to contracts dependent on:
a. Property ownership
b. Personal qualifications of parties
c. Government approval
d. Registration
132. A determinable contract is one which:
a. Cannot be terminated
b. Can be terminated by either party
c. Is illegal
d. Is void
133. A contract which is determinable in nature:
a. Can be specifically enforced
b. Cannot be specifically enforced
c. Must be registered
d. Must be performed by court
134. Clause (d) of Section 14 applies to:
a. Void contracts
b. Determinable contracts
c. Illegal contracts
d. Government contracts
135. Section 14A of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Specific performance of contracts
b. Power of court to engage experts
c. Preventive relief
d. Declaratory relief
136. Section 14A was introduced to empower courts to:
a. Cancel contracts
b. Seek expert opinion in suits under the Act
c. Transfer suits
d. Grant compensation
137. Under Section 14A(1), the court may engage:
a. Only one expert
b. One or more experts
c. Only government experts
d. Only technical experts
138. The court may engage experts when:
a. It considers it necessary to obtain expert opinion
b. Parties request it
c. Government directs it
d. It is mandatory in every case
139. Section 14A applies in:
a. Criminal cases
b. Any suit under the Specific Relief Act
c. Tax cases
d. Constitutional matters
140. Section 14A operates:
a. In addition to the Code of Civil Procedure
b. Instead of the CPC
c. Only under CPC
d. Only under Contract Act
141. Section 14A begins with the words:
a. Notwithstanding anything contained
b. Without prejudice to the provisions of CPC
c. Subject to government approval
d. Provided that
142. The expert engaged by the court must:
a. Decide the case
b. Report to the court on the issue referred
c. Represent the plaintiff
d. Represent the defendant
143. The court may secure attendance of the expert for:
a. Giving evidence
b. Filing appeal
c. Signing decree
d. Cancelling contract
144. The expert may also be required to:
a. Produce documents relating to the issue
b. Decide the case
c. Prepare decree
d. Represent parties
145. Under Section 14A(2), the court may direct a person to:
a. File criminal complaint
b. Provide relevant information to the expert
c. Transfer property
d. Register contract
146. The court may direct a person to produce:
a. Irrelevant documents
b. Relevant documents, goods, or property
c. Personal records only
d. Court files
147. According to Section 14A(3), the expert's report:
a. Is ignored by the court
b. Forms part of the record of the suit
c. Is confidential
d. Is sent to government
148. The expert may be examined:
a. Only in writing
b. Personally in open court
c. Only by government
d. Only by judge privately
149. Who may examine the expert in court?
a. Only the judge
b. Only plaintiff
c. Court or parties with permission of the court
d. Only defendant
150. The expert may be examined regarding:
a. His opinion or report
b. Criminal matters
c. Government policy
d. Court procedure
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